Defenses Flashcards

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1
Q

two categories of defenses

A
  1. excuse defenses: “forgive” D for committing a crime because of some disturbance of the D’s mental processes, thus nullifying culpability for the crime
    *exam tip- all excuses turn on one question: Was the defendant’s mental process overwhelmed to the point that it is unfair to hold them accountable for the crime?
  2. justification defenses: establish that what is normally unlawful was not unlawful under the particular facts of the case, and thus nullify the “reus” of the crime
    *exam tip- all justification defenses turn on one question: Was it truly necessary for the defendant to take the law into their own hands and commit an act that is normally unlawful?
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2
Q

Insanity

A

if the D was legally insane at the time of his criminal act, no criminal responsibility will be imposed.

*burden is on the D to prove not sane.

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3
Q

4 tests for insanity

A
  1. M’Naghten test
  2. irresistible impulse test
  3. MPC test
  4. Durham Rule
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4
Q

M’Naghten test

A

D suffered from a severe mental disease or defect, and as a result was unable to know either:
-the nature and quality of his act was wrong; or
-that what he was doing was wrong

*does not include psychopathic personality

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5
Q

irresistible impulse test

A

the D is not guilty if he had a mental disease that kept him from controlling his conduct.

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6
Q

MPC test

A

As a result of mental disease or defect, D lacks substantial capacity to either:

Appreciate the criminality of his conduct; or
Conform his conduct to the requirements of the law

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7
Q

Durham (New Hampshire) Rule

A

D is not criminally responsible if the unlawful act would not have been committed but for the mental disease/defect

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8
Q

involuntary intoxication

A

a defense to any crime requiring proof of general or specific intent, so long as it negates mens rea or it caused temporary insanity

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9
Q

voluntary intoxication

A

may be a valid defense to a SPECIFIC intent crime if it negates the required mental state (may negate purposeful or knowing mental state)

NOT a defense to general intent crimes- won’t negate recklessness, negligence, or strict liability

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10
Q

duress

A

excuses criminal conduct where the D reasonably believes that the only way to avoid an unlawful threat of great bodily harm or imminent death is to engage in unlawful conduct

*not a defense to murder unless to excuse underlying felony in felony murder

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11
Q

self-defense

A

an honest and reasonable judgment that it is necessary to use force to defend an unlawful imminent threat of bodily harm

-D uses proportional force to prevent imminent harm (no more than is necessary)

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12
Q

homicidal self-defense

A

deadly force is permitted only in response to an imminent threat of death or grievous bodily harm

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13
Q

unclean hands

A

the first aggressor may not claim self-defense

CL: the first aggressor could regain the right to self-defense only by complete withdrawal perceived by the original victim.

modern majority: same as CL, but the first aggressor will regain the right of self-defense if the original victim responds to the aggression with excessive force.

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14
Q

retreat rule

A

(CL) The victim of unlawful violence had a duty to retreat before a use of deadly force. Does not apply when non deadly force is used.

-retreat is NOT required in the defendant’s own home, car, or office, and is not required if retreat is not feasible/safe.

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15
Q

defense of a third person

A

A defendant is justified when it is necessary to defend a third party who is facing an unlawful imminent threat of bodily harm.
Deadly force is only justified when there is a threat of death or grievous bodily harm.

majority rule: if D was reasonable but mistaken in belief that third person was being attacked, they can still claim defense of others

minority: D steps into the shoes of the V- if the third party was the aggressor, D has no defense

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16
Q

defense of property

A

Non-deadly force is justified if:

  1. D has a reasonable belief that the property is in imminent danger; and
  2. D did not use more force than what was necessary to prevent the interference
17
Q

necessity

A
  1. There is an immediate threat of greater harm to persons or property unless D commits the act;
  2. No reasonable alternative to breaking the law; and
  3. D is not responsible for causing the initial harm

Common Law: Necessity is never defense to murder, unless it is raised as a defense to the underlying felony for felony murder.
MPC: The D can raise necessity for all charges, even homicide, which might result in acquittal, if the D kills one person to save multiple lives.