DEF Flashcards

1
Q

What are physical barriers to infection?

A
  • Skin provides a protective cover
  • Organisms can overcome this barrier
  • Cuts or damaged skin
  • Insect bites
  • Animal bites
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2
Q

What are factors of the innate immune system?

A

We have looked at barriers, mucus, cilia, secretions that stop organisms entering or replicating, competition from other organisms.

Phagocytes.

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3
Q

What are the steps of phagocytosis?

A
  • chemotaxis
  • attachment
  • engulfment
  • killing
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4
Q

What are the roles of phagocytosis?

A
  • Protection from pathogens
  • Processing and presentation of antigens
  • Disposal of damaged/dying (apoptotic) cells
  • Activation of adaptive immune system
  • Links innate and adaptive immunity
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5
Q

What are PRRs: toll-like receptors (TLRs)?

A

Human TLRs recognise PAMPs:

  • Liposaccaride (gram negative)
  • Lipoteichoic acid (gram positive)
  • Bacterial DNA sequences (unmethylated CpG)
  • Single/double-stranded viral RNA
  • Glucans (fungi)

Stimulate production of inflammatory cytokines.

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6
Q

What is opsonisation in phagocytosis?

A

Coating microbes: targets for phagocytosis

Proteins that coat microbes = opsonins

  • Antibodies (IgG)
  • Proteins of complement system – C3b, C4b

Facilitates phagocytosis.
Phagocytes have receptors for opsonins.

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7
Q

What else is there to innate immunity except phagocytes?

A
  • This is an infection
  • What is our response?
  • Acute Phase Proteins
  • C Reactive Protein (CRP)
  • We have inflammation
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8
Q

What other action is taken in innate immunity except phagocytosis?

A
  • Many immune cells make interferons
  • Task – to interfere with viruses infecting other cells
    Detailed function will be covered in other lectures
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9
Q

What are natural killer cells?

A
  • surveillance role

- any cell that has changed is a target for killing

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10
Q

What is an antibody?

A
  • Y shaped
  • Tetrameric protein:
    o

2 identical heavy chains
o 2 identical light chains: held together by non-covalent interactions and by –S-S- crosslinks between cysteine a.a residues

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11
Q

What are the light chains of antibodies?

A

There are two types of light chain

  • Kappa and lambda
  • But any B-cell will only make one type
  • Any Ig molecules will contain either kappa or lambda, never both
  • This phenomenon is called ‘light chain restriction’
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12
Q

What do B lymphocytes do?

A
  • Make antibodies
  • Immunoglobulins
  • There are two types
  • IgM – made first
  • IgG – made later
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13
Q

How does antigen recognition by T cells occur?

A
  • T cells recognise antigen processed and presented by APC
  • Peptide: MHC complexes are presented on the APC surface
  • activation of T cells specific for antigenic peptide
CD4+ helper T cells: antigens (peptides) displayed by MHC class II
CD8+ cytotoxic T cells: antigens (peptides) displayed by MHC class I

MHC restriction of Ag recognition by T cells.

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14
Q

What is major histocompatibility complex (MHC)?

A

MHC molecules display peptides from processes Ag.
Two types: MHC I and MHC II

MHC I: alpha chain and beta2-microglobulin; present peptides to CD8+ T cells
MHC II: alpha chain and beta chain; present peptides to CD4+ T cells

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15
Q

What is the expression of major histocompatibility complex I and II?

A
  • MHC I: all nucleated cells

MHC II: antigen presenting cells: dendritic cells macrophages

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16
Q

What is the innate immune system?

A
  • Born with (natural/native immunity)
  • Ancient (plants, insects, all animals)
  • Developed by evolution
  • In place before infection
  • Responds in the same way to repeated infections
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17
Q

What are the functions of the innate immune system?

A
  • Reacts to microbes (and injured cells)
  • First line of defence (initial response to microbes)
  • Rapid (immediate maximal response in hours)
  • Prevents, controls, (sometimes) eliminates infection

Many pathogens evolved to resist/escape IIS
Eliminated by adaptive immune system

IIS keeps infection in check adaptive immunity activation

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18
Q

What are the components of the innate immune system?

A

Barriers

  • Physical
  • Chemical

Cells (effector cells)

  • Phagocytes (PMN, M)
  • NK cells

Soluble molecules

  • Effector proteins (complement)
  • Mediators of inflammation (cytokines)

PMN = polymorphonuclear neutrophils, M = macrophages, NK = natural killer cells

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19
Q

What is the barrier aspect of the innate immune system?

A

Epithelial surfaces

  • Skin
  • Mucosa of GI tract
  • Mucosa of respiratory tract

Prevent entry of microbes – physical barrier

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20
Q

What are chemical barriers in the innate immune system?

A

Antibacterial enzymes (lysozyme – tears, saliva)
Antimicrobial peptides
- Defensins, cathelicidins kill bacteria by damaging bacterial cell membrane

Produced by epithelial cells, PMN, NK cells, CTLs

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21
Q

What are microbial barriers in the innate immune system?

