Defenses to negligence Flashcards

1
Q

What are the three types of defenses to negligence?

A

A. Contributory negligence
B. Comparative negligence (Pure, modified less than 50, and modified equal to or less than 50)
C. Assumption of Risk (Implied + Primary)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the two defenses to any tort claims?

A
  1. SOL (based on absolute date)

2. Statute of Repose (based on discovery of injury)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Define contributory negligence

A

Plaintiff fails to exercise due care for its own safety and contributes to the negligence of defendant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

General rule for contributory negligence

A

Plaintiff’s own negligence contributes to the defendant’s negligence which causes harm to the plaintiff.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How is the doctrine of last clear chance applied?

A

It is a defense raised by the P upon being found contributory negligence to still get full recovery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Who has to burden to prove the last clear chance

A

Plaintiff

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

T/F: P can raise LCC even if not found to be contributory negligent

A

False

D must prove P was contributory negligent before P can raise this doctrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

T/F: D must take the last opportunity to avoid injury to the P regardless of the P’s negligence

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

5 elements for LCC

A

1- P’s negligence placed itself in peril and there are no means to escape
2- D knew or should have known of P’s peril
3- D had the time and means to avoid injury from occurring
4- D failed or refused to use every reasonable means to avoid injury to P
5- P is injured as a result of D’s failure to avoid injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Define comparative negligence

A

Compares the D’s fault to the P’s fault and reduces the damages owed to the P by % their own fault.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

General rule for Pure comparative negligence

A

P may recover damages reduced by their own liability even if their liability exceeds that of the D.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

In a pure comparative jx, P is found to be 90% at fault and is awarded $100,000 in damages. How much is owed to P?

A

P can only recover 10% of the damages ($10,000)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

General rule for Modified comparative negligence (not greater than; 50/50)

A

P may only recover damages if liability is NOT more than 50%.

P+ D may be 50% liable each but P cannot be found 51% and still recover

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

In a modified (not greater than) comparative jx, P is found 56% liable and D is found 44% liable. Can P still recover?

A

No because in this jx, P’s recovery is barred if liability is found greater than D.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

General rule for modified comparative negligence (less than; 49/51)

A

P may only recover if liability is LESS than 50%.

If P + D is equally found to be 50% liable, P cannot recover.

if P is found 49% and D is found 50%, P may recover damages reduced by its liability.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

In a modified (less than) comparative jx, P is found 30% liable and D is found 70% liable. Awarded damages for $100,000. How much can P recover?

A

In this jx, P may recover because liability is less than 50% but damages will be reduced by liability.

Here, P may recover $70,000

17
Q

Who has the burden to prove P’s fault and degree of fault?

A

Defendant

18
Q

T/F: The fault of multiple D’s can typically be combined

A

True

19
Q

Assumption of Risk is similar to ______?

A

Consent

20
Q

Define express assumption of risk

A

Arises when parties agree BEFOREhand, either in writing or orally, that P will relieve D of his/her legal duty owed to P.

21
Q

To establish express AOR, there must be a _____ ? What is the result?

A

clear statement, written or oral, where P expressly relieves D of a duty towards P in advance AND P takes a chance of injury from known risk.

As a result, D is relieved of what would otherwise be a duty to P

22
Q

Define implied assumption of risk

A

P voluntarily enters into something, knowing D will not protect him against future risk that may arise and P is barred from recovering for injuries resulting from the risk D created by satisfying all of the elements,

23
Q

Elements of implied AOR

A

1- P actually knew of the specific risk
2- P appreciated the magnitude of the risk
3- P knowingly + voluntarily placed himself in a position to be injured by taking the risk

24
Q

Under implied AOR, D must prove what ?

A

The P knowingly and voluntarily chose to encounter the risk

25
Q

Define primary implied AOR

A

D had no duty of care to P because P assumed the inherent risk

Whether duty of care exists is a question of law.

26
Q

Primary or secondary implied AOR?

P visits a ski resort for the weekend. P falls and breaks a bone on the slopes.

A

Primary Implied AOR because D did not have a duty of care to P

27
Q

Define secondary implied AOR

A

D had a duty of care and was negligent; but P assumed the risk of the negligence anyway

28
Q

Primary or secondary implied AOR?

Neighbor loans friend a defective lawn mower. Friend knows of the defect but uses the mower anyway and is injured.

A

Secondary implied AOR because P knew of the inherent risk and chose to assume the risk anyways.

29
Q

General rule for primary implied AOR

A

Arises when P impliedly consents to relieve the defendant of a duty to P about specific, known, and appreciated risk AND consent is implied when P engages in conduct.

30
Q

Define SOL

A

A cause of action for a tort may be barred through lapse of time because of the provisions of a statute of limitations

31
Q

Define statute of repose

A

Time beyond which an action may not be brought, whether the cause of action has accrued or not.

32
Q

Define accural

A

The professional’s last act