Defences Flashcards

1
Q

What section of the Crimes Act 1961 pertains to all the common law defenses?

A

Answer:

Section 20 CA 1961

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2
Q

What is the definition of justified in relation to any person?

A

Answer:

Means a person is not guilty of an offence and is not liable civilly.

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3
Q

What is meant by the term protected from criminal responsibility?

A

Answer:

Protected from criminal responsibility means the person is not guilty of an offence but civil liability may still arise.

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4
Q

Under sections 21 and 22 of the Crimes Act 1961 What relates to infancy?

A

Answer:
Under s21
no person shall be convicted of an offence by reason of any act done or omitted by him when under the age of 10 years.

Under s22
no person shall be convicted of an offense by reason of any act done or omitted by him when of the age of 10 but under the age of 14 years, unless he knew that the act or omission was wrong or that it was contrary to law.

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5
Q

In relation to children age between 10 and 13 years inclusive, What must be shown that the child knew when committing an offence?

What if knowledge cannot be shown?

A

Answer:
It must be shown that the child knew that it was wrong or contrary to law. This test of knowledge is in addition to the mens rea and actus reus requirements.

Answer:
If knowledge cannot be shown the child cannot be criminally liable for the offence

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6
Q

Even though a child under 10 has an absolute defense to any charge brought against them and the child cannot be convicted, What still needs to be established?

A

Answer:

Whether or not they are guilty still has to be established.

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7
Q

What was held in R v Rapira is in relation to a child knowing that they act was wrong?

A

Answer:

They need not understand that the act was seriously wrong.

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8
Q

How is proof of age determined?

A

Answer:
Prosecution is required to produce evidence of age e.g. birth certificate and provide evidence that identifies the defendant as the person named in the certificate.

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9
Q

What is meant by the relevant age?

A

Answer:

The relevant age is that of the child at the time they committed the offence and not the age when they appear in court.

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10
Q

When offences are being committed by children under the age of 10 years and some actions are desirable or necessary, What action can be considered?

A

Answer:
You may consider having the child and family dealt with as a Care and Protection matter

Where this action is taken the circumstances are reported to Oranga Tamariki for the attention of the Care and Protection Coordinator

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11
Q

As a general rule what happens to all child offenders until they reach the age of 14 years?

A

Answer:

All Child offenders will be referred to the Care and Protection Coordinator at Oranga Tamariki

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12
Q

Where a child aged 10 to 13 years old is alleged to have committed murder or manslaughter (category 4 offenses) how are they usually dealt with under the Youth Justice provisions of OT Act 1989?

In relation to children aged 14-16 years, What happens in this instance?

A

Answer:
Charges a filed in the District Court, the first appearance takes place before the Youth Court and the case then automatically transfers to the High Court for trial and sentencing.

Answer:
The process for this group of aged offenders is the same.

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13
Q

Where a child is convicted of murder or manslaughter What may happen to the child in terms of detainment?

A

Answer:
Children can be sentenced to imprisonment and can be detained in a child youth and family youth justice residence under the custody of the chief executive of the Ministry of Social Development.

Children offenders who are declared in need of care and protection can be detained in a Care and Protection Residence under the custody of the Chief Executive of the MSD

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14
Q

Where the young person is alleged to have committed murder or manslaughter and aged 14 to 16 years, Can the young person be imprisoned for murder, manslaughter, category 4 offences and category 3 offences?

Where else may they be detained?

A

Answer:
Yes. Young person’s can be imprisoned for murder, manslaughter, Cat 4, Cat 3 offences for which the maximum penalty available is or includes imprisonment for life or for at least 14 years.

Answer:
They can also be detained in a Child, Youth and Family Youth Justice residence under the custody of the Chief Executive of the MSD.

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15
Q

What does a section 272(1) of the Oranga Tamariki Act 1989 define in regards to processing children 12-13 years for serious offences?

A

Answer:
There is an option of prosecuting children age 12-13 years for certain serious offenses. These are in circumstances where the offense is punishable by 14 years to life imprisonment (other than murder or manslaughter).
or where the child is 12 or 13 years, is a previous offender (for a serious offence), and the offence is punishable by 10 years to 14 years imprisonment.

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16
Q

What is defined under s 23(1) of the Crimes Act 1961 in relation to insanity?

A

Answer:

Everyone shall be presumed to be sane at the time of doing or omitting any act until the contrary is proved.

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17
Q

Under s23(2) CA61 What are the conditions whereby a person shall not be convicted of an offence?

A

Answer:
By reason of an act done or omitted when laboring under natural imbecility or disease of the mind to such an extent to render him incapable of-
(a) Understanding the nature and quality of the act or omission or,
(b) Knowing that the act or omission was morally wrong, having regard to the commonly excepted standards of right and wrong.