A

Normal flora non-pathogenic bacteria competition

Clinical note! Antibiotic treatment: kills normal flora replaced with pathogenic organisms

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22
Q

What are examples of the innate immune system in disease?

A

Loss of integrity predisposes to infection
wounds, burns

Genetic defects: cystic fibrosis

defective mucus production
inhibition of ciliary movements
frequenct lung infections

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23
Q

What are the effector cells in the innate immune system?

A

Cells (phagocytes)

  • Myeloid lineage: PMN, M, dendritic cells
  • Identify, ingest, destroy pathogens

Other cells:
- Lymphoid lineage: NK cells

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24
Q

What are natural killer (NK) cells?

A
  • Kill virus-infected cells
  • Kill malignantly transformed cells (tumour cells)
  • Express cytotoxic enzymes (lyse target cells)
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25
Q

What are characteristics of NK cells?

A

Kill malignant tumour cells without prior activation.

(CD8+ T cells need to be activated and differentiate into CTL (cytotoxic T lymphocytes) to kill target cells)

  • Contain perforin pores in target cells
  • Contain cytolytic enzymes (Granzymes A, B)
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26
Q

How do NK cells recognise target cells?

A

NK cells have Inhibitory and activating receptors.

Inhibitory receptors:

  • KIRs (killer inhibitory receptors)
  • NKG2A (C type lectin receptors)
  • Lecocyte Ig-like receptors (LIRs)

Inhbitory receptors recognise ligands on healthy cells.

Activating receptors:

  • NKG2S
  • KIRs
  • CD16
  • Adaptor proteins: DAP10, DAP12

Activating receptors recognise infected/injured cells.

The outcome of NK cell interaction with other cells is determines by integration of signals form inhibitory and activating receptors.

  • All healthy autologous nucleated cells have MHC I

Inhibitory receptors recognise MHC class I blockage of signals from activating receptors

NK cells do not attack healthy autologous cells!

  • Virus infected cells: downregulate MHC I
  • Malignant (tumour) cels: downregulate MHC I

Inhibitory receptors are not ligated by MHC class I signals from activating receptors are not blocked NK cells attack and kill virus infected/tumour cells

  • Activating receptors recognise ligands that are induced on unhealthy cells (stressed, infected by microbes, transformed cells)

Signals from activating receptors may overwhelm the signals from inhibitory receptors, especially if MHC I is also reduced or lost in unhealthy cells
NK cells attack and kill virus infected/tumour cells

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27
Q

About NK cell receptors…

A

ITIM: immunoreceptor tyrosine-based inhibitory motif
ITAM: immunoreceptor tyrosine-based activation motif

  • Cytoplasmic tails of inhibitory receptors contain ITIM motif
  • ITIMs engage molecules (phosphatases) that block the signalling pathways triggered by activating receptors
  • Activating receptors contain ITAM motif
  • ITAMs engages in signalling events that promote target cell killing and cytokine secretion by NK cells
  • ITAMs are often located not in activating receptors but in cytosolic portion of adaptor molecules (eg DAP 12)
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28
Q

How do NK cels kill target cells?

A

Perforin: forms pores delivery of granzymes
Granzymes: A,B, C: initiate apoptosis

Delivered at the site of contact between NK cell: target prevents killing of neighbouring healthy cells

In addition to killing target cells NK cels activate macrophages to destroy phagocytosed microbes via production of IFN-γ
Granzymes activate caspases apoptosis
Granzyme B: can trigger mitochondrial apoptotic pathway

Killing of infected cells by NKs eliminates reservoirs of infection

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29
Q

What are defects in NK cells and disease?

A

Human NK cell deficiencies

  • As part of broader immune-deficiencies (eg Chediak-Highashi)
  • Complete absence of circulating NK cells
  • Functional NK cell deficiencies (normal numbers)

Patients have fatal viral infections (herpes viruses)

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30
Q

What are phagocytes?

A

Specialised cells:

  • Identify, ingest, destroy pathogens
  • Neutrophils, Macrophages, dendritic cells
  • Belong to the innate immune system
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31
Q

What is phagocytosis?

A

Cell ‘eating’

  • Microorganisms
  • Other cells
  • Nutrients

Mechanism of innate immune system

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32
Q

What are the roles of phagocytosis?

A

• Protection from pathogens
• Disposal of damaged/dying (apoptotic) cells
• Processing and presentation of antigens (Ag)
- Activation of adaptive immune system
- Links innate and adaptive immunity
• Main phagocytes: PMG, macropahges, DCs

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33
Q

What are the steps of phagocytosis?

A
  1. Phagocyte mobilisation (chemotaxis)
  2. Recognition and attachment
  3. Engulfment
  4. Digestion: pathogen destruction
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34
Q

What are phagocyte defects and disease, and examples?

