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IMMUNOLOGY > Definition > Flashcards

Definition Flashcards

1
Q

Binding of the phagocyte and pathogen using noncovalent interactions

A

Adhesion (Attachment)

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2
Q

enhancement of phagocytosis due to better binding mediated by complement or antibody receptors on the phagocytes’ surface.

A

Opsonins

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3
Q

Two types of opsonins

A

Complement and Immunoglobulin

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4
Q

Give the three Complement under opsonins

A

C3b (best), C4b, C5b

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5
Q

Give the three examples of immunoglobulin under opsonins

A

IgG1, IgG3 (Best), IgG2

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6
Q

surround the pathogen then form a vacuole called phagosome

A

Pseudophilia

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7
Q

are converted into phagolysosomes by fusion with lysosome (contains digestive enzymes) which release their contents into the newly-forming phagolysosomes

A

phagosomes

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8
Q

Occurs inside the phagolysosome

A

Digestion or Killing

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9
Q

Two types of OXYGEN-DEPENDENT

A

Reactive Oxygen Intermediates
Myeloperoxidase

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10
Q

o Superoxide anion, hydrogen peroxide and hydroxyl
radicals

o Kills microbes directly by oxidizing their nucleic acid
and proteins

A

Reactive Oxygen Intermediates

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11
Q

Activated by H2O2

A

Myeloperoxidase

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12
Q

Two types of OXYGEN-INDEPENDENT

A

Defensins and Digestive Enzymes

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13
Q

Antibody-like peptides made by phagocytes, especially PMNs

A

Defensins

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14
Q

Present in the phagolysosomes that damage microbes

A

Digestive enzyme

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15
Q

Considered as part of non-specific line of defense
Changes in capillary wall structure allow interstitial fluid and WBCs to leak out in tissue
Promotes macrophage activity

A

INFLAMATION

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16
Q

Five CARDINAL SIGNS OF INFLAMMATION

A

Calor
Dolor
Tumor
Rubor
Functio laesa

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17
Q

Specific immune responses exhibit three distinct characteristics:
o Self/non-self discrimination
o Memory
o Specificity

A

THIRD LINE OF DEFENSE

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18
Q

Selectively respond to non-self-substances or antigens
Which leads to immune memory and a permanently altered pattern of response or adaptation in immunocompetent individual

A

Lymphocytes

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19
Q

Give the three Cellular components:

A

T Cells, B Cells, Plasma Cells

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20
Q

Give the two types of humoral components

A

Antibodies, Cytokines

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21
Q

Natural: Injection
Artificial: Vaccination

A

ACTIVE IMMUNITY

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22
Q

Natural: Maternal Antibodies
Artificial: Monoclonal antibodies

A

PASSIVE IMMUNITY

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23
Q

Natural Infection Artificial vaccination
Permanent
ab produce by host

A

ACTIVE

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24
Q

Natural transfer in vivo or colostrum
Artificial infusion of serum or plasma
Temporary
No Ab produce by host

A

Passive

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25
Q

Delayed (Type IV) hypersensitivity
Immunity to viral and fungal antigens, transplant rejection, intracellular organisms, tumor cells, contact sensitivity

A

Cell-Mediated Immunity

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26
Q

Found in Paracortical Areas

A

T-Cell Dependent Regions

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27
Q

Found in the cortex

A

B-Cell Dependent Regions

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28
Q

have small B Cells

A

Primary Follicles

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29
Q

contain many large, dividing lymphocytes and plasma cells (known as Germinal Centers)

A

Secondary Follicles:

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30
Q

Do not express CD glycoproteins
Contains terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase (TdT)

A

Pre T-Cells/ Bone Marrow T-Cells

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31
Q

• Destroy host cells harboring anything foreign and thus bearing foreign antigen, such as body cells invaded by viruses, cancer cells that have mutated proteins resulting from the malignant transformation and xenografts (cells transplanted from another species)

A

CYTOTOXIC T-CELLS (CD8+ or Tc Cells)

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32
Q

The direct means used by cytotoxic T Cells is the same as used by NK cells by releasing perforin molecules which penetrate into the target cell’s surface membrane and join together to form large pore-like channels