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18
Q

Under s23(3) CA61 If a person displays insanity or has insane delusions, though only partial, What may this mean in terms of the offending?

A

Answer:
Such a condition of the mind may be evidence that the offender is rendered irresponsible for the act or omission before or after the time when he did or omitted the act.

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19
Q

Where a defendant poses a risk to the community there is a procedure which they can become the subject of a restricted patient order under section 54(1) Mental Health Act 1992, Who raises the issue of insanity?

A

Answer:
In R v Green held that insanity is a matter for the defense to raise and the prosecution is prohibited from adducing evidence of insanity even if the accused has sought acquittal because of some state of mind not amounting to insanity.

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20
Q

Under what Act must a judge put the issue of insanity before jury?

A

Answer:

Under section 20(4) of Criminal Procedure (mentally impaired persons) Act 2003.

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21
Q

It is not proper for the Crown to call evidence of insanity. If they do have any relevant evidence what must they do with it?

A

Answer:
Evidence in the hands of the Crown should be offered to the defence. Leaving it to the defendant to put up a plea of insanity if they wish to do so.

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22
Q

If the defense chooses not to plead insanity it would be only an exceptional case that the trial judge would put the issue to the jury.
When convicted of an imprisonable offence,
What does s34 of the Criminal Procedure (mentally impaired person) Act 2003 state?

A

Answer:
Judge my still commit a person to hospital or secure facility or, instead of passing sentence, order that offender be treated as a patient under the Mental Health (Compulsory Assessment and Treatment) Act 1992 or be cared for as care recipient under the Intellectual Disability (Compulsory Care and Rehabilitation) Act 2003

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23
Q

What two reasons concerning the offenders mental impairment must satisfy the court before a compulsory treatment or compulsory care order is made?

A

Answer:

Whether it is in the offenders interest or for reasons of public safety.

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24
Q

When there is strong evidence to indicate that the defendant did commit the alleged offence but was insane at the time, Can the person be acquitted of the charge even if they or their council have not put up a defense of insanity?

A

Answer:
Yes. If there is strongly evidence to indicate this.

Where such evidence exists the judge must direct the jury’s attention to the defense of insanity as set out in s23 of the Crimes Act 1961.

The judge must do this even if the defence has not put forth the issue of insanity.

In such a situation the judge in summing up, before the jury delivers it’s verdict, must notify the jury that if it’s decides to acquit the defendant it must be specific as to whether it’s on the grounds of the defendant’s innocence or their insanity.

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25
Q

What does s20(2) mean in regards to entering a verdict?

A

Answer:

There is now the possibility of entering the verdict of “not guilty on account of insanity” by consent.

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26
Q

In regards to burden of proof who is responsible for proving the defendant is insane?

What happens if the jury thinks that the defendant is insane but the defence cannot prove it?

A

Answer:
The defense. The burden of proof is on the defendant the standard of proof required is not as high as that demanded of the prosecution.

Answer:
If the defence cannot prove the offender is insane but the jury thinks it is more likely that the defendant is insane then the defendant is entitled to acquittal on the grounds of insanity.

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27
Q

What is the burden of proof that the defense have to prove insanity?

A

Answer:

On the balance of probabilities and not beyond reasonable doubt.

28
Q

Is insanity a legal question or a medical one?

If there is a question that the defendant is legally insane who presents the evidence to prove this?

A

Answer:
It is a legal question not a medical one.

Answer:
This is usually addressed by evidence from medical experts called by the defence and Crown.

29
Q

What is M’Naghten’s rules?

What are they based on?

If a person was insane How would this be measured?

A

Answer:
The rules are frequently used to establish whether or not a defendant is insane.

Answer:
They are based on a persons ability to think rationally

Answer:
If a person is insane they were acting under such a defect of reason from a disease of the mind that they did not know:
-The nature and quality of their actions or
- That what they were doing was wrong

30
Q

Where did make M’Naghtens rules originate?

A

Answer:
Created by panel of judges based on a series of hypothetical questions about the defense of insanity.
Standard test for criminal liability in relation to mentally disordered defendants in common law jurisdiction.

31
Q

What is defined by term “a disease of the mind”?

A

Answer:

A term which defies precise definition and which can comprehend mental derangement in the widest sense.

32
Q

A condition may be a disease of the mind whether or not there is any damage to the brain or other physical organ.

What is the concern of the law in regards to the “mind”?

A

Answer:
The mind is the mental faculties for reason, memory, and understanding; and the disorder may be permanent or temporary, of short or long duration, curable or incurable.