A

⎝ Quantitative (decreased number)
⎝ Qualitative (decreased function)

Examples:

  • Chronic granulomatous disease
  • Chediak-higashi syndrome - defective phagosome-lysosome fusion
  • Leucocyte adhesion defects (LADs)
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35
Q

What is chediak-higashi syndrome?

A

Defective phagosome-lysosome fusion

Phagocytosed microbes can’t be killed recurrent infections

  • Rare genetic disease
  • Defective gene: LYSosomal Trafficking regulator (LYST)
  • Defect in lysosome fusion

Neutrophils have defective phagocytosis.
- Repetitive, severe infections

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36
Q

What are leucocyte adhesion defects?

A
  • Defect in beta-chain integrins

- Defective neutrophil chemotaxis

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37
Q

What are TLRs?

A

TLRs – recognise pathogens

Present on:

  • Phagocytes
  • Mucosal epithelial cells
  • Endothelial cells

Cellular location:

  • Cell surface (TLR1, TLR2, TLR4, TLR5) detect extracellular pathogens
  • Inside cells (TLR3, TLR7, TLR8, TLR9) detect microbial nucleic acids
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38
Q

What are defects in TLRs and disease?

A

Humans lacking TLRs have not been identified!

Polymorphism in TLR genes predisposes to:

  • Bacterial infections
  • Asthma
  • Autoimmunity (lupus)
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39
Q

About the structure of an antibody…

A

Tetrameric protein

  • 2 identical heavy chains
  • 2 identical light chains: either kappa or lambda

Each chain has a variable region

  • amino acid sequence varies from one Ig molecule to another
  • binds antigen (Fab)

And a constant region (Fc)

  • responsible for effector functions
  • eg activating complement, binding to phagocytes

The complementary determining regions (CDRs) also known as the hypervariable regions, are the parts of the V region that bind the antigen.

CDR3 is the most variable region.

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40
Q

About CDRs in antibodies…

A
  • In the primary structure of the protein the CDRs are separated.
  • In the tertiary (3D structure) of the protein the CDRs lie adjacent to each other.
  • The rest of the V-region forms a framework, allowing the 3 CDRs to face the antigen.
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41
Q

How are the correct antibodies made in infection?

A

During an infection a small number of B cells will, by chance, be making an Ig that binds to one of the foreign antigens. These B cells are activated and begin to multiply – ‘clonal selection’. Some of the replications become memory cells and others become plasma cells moving to the bone marrow, where they out out large amounts of Ig.

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42
Q

What does activation of antibodies require?

A
  • Direct involvement of CD4+ T helper cells (Th1)

- Cytokines released by Th1 cells

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43
Q

What is the germline kappa light chain composed of?

A
  • One constant region (C) segment
  • 35 variable region (V) segments
  • and 5 short joining (J) segments

The J segments are quite close to the C segment, but the V segments are a long way away on the DNA.

There is a binding site for an endonuclease enzyme after each V segment and in front of each J segment. The enzyme will cut randomly at 1V and one J.

The free ends are then ligated together joining, in this case, V24 and J2.

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44
Q

What events occur in V(D)J recombination?

A
  1. One V segment and 1J segment are brought together via their recognition sequences
  2. RAG recombinases cut and remove intervening DNA
  3. End are processed before rejoining
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45
Q

What do exonuclease do in V(D)J recombination?

A

An exonuclease will mess around with the free ends, before they are ligated together.

An enzyme called terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase (TdT) randomly adds a few nucleotides to the free ends, before they are ligated together.

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46
Q

What is junctional diversity?

A

After the hairpin is cut, or if its in the wrong place, some extra nucleotides are added in and TdT adds in some random ones as well.

The V-J join and this further variation at the joins create the most variable region of the antibody – CDR3

CDR1 and CDR 2 are fairly variable, but CDR3 is by far the most.

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47
Q

What is the importance of TdT?

A
  1. For generating Ig and TCR gene diversity
  2. As a leukaemia marker – disease of cells failing to differentiate, lymphoid blast cells make TdT
  3. Useful enzyme in genetic engineering/ recombinant DNA work
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48
Q

What is the process of recombination for the heavy chain?

A

Same process as the light chain, but one V can join with one D segment and one J segment, so giving even more combinations.

Exonuclease and TdT can add further variation both to the V-D and D-J junctions.

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49
Q

What is allelic exclusion?

A
  • any B cell is diploid
  • it has two alleles of the Ig heavy chain gene
  • in theory it could make two different heavy chain proteins
  • this never happens – ‘allelic exclusion’
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50
Q

What is the mechanism of allelic exclusion?

A

Mechanism: as soon as one allele successfully rearranges and starts making heavy chain protein, the gene rearrangement process for heavy chains is switched off.

For light chains, a B-cell has two alleles of the κ chain gene and two alleles of the λ chain gene.

In theory it could make four different light chain proteins.

Again this never happens- “Allelic exclusion”

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51
Q

What is light chain restriction?