A

PERFORIN MOLECULES

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33
Q

Will recognize and bind to the combination of antigen with MHC Class II molecules on the macrophage surface, resulting in the production of soluble factors called cytokines such as IL-2

A

HELPER T-CELLS (CD4+ or Th Cells

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34
Q

Do not have to be presented antigen to become active
Limit immune reactions → negative feedback

A

SUPRESSOR T-CELLS (CD8+ or Ts Cells)

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35
Q

Induced during the primary immune response
They recognize specific antigen and participate in anamnestic response
Most have Th functions and hence are CD4+

A

MEMORY (Tm) T-CELLS

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36
Q

Not stimulated by antigen yet
Synthesizes IgM heavy chains (not light chains) which is confined in the cytoplasm of cell and not secreted
Expresses: MHC Class II, complement receptors
Characterized by the presence of mu chains in cytoplasm

A

Pre B-Cell

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37
Q

Loses some of its cytoplasmic IgM heavy chains
Acquire surface IgM and then IgD

A

Migrate to Germinal Centers:

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38
Q

Loses some of its cytoplasmic IgM heavy chains
Acquire surface IgM and then IgD

A

Adult/ Mature B Cell

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39
Q

Most proficient antibody-forming cell
Terminally differentiated B Cell
Does not have the following B Cell features

A

Plasma Cell

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40
Q

Antibody generator”
• Any substance that is recognized as foreign and elicits specific activation of lymphocytes/ provokes an immune response

A

Antigens

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41
Q

Is the ability to induce a humoral and/or cell-mediated
immune response

A

IMMUNOGENICITY

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42
Q

Is the ability to induce a humoral and/or cell-mediated
immune response

A

IMMUNOGENICITY

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43
Q

Is the ability to combine specifically with the final products of the above responses (i.e., antibodies and/or cell-surface receptors)

A

ANTIGENICITY

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44
Q

Complex molecules
Capable of reacting with homologous antibodies
Can stimulate an immune response, antibody synthesis

A

COMPLETE ANTIGENS

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45
Q

Too small too behave as a complete Ag
Capable of reacting with homologous antibodies
Cannot stimulate an immune response
May bind themselves to protein and hence resulting haptenprotein complex is antigenic

A

HAPTENS/ INCOMPLETE ANTIGENS

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46
Q

Examples of Haptens:

A

Antibiotics: Penicillin, Gentamicin
Analgesics: Aspirin
Complex CHO: capsule of H. influenzae type B

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47
Q

CONTRIBUTION OF THE IMMUNOGEN

A

Size
Accessibility of determinant groups on the surface of the molecule
Degradability
Chemical Composition
Physical form
Foreignness

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48
Q

The greater the difference between the substance and the host, the more potent is its antigenic qualities

A

Foreigness

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49
Q

If immunodominant groups reside within the interior of protein molecule, they can neither stimulate an immune response nor react with homologous antibodies

A

Accessibility of determinant groups on the surface of the molecule

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50
Q

CONTRIBUTION OF THE BIOLOGICAL SYSTEMS

A

Genetic factor
Ages

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51
Q

Some substances are immunogenic in one species to another. Similarly, some substances are immunogenic in one individual but not in others

A

Genetic factor

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52
Q

Usually, the very young or very old have diminished ability to mount an immune response to an immunogen

A

Age

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53
Q

METHOD OF ADMINISTRATION

A

Dose
Route
Adjuvants

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54
Q

The dose of administration of an immunogen can influence its immunogenicity. There is a dose of antigen above or below which the immune response will not be optimal

A

Dose

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55
Q

Subcutaneous or Intramuscular Route > Intravenous or By Mouth

A

Route

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56
Q

Substances that enhances the immune response o Undesirable side effects: Fever and Inflammation

A

Adjuvants

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57
Q

CHEMICAL NATURE

A

Proteins
Polysaccharide
Lipids
Nucleic acid

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58
Q

Must be pure proteins or glycoproteins/ lipoproteins to become a good immunogens

A

Protein

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59
Q

Pure polysaccharide and lipopolysaccharides are good immunogens

A

Polysaccharide

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60
Q

Poorly immunogenic
Immunogenic when single stranded or complexed with proteins

A

Nucleic acids

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61
Q

Non-immunogenic (haptens

A

Lipids

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62
Q

Antigenic sites, antigenic determinants, antigenic factors, antigenic specificities
Small chemical groups or radicals attached to a larger protein or polysaccharide of the cell