33
Q

Does a “disease of the mind” include a temporary mental disorder or external factor?

A

Answer:
No. It does not include a temporary disorder caused by some factor external to the defendant,

e.g a blow on the head, the absorption of drugs, alcohol, or an anesthetic, or hypnotism.

34
Q

Is the question of a “disease of the mind” a legal one or medical one?

A

Answer:

A legal one. Whether a particular condition is a disease of the mind is a question of law for the judge.

35
Q

In practice is evidence given by medical professionals in relation to the classification of “a disease of the mind” final?

A

Answer:
Medical witnesses are permitted to say whether they regard a disorder as a disease of the mind and will testify as to the causes and symptoms of the condition diagnosed.

However the classification by medical witnesses is not final.

36
Q

Under section 23(2)(a) CA61, How is a defence established?

A

Answer:
A defence is established if a mental disease rendered the defendant incapable of “understanding the nature and quality of the act or omission”.

‘Nature and quality’ refer only with the physical character of the conduct, not as separate terms distinguishing it’s physical and moral aspect.

37
Q

What is the importance of the defendant knowing the act was morally wrong?

What happens if they cannot understand if their acts are morally wrong?

A

Answer:
They must understand the act were morally wrong but do not need to know that the acts were legally wrong.

Answer:
If someone cannot understand what he does is morally wrong then they lack rational understanding.

They may acknowledge the result of societies reasoning - that your actions are morally wrong - but they are unable to go through with the reasoning process themselves.

38
Q

What does s24 and s25 of the Criminal Procedure (Mentally Impaired Persons) Act 2009 refer to when someone is found unfit to stand trial or acquitted on account of his or her insanity?

If the court “having considered the circumstances of the case and the evidence of one of more health assessors what may the court determine in regards to the defendant who is found unfit to stand trial or acquitted on account of his or her insanity?

A

Answer:
The person may be detained as a special patient or special care recipient.

Answer:
The court may determine such an order is not necessary and all of the immediate release of the person.

The court must decide whether to detain, release or apply alternative orders to the person.

The court must consider all the circumstances and may hear further medical evidence whether they release or alternative measures are safe in the public interest.

39
Q

Under section 31 criminal procedure (mental impaired person) Act what may the Attorney General direct in regard to the defendant?

A

Answer:
In the case of a serious homicide the public interest to detain the vendor mate override other factors.
The Attorney General my direct the defendant be held as a patient or a care recipient.

40
Q

What is meant by the term Automatism?

A

Answer:
This can be best described as a state of total blackout, during which a person is not conscious of their actions and not in control of them.

41
Q

What was found an R v Bratty?

A

Answer:
An act which is done by the muscles without any control by the mind.
The court found this to be such a spasm, a reflex action or convulsion, or an act done by a person who is not conscious of what he is doing, such as an act done while suffering from a concussion or whilst sleep walking.

42
Q

In terms of culpability what is the common law rule where person is performed actions in the state of automatism?

A

Answer:

Actions performed in a state of automatism are involuntary and there is no criminal liability for such conduct

43
Q

Apart from the concussion and sleepwalking referred to in Batty, What conditions may cause automatism?

A

Answer:
It may be caused by brain tumor, epilepsy, arteriosclerosis (loss of blood supply to the brain) or by consumption of alcohol or drugs

44
Q

When automatism is brought about by voluntary intake of drugs or alcohol, How does the court confirm that the actions are involuntary or that the offender lacked intention?

A

Answer:
Decisions of the courts indicate that convincing evidence as necessary to support it.

Only in rare cases will it be enough for a person to say they did not know or cannot remember what happened or that they had a black out such statements have been called “one of the first three features of a guilty conscience and a popular excuse”

45
Q

There are two types of Automatism, What are they?

A

Answer:
Sane automatism - The result of somnambulism (sleepwalking), a blow to the head or the effects of drugs

Insane automatism - The result of a mental disease

Both forms of automatism involve action without conscious volition

46
Q

In sane automatism if there is no question of disease of mind What does a successful plea mean?

A

Answer:
In a successful plea of automatism it negates intent as well as responsibility for the actus reus and as result is an unqualified acquittal.

The Crown will have failed to prove its existence of the mental element in the offence.

47
Q

Whether someone has become an automatism by ingesting so many drugs or so much alcohol that they are not responsible for their actions, Is this a defense in New Zealand?

A

Answer:

It is the defense that is available if the evidence of the defense can clearly raise the issue.

48
Q

What does the term strict liability defense mean?

A

Answer:
This means that no Mens Rea need to be proved by the prosecution.
The defence must establish a defence to the balance of probabilities.