A

One clone of B-cells only makes κ or λ

Polyclonal B cells will be a mixture of cells making either κ or λ light chain

If B-cells in a patient are only making one kind of chain——-????

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52
Q

About Ig expression during B cell maturation…

A
  • Functional Ig expressed as membrane (cell surface) IgM
  • Membrane IgM acts as B cell receptor (together with IgD)
  • Ag recognition by membrane IgM activation of signalling pathways B cell activation
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53
Q

What happens in B cell activation?

A
  • Functional Ig is first expressed as IgM on the cell surface (sIgM)
  • This acts as a ‘B cell receptor’ in a similar way to a growth factor receptor. The IgM does not have intrinsic tyrosin kinase activity, but associates with SRC family tyrosin kinases, eg LYN and FYN
  • Binding of antigen to IgM activated the tyrosine kinases and their signal transduction pathways
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54
Q

What does B cell activation require?

A
  1. Antigen binding to the B-cell receptor (sIgM), resulting in stimulation of signal transduction pathways
  2. Co-stimulatory by T-cells
  3. Co-stimulation by cytokines
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55
Q

What two forms of antibodies are there?

A

Two forms:

  • Membrane-bound on B cell surface Ag receptor
  • Secreted (circulation, tissues, mucosa)

Membrane-bound Igs
Ag recognition B cell activation humoural IR

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56
Q

What happens following B cell activation?

A
  • The activated B-cell begins to secrete soluble IgM
  • Mechanism – differential splicing
  • Cμ is not coded for by a single exon (as implied in the simplified diagram in the previous lecture)
  • There are 4 exons, with two alternative versions of exon four
  • Differential splicing gives 2 different mRNAs, coding for 2 proteins which differ at the C terminal end
  • Note V region, coded by VDJ complex, is identical
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57
Q

What happens to secreted Igs?

A
  • Circulate in blood
  • Access various sites to deal with pathogens
  • Effector function
    neutralisation of microbes, toxins
    opsonisation of microbes to enhance phagocytosis
    activation of complement (pathogen killing)
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58
Q

How do antibodies work?

A

Different classes of Abs work best at certain sites (eg IgM, IgG – blood; IgA – mucosa)

Different classes of Abs work best against certain pathogens: IgE – parasites

Bind to extracellular microbes and toxins

  • Neutralise (block adherence/entry)
  • Eliminate

Opsonisation = increased phagocytosis
Complement activation = opsonisation, lysis

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59
Q

What is class (isotope) switching of antibodies?

A

During an immune response B cells become capable to produce Abs of different classes without changing specificity (respond to the same Ag).

IgM switch to IgG, IgA, IgE
IgG switch to IgA, IgE

  • Ability to perform different effector functions
  • Can deal better with pathogens
  • Isotype switch needs signals from helper T cells

Class switching does not alter specificity for Ag!
Class switching does not alter the light chain!

  • B cells make many different classes of Ig
  • Different classes have different constant (Fc) regions to carry out different functions
  • But the first Ig made is always IgM
  • Cell needs mechanisms to keep antibody specificity (coded by rearranged VDJ) but add different C regions
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60
Q

What is the mechanism of class switching?

A
Two mechanisms:
Minor
-	IgD only
-	By differential splicing
-	Made at some time as IgM
Major
-	All other classes
-	By DNA rearrangement

Cμ and Cδ are transcribed as part of a single precursor RNA. Differential splicing can remove the Cμ exons, so the Cδ exons are not used. Result is the same VDJ is now joined to Cδ making an IgD.

  • Endonuclease recognition site (switch region) before each CH segment.
  • Cut before Cμ and cut before alternative C segment
  • Original VDJ now transcribed along with new C region
  • Note no change in light chain!
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61
Q

What is affinity maturation?

A

Antibodies produced early during immune response have lower affinity for antigen.

Later during immune response and in secondary immune responses production of high affinity antibodies.

The process that leads to increased affinity of Abs = affinity maturation.

Mechanism: somatic mutation of Ig genes followed by selection of B cells that produce Abs with highest affinity.

Affinity maturation needs signals from helper T cells.

  • B cells with high affinity Ag receptors ae selected to survive
  • B cells with low affinity Ag receptors may fail to survive (competition for Ag recognition on follicular dendritic cells in the germinal centres)
  • Preferential selection of B cells with high affinity Ag receptors during immune responses

Higher affinity gives stronger cell signalling. Faster cell replication. High affinity sub-clone outgrows the original clone.

62
Q

What must happen in order for antigens to be recognised by T cells?

A

Encounter soluble antigen, whole organism or peptides that are transported into a particular type of cell, processed and presented on the surface with an MHC molecules - then there will be proliferation.

63
Q

What form of antigen is produced by antigen processing?

A
  • Viable APC with native ovalbumin will proliferate, but not if it’s a fixed APC
  • Native and fixed APC will proliferate if stimulated by digested ovalbumin
64
Q

What are APCs?