A

Epitopes

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63
Q

Term applied to the number of combining sites on either an antibody or antigen

A

Immunologic Valence

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64
Q

single combining site

A

Monovalent

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65
Q

more than one determinant site

A

Polyvalent/ Multivalent

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66
Q

antibody formed as a result of immune stimulus (exposure to a foreign antigen

A

Immunoglobulin

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67
Q

antibody formed without prior exposure to foreign antigen

A

Naturally occuring

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68
Q

antibody formed to one’s own antigens (abnormal condition)

A

Autoantibody

69
Q

antibody capable of causing agglutination when reacting with corresponding antigen

A

Agglutinin

70
Q

antibody formed to foreign antigens, but within the same species

A

Alloantibody

71
Q

name commonly given to blood groups antibodies Anti-A and Anti-B

A

Isoagglutinin

72
Q

GENERAL FUNCTION OF IMMUNOGLOBULIN

A

Neutralize toxic substances

• Facilitate phagocytosis

• Kill microbes

• Combine with antigen on cellular surfaces and thereby cause destruction of cells

73
Q

Variants present in all healthy members of a species

A

Isotypes

74
Q

Variants that are inherited as alternatives (alleles)

A

Allotypes

75
Q

Antigenic determinants associated with variable regions of immunoglobulin molecule

A

Idiotypes

76
Q

▪ Gamma (IgG) ▪ Mu (IgM) ▪ Delta (IgD) ▪ Alpha (IgA) ▪ Epsilon (IgE

A

Heavy Chains

77
Q

▪ Two identically defined types of light chains ▪ Kappa ▪ Lambda

A

Light Chains

78
Q

▪ Capable of antigen binding
▪ Each is composed of one LC and ½ HC

A

o Fab Fragment

79
Q

▪ Fragment crystalline ▪ Composed of the second half of two HC

A

Fc Fragment

80
Q

Two types of peptide chains

A

Heavy chain and light chain

81
Q

• F(ab)2

• Fc

oCapable of causing agglutination or precipitation

o Retains the ability to bind antigen

A

PEPSIN

82
Q

Produces 3 fragments

A

• 2 Fab

• 1 Fc

83
Q

No detectable antibod

A

Lag phase

84
Q

Antibody titer increases logarithmically

A

Log phase

85
Q

Antibody titer stabilizes

A

Plateau phase

86
Q

Antibody is broken down (catabolized)

A

Decline

87
Q

o When a foreign antigen is first introduced, the antibody cannot be detected immediately in the serum or plasma

o Antibodies are detected about 10-14 days after antigenic stimulation (greatest at 20 days)

o Subclass of antibody associated with this is IgM

A

Primary response

88
Q

o A second exposure to the same antigen creates more a rapid response

o Detectable amounts of IgM appear first, followed by IgG

o Memory phenomenon elicited

o Produces a higher and longer lasting titer of IgG

A

Secondary response

89
Q

o Major immunoglobulin in blood (about 75%) o Smallest molecular weight; longest half-life
o Major immunoglobulin during secondary immune response
o Major opsonizing immunoglobulin o Can pass through the placental barrier
o Important to the passive immunity of fetus and newborn baby
o Participates in precipitation and agglutination

A

IgG

90
Q

dominant subtype in adult human

A

IgG1

91
Q

cannot cross the placenta

A

IgG2

92
Q

most effective binder for complement

A

IgG3

93
Q
  • least or unable to fix complement
A

IgG4

94
Q

o Pentamer (5 subunits)
o Major antibody during the primary immune response
o Only antibody made to certain carbohydrate antigens (ABO Blood Group Antigen)
o Does not cross the placenta
o First effective antibody against bacteremia
o Excellent agglutinins but poor precipitins
o Excellent complement fixing antibody
o Wassermann antibodies, heterophile antibodies, rheumatoid factor, cold agglutinins