49
Q

An example of a certain offenses that require no intent.

A

Answer:
Driving with an excess breath alcohol content
For the defence to succeed on this charge it must prove a total absence of fault e.g - Person drove without conscious appreciation of the fact of driving
or of the fact of intoxication

50
Q

Certain offenses require intent. The following is an example.

A

Answer:
Any offense that has intent as an element of the offense.
E.g. Assault which requires intent to apply force to another person.

51
Q

As per the general rule intoxication may be a defense to the commission of an offense in three situations, What are those situations?

A

Answer:
Where the intoxication causes a disease of the mind so as to bring s23 (insanity) of the Crimes Act 1961 into effect

If Ashton is required as an essential element of the fence in the drunkenness such that the defense complete a lack of intent to commit the offense.

What are the intoxication causes state of Automatism (complete acquittal)

52
Q

For intoxication to succeed as a defense all you need to establish is reasonable doubt about the defendants required state of mind at the time of the offense.
Does it have to be shown that the defendant was in capable of forming that means Rea meaning that because of the drunken state

A

Answer:
It does not have to be shown that the defendant was in capable of forming the men’s Rea, merely that because of their drunken state they did not have the proper state of mind to be guilty.

The crown must prove the intent required by the crime alleged.

53
Q

What crimes and then defense of intoxication be used as a defense in New Zealand?

A

Answer:
It can be used as a defense in New Zealand to any crime that requires intent.

Any offense that does not require an intent is called a strict liability offense the only way to fin can I scape liability for such an offense is to prove a total absence of fault.

54
Q

In case of homicide or other crimes What would disqualify an offense of drunkenness or automatism?

A

Answer:
Evidence that a person formed intend to commit a crime and then to drink or drugs as part of the method of committing a crime (dutch courage)

55
Q

If Intoxication is used to try and establish ignorance of law Will it establish a defense?

A

Answer:

No.

56
Q

In New Zealand intoxication caused by alcohol or drugs may be a defense to all charges where their effect raises a reasonable doubt as to whether the offender had formed the requisite intent for the offense.
Why would the defense of intoxication be unlikely to be successful?

A

Answer:
Because,with regard to strict liability offences, the intent element required by the offence is so simple or basic that the person is not able to establish they had no intent to commit the offense.

57
Q

What does the section 35 of the Crimes Act 1961 relate to?

A

Answer:
The fact that an offender is ignorant of the law is not an excuse for any offense committed by them.
Eg - they defend their actions by saying they did not know that what they were doing was wrong

58
Q

We are a child does not know the act was contrary to law, Are they liable for any offense?

A

Answer:

They will not be liable for any offense (section 22 Crimes Act 1961)

59
Q

What is meant by the term compulsion or duress?

A

Answer:
It is the act of compelling a person to do something against the will.
When the compulsion relates to a criminal offense, law office protection from prosecution in some cases.

60
Q

When is it deemed a person acted under compulsion?

A

Answer:
If they come in in the fence having been compelled to do so by threats or immediate death or grievous bodily harm to themselves or another person present when the offense is committed.

61
Q

What must be operating in the mind of the person compelled at the time of the act?

A

Answer:
The thought must be so grave that it might well have caused a ‘reasonable’ person place in the same situation to act in the same way.

62
Q

Section 24 of the Crimes
Act 1961 provides the defence of compulsion.
What is provided?

A

Answer:
Person who commits things and a compulsion by threats are immediate death or GBH from a person who was present when the offence is committed is protected from criminal responsibility-
if he believes that the threats will be carried out and if he is not a party to any association or conspiracy whereby he is subject to compulsion.

63
Q

In order for a person to be protected from criminal responsibility of their act due to compulsion from a person at the scene who had threatened them that they would be killed or GBH caused, What must that person believe?

A

Answer:
Defendant must have genuinely believed the threats and must not be a party to any association or conspiracy involved in carrying out the threats

64
Q

Full compulsion to be considered the threats of diesel previous bodily harm must be immediate in from a person present at the time.
However different standards may suffice women and children act under threats. What is an example?

A

Answer:
Two girls and committed perjury to avoid threats of injury.
The compulsion offense was permitted in the circumstances as the police could not guarantee the girls continuous protection and safety.

65
Q

In regards to C v Perrot, Explain what is required for their term immediacy in relation to her claim to compulsion?

A

Answer:
There was no evidence of compulsion within s24 CA61 to operate as a defense of the charge of receiving.
This was because Perrot had not been threatened by any person at the time of receiving the two rifles and some other items from a burglary.
She was only felt pressured because she gave a confession to police to protect another party.