A

‘Professional’ Antigen-Presenting Cells (APCs): Immune cells that express high levels of surface MHC class II and can efficiently induce T-cell responses

65
Q

About macrophages and dendritic cells…

A
  • Rare in peripheral blood – enriched in mucosal tissues
  • Highly phagocytic cells – induce strong T-cell responses and inflammation. Important for protection against Mycobacterium tuberculosis
  • Macrophages better-equipped to kill pathogens (higher NO production); DCs better at migrating to lymph nodes (via CCR7) and presenting antigen to T-cells
  • Specialised but ultimately overlapping functions
66
Q

About B-cells…

A
  • Highly abundant in blood and mucosal tissues
  • Receptor mediated internalisation of antigens, as opposed to phagocytosis
  • Primary function to make antibody (plasma cell) – but still very good at antigen presentation
  • Possibly main inducer of T-cell immune response to pathogens such as Neisseria meningitides
67
Q

What is the uptake in endogenous antigen processing?

A

antigens/pathogens already present in cell

68
Q

What is the degradation in endogenous antigen processing?

A

antigens synthesised in the cytoplasm undergo limited proteolytic degradation in the cytoplasm

69
Q

What is the antigen-MHC complex formation in endogenous antigen processing?

A

loading of peptide antigens onto MHC class I molecules is different to the loading of MHC class II molecules

70
Q

What is the presentation in endogenous antigen processing?

A

transport and expression of antigen-MHC completes on the surface of cells for recognition by T cells

71
Q

What are the lysosomal systems in macrophages?

A

Macrophages have well-developed lysosomal systems.

They are specialised for motility, phagocytosis and the introduction of particles to the lysosomal system.

Most cell types do not have lysosomal systems developed as well as macrophages BUT viruses can infect most cell types.

A non-lysosomal mechanism to process antigens for presentation to T cells is required.

72
Q

What is non-lysosomal antigen processing?

A
  • Inactive virus raises a weak CTL response

- The processing of antigens from inactive viruses is sensitive to lysosomotrophic drugs

73
Q

What happens to antigens from inactive viruses?

A
  • Infectious virus raises a strong CTL response
  • The processing of antigens from infectious viruses is NOT sensitive to lysosomotrophic drugs
  • Most CTL recognise antigens generated via a non-lysosomal pathway
  • Protein synthesis is required for non-lysosomal antigen processing

Antigens from infectious viruses are processed via the endogenous pathway.

74
Q

Abut exogenous antigen processing…

A

Endocytosed antigens degraded within endosome/phagosome are broken into peptides. They are loaded onto the MHCII molecules generated in the golgi but transported by phagolysosomes.
Following loading they travel to cell surface where they are expressed and ready to engage a CD4 type cell.

75
Q

About endogenous antigen processing…

A

Unlike exogenous antigen processing, endogenous processing requires a viable cell producing proteins and they are then degraded, peptides formed, which need to travel to golgi, load MHC1 molecules and then travel to surface and present these endosomal peptides to CD8 cells.

76
Q

what happens to exogenous pathogens?

A

Eliminated by: antibodies and phagocyte activation by T helped cells that use antigens generated by EXOGENOUS PROCESSING

77
Q

What happens to endogenous pathogens?

A

eliminated by: killing of infected cells by CTL that use antigens generated by ENDOGENOUS PROCESSING

78
Q

What is the tissue expression of MHC molecules?

A

MHC I is expressed on all cells and tissues EXCEPT RBCs – not RBCs as they have no nucleus so no protein synthesis and no cytosolic proteins.

MHC II only on a number of cell types – many cells don’t express them.

79
Q

About the T-cell receptor…

A
  • Binds to peptide-MHC (pMHC) complexes – cannot recognise peptide alone
  • Huge diversity – potentially up to 1x1013 different TCRs
  • Exists in a TCR complex with accessory molecules such as CD3
  • Needs to be in a complex with an MHC molecules – alone will not trigger activation
80
Q

What are the similarities between the R-cell receptor and the B-cell receptor?

A
  • Belongs to Ig superfamily
  • Like Fab fragment of antibody
  • Large diversity
  • Single specificity
81
Q

What are the differences between T-cell receptor and B-cell receptor?

A
  • Lower affinity
  • Cannot be released
  • No Fc fragment, so no cellular functions
  • Single rather than two binding sites
  • B cell receptor/Ab: 5 classes
  • T cell receptor: 2 classes (alphabeta and gammadelta)
82
Q

What are the mechanisms that generate B-cell receptor diversity?

A
  • Before antigen stimulation: somatic recombination of gemline gene
  • After antigen stimulation: somative hypermutation to generate further diversity
83
Q

What are the mechanisms that generate T-cell receptor diversity?

A
  • Before antigen stimulation: somatic recombination generates all the diversity, no further – this explains why T cells have a much lower diversity than B-cells
  • After antigen stimulation: none

Receptor gene rearrangement takes place during T-cell development in thymus.