A

IgM

95
Q

o Major immunoglobulin found in secretions o Secretory IgA: Dimer, Blood: Monomer
o Does not cross placenta nor does not activate complement
o Major immune factor in combating pathogens in the respiratory, urinary and intestinal tracts
o Monomeric forms do not appear to activate complement but dimeric can fix complement

A

IgA

96
Q

o Present in lowest concentration
o Ability to attach to human skin (homocytotropism)

oMast cells and basophils carry a unique high affinity Fc receptors specific for IgE antibodies Formerly called Reagin
Synthesized mainly in respiratory and gastrointestinal tracts
Does not pass the placenta
Does not fix complement

A

IgE

97
Q

• Produces a rapid, highly amplified response to a trigger stimulus mediated by a cascade phenomenon where the product of one reaction is the enzymatic catalyst of the next

A

COMPLEMENT SYSTEM

98
Q

o C3a, C4a and C5a
o Substances that degranulate mast cells causing release of histamine (mediator of inflammation

A

Anaphylatoxins

99
Q

Chemotaxins

A

o C5a o Attracts leukocytes to migrate up the concentration gradient

100
Q

C4 greatly enhances neutralization of viruses by homologous antibodies

A

Virus Neutralization

101
Q

o C3b
o Promotes attachment and ultimate ingestion of the foreign substances

A

Opsonization

102
Q

MAC

A

Cell lysis

103
Q

o Consists of recognition event, which initiates the complement cascade o The classical and alternative pathway differ in this phase

A

Initiation Phase

104
Q

Activation of early complement components culminate in activation of C3, which is a critical component

o The classical and alternative pathway also differ in this phase

A

Amplification Phase

105
Q

Culminates in target cell lysis

o The classical and alternative pathways share common final pathway for this phase

A

Membrane attack complex

106
Q

• Attachment of antigen-antibody causes an allosteric structural change in the immunoglobulin, creating a complement receptor site.

• First complement molecule attached is C1
o Aka Recognition Unit
o Consists of C1q, C1r, C1s
o Held together by Calcium ion

A

Classical pathway

107
Q

• The most important and most abundant component is C3

• C3a and C5a have both chemotactic and anaphylatoxic properties but does not interact with other complement component

A

Classical parthway

108
Q

• Primitive defense system

• Bypass mechanism that does not require C1, C4, and C2

• Important in early protection against bacteria

A

PROPERDIN/ ALTERNATIVE PATHWAY

109
Q

▪ By aggregated IgA or IgG4
▪ Can be activated in the absence of complement binding antibody

A

Immunologically

110
Q

Bacterial Cell Products

• Lipopolysaccharides (Gram Neg)

• Teichoic Acid (Gram Pos)

• Zymosan (Yeast)

• Surface components of Parasites (S. mansoni)

A

Non-immunologically

111
Q

Like C3b, it complexes with Bb

A

• Cobra Venom Factor (CVF

112
Q

Classical and MBL C3 convertase.

A

C4b2a

113
Q

• Structure is similar to C1q

• Binding of MBL to bacterium allows MASP 1 and MASP 2 to bind

• MASP 1 and 2, like C1r and C1s, cleave C4 and C2 → C4b2a complex binds to a particle surface

A

• MBL: Mannose-binding lectin

114
Q

Enzymes that destroy the primary structure (amino acid sequence)

A

INACTIVATORS

115
Q

Prevent their further interaction with other intermediates of the cascade

A

INHIBITORS

116
Q

Enzymatically destroys the biologic activity of C3a, C4a, and C5a by removing the carboxy-terminal arginine

A

Anaphylatoxin Inactivator

117
Q

▪ The C3b inactivator, is serine protease
▪ It cleaves C3b

A

Factor I

118
Q

Acts with Factor I to bind C3b and allow Factor I to cleave the alpha chain of C3b

A

Factor H

119
Q

A plasma alpha2-globulin, inhibits the enzymatic activity if C1 esterase by dissociating the subunits C1q, C1r, C1s
▪ Deficiency in C1 INH: Hereditary Angioneurotic Edema (HANE)

