Defences Flashcards

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1
Q

Discuss the case Forrest &Forrest and outline the case law

A

In R v Forrest & Forrest two men were charged with having sexual intercourse with a 14 year old girl who had run away from Child Welfare custody. At trial the girl produced her birth certificate and gave evidence herself that she was the person named in the certificate. The men successfully appealed their conviction on the grounds that the Crown had not adequately proved the girl’s age.

The best evidence possible in the circumstances should be adduced by the prosecution in proof of the victim’s age.

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2
Q

Define the term ‘justified’ and provide two examples

A

In relation to any person, ‘justified’ means that the person is not guilty of an offence and is not liable civilly.

Examples include:
Homicide committed in self-defence (s48)
Homicide committed to prevent suicide or commission of an offence which would be likely to cause immediate and serious injury to the person or property of anyone (s41)

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3
Q

Outline the culpability for children under 10 and children 10-13 years old

A

Under 10 - a child aged under 10 yrs has an absolute defence to any charge brought against them. Nevertheless, even though the child cannot be convicted, you still have to establish whether or not they are guilty

10-13yrs - For children aged between 10 and 13 years inclusive, it must be shown that the child knew their act was wrong or contrary to law. If this knowledge cannot be shown, the child cannot be criminally liable for the offence

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4
Q

Outline “M’Naghten’s rules”

A

The M’Naghten’s rules is frequently used to establish whether or not a defendant is insane. It is based on the person’s ability to think rationally, so that if a person is insane they were acting under such a defect of reason from a disease of the mind that they did not know:

The nature and quality of their actions, or
That what they were doing was wrong

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5
Q

How do NZ courts deal with a defence of automatism arising out of taking alcohol and/or drugs

A

In NZ the courts are likely to steer a middle course, allowing a defence of automatism arising out of taking alcohol and drugs, to offences of basic intent only. They are likely to disallow the defence where the state of mind is obviously self-induced, the person is blameworthy, and the consequences could have been expected.

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6
Q

Insanity - s23

Define insanity by completing the sentence

No person shall be convicted of an offence by reason of an act done or omitted by him when labouring under natural imbecility or disease of the mind to such an extent as to render him incapable of -

A

Understanding the nature and quality of the act or omission; or

Knowing that the act or omission was morally wrong, having regard to the commonly accepted standards of right and wrong

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7
Q

R v Lipman

A

Where automatism is brought about by a voluntary intake of alcohol or drugs the court may be reluctant to accept that the actions were involuntary pr that the offender lacked intention

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8
Q

Strict liability offence

A

Any offence that does not require an intent is called a strict liability offence and the only way a defendant can escape liability for such an offence is to prove a total absence of fault.

Example - driving with excess breath alcohol

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9
Q

What is the required state of mind for s167(b) of the Crimes Act 1961

A

To show that the accused’s state of mind meets the provisions of s167(b), you must establish that the accused:

Intended to cause bodily injury to the deceased
Knew the injury was likely to cause death
Was reckless as to whether death ensued or not

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10
Q

Define automatism

A

Automatism can be best described as a state of total blackout, during which a person is not conscious of their actions and not in control of them

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11
Q

Sane and insane automatism

A

Automatism may be quite different and distinct from insanity, although it may be due to a disease of the mind. Hence it is necessary to distinguish between:

Sane automatism - The result of somnambulism (sleepwalking), a blow to the head or the effects of drugs

Insane automatism - The result of a mental disease

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12
Q

General rules regarding intoxication

A

In the past intoxication was considered to be no defence to a criminal charge and, indeed, an aggravating rather than mitigating factor. The general rules has been that intoxication may be a defence to the commission of an offence:

Where the intoxication causes a disease of the mind so as to bring s23 (insanity) into effect

If intent is required as an essential element of the offence and the drunkenness is such that the defence can plead a lack of intent to commit the offence

Where the intoxication causes a state of automatism (complete acquittal)

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13
Q

Define alibi

A

An alibi is the plea in a criminal charge of having been elsewhere at the material time; the fact of being elsewhere

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14
Q

The defendant must include in a notice of alibi

A

The name and address of the witness or, if the name and address is not known to the defendant when the notice is given, any matter known by the defendant that might be of material assistance in finding that witness

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15
Q

State the procedure for alibi witnesses that are interviewed

A

The O/C case should not interview an alibi witness unless the prosecutor requests them to do so. If an interview is requested, follow this procedure:

Advise the defence counsel of the proposed interview and give them a reasonable opportunity to be present

If the accused is not represented, endeavor to ensure the witness is interviewed in the presence of some independent person not being a member of the police

Make a copy of a witness’s signed statement taken at any such interview available to defence counsel through the prosecutor. Any information that reflects on the credibility of the alibi witness can be withheld under s16(1)(o)

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16
Q

3 points must be satisfied before a defence of compulsion can be used

A

They must have been compelled to commit the offence by someone at the scene who had threated them that they would otherwise be killed or caused GBH.

The accused must have genuinely believed the threats, and

The accused must not be a party to any association or conspiracy involved in carrying out the threats

17
Q

entrapment

A

Entrapment occurs when an agent of an enforcement body deliberately causes a person to commit an offence, so that person can be prosecuted

18
Q

The courts view of entrapment

A

In NZ the courts have rejected entrapment as a defence per se, preferring instead to rely on the discretion of the trial judge to exclude evidence that would operate unfairly against the accused

19
Q

The subjective and objective tests - s48

A

Once the accused has decided that use of force was required (a subjective view of the circumstances as the accused believed them), s48 then introduces a test of reasonableness which involves an objective view as to the degree and manner of the force used

20
Q

Degree of force under self defence

A

The degree of force permitted is tested initially under the following subjective criteria:

What are the circumstances that the defendant genuinely believes exist (whether or not mistaken belief)?

Do you accept that the defendant genuinely believes those facts?

Is the force used reasonable in the circumstances?

21
Q

Ingredients s48 - self defence

A

Everyone is justified in using, in the defence of himself or another, such force as, in the circumstance as he believes them to be, it is reasonable to use

22
Q

R v Ranger

A

If this defendant did really think that the lives of herself and her son were in peril because of the deceased, enraged after the struggle, might attempt to shoot them with a rifle near at hand, then it would be going too far, we think, to say that the jury could not entertain a reasonable doubt as to whether a pre-emptive strike with a knife would be reasonable force in all the circumstances

23
Q

If the defendant intends to call an expert witness during proceedings, they must disclose to the prosecution:

A

Any brief of evidence to be given or any report provided by that witness, or

If the brief or any such report is not available, a summary of the evidence to be given and the conclusions of any report to be provided

This information must be disclosed at least 14 days before the date fixed for the defendant’s hearing or trial, or within any further time that the court may allow - s23(1)

24
Q

You cannot use the defence of consent to assault in the following cases

A

Aiding suicide
Criminal actions
Injury likely to cause death
Bodily harm likely to cause a breach of the peace
Indecency offences
The placing of someone in a situation where they are at risk of death or bodily harm

25
Q

Guidelines in respect of consent regarding assault

A

Everyone has the right to consent to surgical operation

Everyone has a right to consent to the infliction of force not involving bodily harm

No one has a right to consent to their death or injury likely to cause death

No one has a right to consent to bodily harm in such a manner as to amount to a breach of the peace, or in a prize fight or other exhibition calculated to collect together disorderly persons

It is uncertain to what extent any person has a right to consent to their being put in danger of death or bodily harm by the act of another