84
Q

What is the three signal model of T cell activation?

A
  1. Peptide-MHC (pMHC)
  2. Co-stimulation
  3. Cyotkines

Signals 1 and 2 alone will activate a naïve T-cell, but signal 3 is also important for a strong response and also determining T-cell phenotype.

• The main signal (signal one) is delivered from the APC by a peptide-MHC complex to the TCR
• The co-stimulatory signal (signal two) is delivered from the APC by germline-encoded accessory receptors such as the ‘B7 family’ (CD80 and CD86) – although many of these receptors are not fully characterised or understood
• Lastly, signal three is formed of cytokines secreted by the APC to determine the T-cell phenotype.
- IL-12 promotes the TH1 cells
- IL-4 promotes the TH2 cells
- IL-23 promotes the TH17 cells

85
Q

what is the immunological synapse?

A

Complex interaction of many molecules – but simplistically Signals 1 and 2 are central, and surrounding integrins and accessory molecules help to stabilise the interaction.

86
Q

What are native regulators of antigen presentation?

A
  • An overly-vigorous immune response is harmful to the host
  • Negative regulators of antigen presentation provide an ‘immune checkpoint’ to limit T-cell activation homeostasis
  • Two important molecules – CTLA4 (cytotoxic T-lymphocyte-associated protein 4) and PD-L1 (programmed death-ligand 1) are crucial for dampening the T-cell response
87
Q

About self-antigen…

A

• T cells arise from the thymus, which is a ‘school’ for T-cells. T-cells are exposed to self-antigens and tested for reactivity.
• T-cells that cant bind self antigen-MHC are deleted positive selection
- These T-cells are useless because they wont protect against pathogens
• T-cells that bind self antigen-MHC too strongly are also deleted negative selection
- These T-cells are dangerous because they are too self-reactive

88
Q

What is the stochastic model?

A

In some models (STOCHASTIC MODEL), a proportion of T-cells that are strongly reactive to self-antigen will express the transcription factor FOXP3, which is the ‘master controller’ of Regulatory T-cells (TREG)

89
Q

What are obligate parasites?

A

Many organisms depend on human host for survival (‘obligate parasites’) – need to co-exist with the host immune system immune evasion

90
Q

What does Herpes simplex (HPV) do?

A

o Produce protein which binds to and inhibits TAP

o prevents viral peptide transfer to ER

91
Q

What does adenovirus do?

A
o	Produce protein which binds MHC class I molecule
o	Prevents MHC class I molecules from leaving ER
92
Q

What happens in a hypersensitivity type I reaction?

A

e.g. allergy to pollen

On first exposure to pollen you get the sensitisation phase. B lymphocytes recognise the antigen and they internalise the antigen and present it to Th2 cells. Th2 cells secrete IL4 – this is important in inducing B cells to switch class and become IgE producing cells.

The next stage is the effector phase. IgE that has been produced from previous contact with allergen diffuses throughout the body. IgE comes in contact with mast cells.

IgE binds to mast cells by its tail end the Fc region. This is bcause mast cells have receptors for binding to the Fc part of IgE.

On second exposure to pollen there are mast cells with antibodies attached to them. The pollen enters and binds to the antigen binding sites of the antibodies.

Mast cells have granules of histamine inside. When pollen binds to the antibodies on the surface of the mast cell. Sometimes a pollen can link two antibodies together – cross linking. Histamine is released.

This is not the only outcome. Late-phase reaction happens. Mast cells generate other cytokines. They encourage Thelper cells to produce cytokines as well. Allergic reaction is prolonged.

Approximately 15% of the population suffer from IgE mediated allergic diseases. Asthma is another example. In asthma allergic inflammatory response to allergen sensitises the airways. Nonspecific agents can then cause allergic response.

93
Q

What are examples of type II reactions?

A
  • Myasthenia gravis
  • Rheuses isoimmunisation
  • Haemolytic disease of the new born
  • Grave’s disease
  • Myasthenia gravis and graves disease in some reports are classified as type V
94
Q

About myasthenia gravis…

A

In healthy individuals normal stimulation of muscle contraction- nerve impulses trigger release of acetylcholine from nerve endings. This binds to acetylcholine receptors on muscle cells triggering contraction.

In Myasthenia gravis autoantibodies to acetylcholine receptors are produced. These block acetylcholine receptors at the postsynaptic neuromuscular junction. Muscle contraction diminished.