A

o C1 INH

120
Q

Factor I

Anaphylatoxin Inactivator

A

Inactivators

121
Q

Factor H

C1 INH

A

Inhibitors

122
Q

• Is the initial force of attraction that an antibody for a

specific antigenic determinant or epitope

• How well the antibody fits to the shape of the antigen will

determine the stability of bond (goodness of fit)

• Antigens and antibodies with the perfect lock and key fit

will have the strongest affinity

A

AFFINITY

123
Q

• Is the sum of all attractive forces

• between an antigen and antibody

• It is the force that stabilizes the antigen-antibody reaction,

keeping the molecules together

• The stronger the chemical bonds which form between the

antigen and antibody, the less likely that the reaction will

reverse

A

AVIDITY

124
Q

• Term applied to aggregation
of PARTICULATE/ INSOLUBLE test antigens

A

AGGLUTINATION

125
Q

Aggregation of SOLUBLE test antigens

A

PRECIPITATION

126
Q

Participating antigen (e.g., RBC, bacteria)

A

Agglutinogen

127
Q

Participating antibody

A

Agglutinin

128
Q

o Sensitization (Antigen-Antibody Formation)
o Lattice Formation

A

Agglutination TWO STAGES

129
Q

Represent the physical attachment of antibody molecules to antigen on the erythrocyte membrane

A

SENSITIZATION

130
Q

P ▪ Binds to C4b and allows Factor I to cleave the alpha chain of C4b

A

C4bBP

131
Q

Protects the target cell from lysis by binding to the developing fluid phase C5b67. The resulting complex cannot penetrate the cell membrane

A

S Protein (Vitronectin

132
Q

•

Establishment of crosslinks between sensitized particles (e.g., erythrocytes) and antibodies resulting in aggregation

•

Slower process than sensitization phase

•

Formation depends on the ability of the cell with attached antibody on its surface to come close enough to another cell to permit

the antibody molecules to bridge the gap and combine with the antigen receptor site on the second cell

A

LATTICE FORMATION

133
Q

• Insoluble particle which is in suspension is reacted with an antibody thus resulting to aggregation of particles

• The aggregation is brought about by antibody molecules with two or more combining sites linking the particles.

A

DIRECT AGGLUTINATION

134
Q

Refers to antibodies reactive with antigens of the native particles.

• Antigen is naturally found in the

cell

A

DIRECT IMMUNE

135
Q

Lectins (Phytohemagglutinins) are not antibodies hence the direct hemagglutination of blood group O cells by anti-H lectin is considered a non-immune reaction

Aggregations of red cells are not due to Ag-Ab reaction

A

DIRECT NON-IMMUNE

136
Q

Instead of antibody that will bind to the antigen, it is viruses (Influenza and Rubella) that bind to epitope and agglutinate

o This is a non-immune type of agglutination

A

VIRAL HEMAGGLUTINATION

137
Q

o Measures the ability of soluble antigen to inhibit the agglutination of antigen-coated RBC by antibodies

o Fixed amount of antibodies to the antigen in question is mixed with a fixed amount of RBC coated with the antigen

A

• HEMAGGLUTINATION INHIBITION

138
Q

• Reactions wherein antigen is attached to a carrier particle and is used to detect antibody in biologic sample

• Involves the agglutination of cells or inert particle (passive carrier) coated with soluble antigen or antibody

A

INDIRECT/ PASSIVE AGGLUTINATION

139
Q

▪ Many proteins adsorb poorly to cells, mild treatment with tannic acid or similar reagents may increase the amount of cell-bound antigen or antibody

A

Tannic Acids

140
Q

Has similar applications to the tanned red cell technique. Protein antigen are chemically coupled by covalent bonds to red cell membrane using BDB

A

o BDB (Bidiazotized Benzidine) Method

141
Q

Tannic acids
Bdb
Are.