95
Q

About rhesus isoimmunisation…

A
  • RhD antigen is carried on red blood cells – mother RhD negative Father RhD positive
  • First pregnancy – mother sensitised – often sensitisation happens at birth of the first infant
  • Mother makes antibodies to RhD
  • Second pregnancy- Foetus Rh positive – small amounts of erythrocytes passing across placenta stimulate memory cells
  • More anti-RhD antibodies are produced and cross the placenta
  • Haemolytic disease of the new born
96
Q

About Grave’s disease…

A
  • This is an autoimmune thyroid disease
  • In healthy individuals pituitary makes thyroid-stimulating hormone TSH
  • TSH binds to TSH receptors on cells of the thyroid follicle
  • Triggers them to produce thyroid hormones
  • Thyroid hormones engage in an inhibitory feedback loop- they stop more TSH being produced

Pituitary - TSH - bind to thyroid follicle - thyroid hormone produced - negative feedback stop TSH being made

  • Circulating autoantibodies to TSH receptor
  • These bind to TSH receptors and trigger the cells to release thyroid hormones
  • The antibodies stop the pituitary from making TSH
  • But autoantibodies are present and continue to trigger release of thyroid hormones – so the control system is not working any more.
97
Q

What is the type II target?

A

soluble circulating antigen

98
Q

About SLE autoimmune disease…

A
  • Aetiology unknown – familial pattern
  • Patients make autoantibody directed against several self molecules such as DNA and nuclear ribonucleoproteins
  • Immune complexes formed
  • The antibodies in these immune complexes can fix complement – tissue injury
  • Complexes trapped in kidney
  • Glomerulonephritis
  • B cell activation abnormal in patients with SLE
  • Higher number of B cells at all stages of activation in SLE patients.
  • Evidence that B cells in these patients more sensitive to stimulatory cytokines
  • Also an unusual problem – B cells can engage in polyclonal activation
  • Changes in cytokine levels
  • Changes in T cell function – Th1 response reduced
  • Problems with phagocytic cells – immune complexes not cleared by phagocytes
99
Q

About type IV hypersensitivity…

A
  • Type IV- Delayed hypersensitivity
  • T cell mediated –but dendritic cells, macrophages and cytokines contribute to the disease process
  • Mantoux test is an example
  • Patient injected extract of mycobacterial antigen in skin
  • Macrophages present antigen
  • Th cells activated
  • Th cells in response release cytokines which activate macrophages to release cytokines
  • Firm red swelling of skin
100
Q

About endocrine autoimmune diseases…

A
  • Another example of type IV hypersensitivity is Insulin dependant diabetes – type I diabetes
  • Beta cells in islets of Langerhans
  • Act as autoantigen
  • Presented by antigen presenting cells in the context of MHC class II
  • Stimulate CD4+ Th cells
  • Th1 cells release cytokines
  • Activate T cytotoxic cells
  • Damage Beta cells
101
Q

About chron’s disease in hypersensitivity….

A

Chron’s disease – any part of the GI tract may be involved.

  • Changes in relative proportion of T and B lymphocytes
  • High number of B cells producing antibodies on site
  • Deposition of complement components in the intestinal mucosa
  • Possible presentation of autoantigens on MHC II
  • Increased interleukin levels
  • Ulcerative colitis Th2 may be involved
  • Crohn’s Th1 may be involved
102
Q

About psoriasis…

A
  • Psoriasis
  • Chronic skin disease
  • 2% of Caucasians
  • onset usually puberty or menopause
  • red plaque covered by silvery skin scales
  • relapsing remitting
  • genetic + environmental factors may play a role
  • high number of CD4+ cells in the skin
  • immunosuppressive treatment is effective suggesting the cells are involved in pathogenesis
  • antigen specificity of the cells is not known
103
Q

How do we define autoimmunity?

A

an acquired immune reactivity to self antigens. autoimmune disease occurs when autoimmune response leads to tissue damage.

104
Q

What factors contribute to the development of autoimmune disease?

A
  • Multifactoral
  • Factors predisposing and/or contributing to disease development could be;
  • Age and gender
  • Autoantibodies more common in older individuals.
  • SLE and Grave’s disease more common in women 10:1 and 7:1 ratio
  • Drugs- Certain drugs can initiate autoimmune reaction.
  • Mechanism unknown.
  • Example Patients on treatment for ventricular arrhythmia (procainamide) develop SLE. Stopping treatment resolves the problem.
  • Immunodeficiency
  • Immunodeficiency may allow persistent infections or inflammation resulting in autoimmunity
105
Q

About B cell deficiencies…

A
  • Severe combined immunodeficiency syndrome.
  • Lack of development of Stem cells into B cells and T cells
  • Hyper IgM syndrome
  • Increased IgM but little or no IgG
  • Common variable immunodeficiency
  • IgG/IgA deficiency
  • Mainly a consequence of B cells being unable to mature into plasma cells
106
Q

About T cell deficiency…

A
  • Lack of thymus is an example

- DiGeorge syndrome – incomplete development of the thymus

107
Q

About secondary immunodeficiency…

A
  • HIV infection – acquired immunodeficiency syndrome
  • Malnutrition
  • Tumours – cancerous cells can release immunosuppressive factors
  • Therapy using cytotoxic drugs and irradiation
108
Q

What were the scientific principles from Jenner’s experiments?

A
  1. Challenge dose – proves protection from infection
  2. Concept of attenuation
  3. Concept that prior exposure to agent boosts protective response
  4. Cross-species protection – antigenic similarity
109
Q

How was the eradication of small pox achieved?