A

Coupling reagents

142
Q

Primarily designed to demonstrate incomplete antibody presence in the serum

A

ANTI-GLOBULIN TEST

143
Q

• Incomplete antibody is already attached to red cells prior to the reaction with

• Anti-Globulin

Anti-D Test for Rh HDN

A

Direct

144
Q

Is still to be attached to an analyte (to be added in the reaction)

Rose Waaler Test for RF Detection

A

Indirect

145
Q

to detect the capsular antigen of anthrax bacilli

A

Ascoll

146
Q

Lancefield serological typing is for

A

Streptococci

147
Q

identification of species origin for a blood stain

A

Forensic

148
Q

behaves as a precipitinogen when mixed with anti-CRP

A

CRP

149
Q

Antigen is diluted and added to constant amount of antibody

Prozone: Ag excess
Postzone: Ab excess

Detects smallest amount of antigen that can give a visible

•

reaction with a given amount of antibody

A

DEAN and WEBB (ALPHA) PROCEDURE

150
Q

Antibody is diluted and added to constant amount of a

Precipitation occurs in a much narrower range of reactant dilutions

Detects smallest amount of antibody that can give a visible reaction with a given amount of antigen

Prozone: Ab excess Postzone: Ag

A

RAMON (BETA) PROCEDURE

151
Q

Precipitation reactions which are conducted in semisolid medium circumvent the problem of zoning and ambiguity in the number of antigen and antibody system

A

PRECIPITIN TEST

152
Q

Soluble antigen and/or antibody can diffuse through the pores of the gel until their concentration reaches the optimum ratio and there form a stable immunoprecipitate Molecules of different sizes tend to diffuse through gels at different rates (the higher the MW, the slower the rate of diffusion)

A

Precipitin texpst

153
Q

Only one reactant (usually antigen) is moving

A

SINGLE DIFFUSION TEST

154
Q

Both antigen and antibody are moving through the medium

A

DOUBLE DIFFUSION TEST

155
Q

. Reaction in tubes - Antigen and antibody migrate up and down

A

SINGLE DIMENSION TEST

156
Q

Petri Dish- Antigen and antibody diffuse rapidly

A

DOUBLE DIMENSION TEST

157
Q

Single diffusion- single dimension
Single diffusion- double dimension
oDouble diffusion- single dimension
Double diffusion- double dimension

A

FOUR COMBINATIONS FOR IMMUNODIFFUSION TESTS

158
Q

o Commonly called as Radial Immunodiffusion (RID) or Mancini Test

o Popular method for quantitating a variety of proteins normally found in serum (Ig classes, complement component, lysozyme)

o Quantitating antibody titers

A

• SINGLE DIFFUSION - DOUBLE DIMENSION

159
Q

Measure the disc while it is expanding (usually at 18 hours) or taken before point of equivalence is reached

Results obtained in a shorter period of time

Diameter is proportional to the logarithm of concentration

A

KINETIC (FAHEY) METHOD

160
Q

Measure it when it essentially has stopped expanding; allow maximal precipitation or completion

Produce a more reliable result

Diameter is proportional to the square of concentration

A

END-POINT (MANCINI) METHOD

161
Q

Movement of charged molecules through an electrical field

• Negative-charged ion (Cathode) → Positive-charged ion (Anode)

A

ELECTROPHORESIS

162
Q

o Also known as Ouchterlony and Elek

o Ability to detect serologic identity (or lack thereof) in two or more antigen-antibody systems

A

DOUBLE DIFFUSION – DOUBLE DIMENSION

163
Q

o Principle is the same with immunodiffusion except for the use of electrical current to enhance the movement of reactants and possibly shorten the time of reaction

A

IMMUNOELECTROPHORESIS

164
Q

o Rocket Technique of Laurell

o Electrophoretic counterpart of Oudin

Single reagent (antigen) migrating electrophoretically

A

SINGLE REACTANT MOVING IN ONE DIMENSION

165
Q

Platelets
Quantitative
Employs electrophoresis

A

ROCKET TECHNIQUE OF LAUREL

166
Q

Tube
Qualitative
Diffusion

A

Oudin

167
Q

This is because of smaller amounts of
precipitates exist on either side of equivalence

Fuzzy edges

A

R-TYPE PRECIPITATION

168
Q

Clean edge

Because flocculation is complete within the equivalence zone

A

H-TYPE PRECIPITATION

IMMUNOLOGY (2 decks)

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