A

How?

  • Vaccination programmes
  • Case finding (surveillance)
  • Movement control – peoples movement was restricted at this time, which was possibly most important.
110
Q

Why was the eradication of small pox possible?

A

Why possible?

  1. no sub-clinical infections – always know that it is there
  2. after recovery, the virus was eliminated – no carrier states, not going to be at risk of shedding and giving it to other people.
  3. no animal reservoir for human small pox – not going to come back from the animal environment, there is not another source, so don’t need to keep vaccination high.
  4. effective vaccine (live vaccinia virus) - of unknown origin, thought to have come from Blossom the cow, giving cross-species protection
  5. slow spread, poor transmission – difficult to spread, needed close contact to get it.
111
Q

What is the definition of a vaccine?

A

Material from an organism that will actively enhance adaptive immunity. Produces an immunologically ‘primed’ state that allows for a rapid secondary immune response on exposure to antigen

112
Q

What is the rationale of vaccines?

A
  • protection of the individual
  • protection of the population
  • eradication of the disease
  • decreased rate/severity
113
Q

What is the vaccine paradox?

A

Herd immunity – memory boosted by

  • periodic outbreak of disease in community
  • vaccines

Adults are naturally boosted as their children are infected. Older siblings will have been vaccinated.

As disease rates decline – not natural boosting increases importance of vaccination take up rates

114
Q

What are the types of immunity?

A

Active immunity

  • innate
  • adaptive (CMI; antibodies)
  • natural exposure (carriage)
  • infection
  • vaccination

LONG EFFECT

Passive immunity
(antibody from another source: serum)
Prophylaxis and/or treatment

SHORT EFFECT

115
Q

What is the immune response to primary exposure to an antigen?

A

Primary exposure
• 5-7 days antibody response
• 2 weeks for a full response
• IgM IgG switching memory B and T cells

116
Q

What is the secondary immune response to an antigen?

A
  • Prior exposure
  • 2 days for full protective response
  • post-exposure immunoprotection due to response vs specific antigens
  • eg surface proteins, polysaccharides, toxins, good targets for vaccine candidates
117
Q

What are the general principles of vaccines?

A
  1. Induce correct TYPE of response
    - Antibodies polio virus
    - Cell mediated immunity tuberculosis
  2. Induce response in RIGHT PLACE
    - Mucosal – sIgA flu; polio
    - Systemic yellow fever
    - Parenteral vaccines: poor mucosal immunity
    - Oral vaccines: produced by MALT good IgA
  3. Duration of protection
    - Short-term (travel) antibody sufficient
    - Long-term memory essential
    - Boosters natural (seasonal epidemics; carriage), vaccines
    - Type of infection – long incubation; systemic measles, short incubation time – surface cholera
118
Q

Why is age of vaccination important?

A

Maternal antibodies in neonate – sIgA in milk. Lasts 6 months.

There is a problem for live attenuated viruses – eg MMR.
Virus neutralised by maternal antibody no protection.

Vaccinate > 9 months. But… many babies infected by then in endemic areas.

Why and when we use vaccines – to protect people in risk categories. Adults have high immunity as have matured and encountered viruses for example.

119
Q

What are the advantages of oral administration of vaccines?

A
  • avoids needles (risk of HIV, HepB)
  • mimicry of natural route of infection
  • ensures exposure to ‘large immune surface’
  • good sIgA response
  • humoural immunity via lymphocyte trafficking to other mucosal surfaces
  • BUT was it swallowed?
120
Q

What is the nature of vaccines?

A

Monotypic
Polytypic
Decreasing antigen variation genetic diversity.

Post exposure immunoprotection due to response vs specific antigens eg surface proteins, polysaccharised, toxins, good targets for vaccine candidates.

Most antigens are immunogenic but NOT immunoprotective. Why? Cant predict…

Serology can differentiate exposure from vaccination eg Hep B surface Ag.

121
Q

What are the three types of vaccines?

A

1 - live, attenuated organism
2 - killed, whole organism
3 - sub-unit vaccines

122
Q

About live, attenuated organisms as vaccines…

A

Eg BCG, polio(Sabin), MMR, yellow fever, VZV
- By serial passage
- Low temperature adaptation
- Recombinant genetics
- Selection of natural attenuated strains
• Polio (Sabin) type I has 57 mutations
• Type 2 and 3 only a few
• Possible to revert (wild-type in nappies!)
- 3 separate doses to overcome strain antagonism and ensure adequate immune response against each type

there is natural boosting

123
Q

About killed whole organisms as vaccines…

A

eg pertussis, flu (old type), polio (Salk type), cholera, HepA

  • reactogenicity
  • boosting required
124
Q

About sub-unit vaccines…

A

(individual components)

  • proteins
  • toxoids (diphtheria; tetanus)
  • peptides (synthetic)
  • polysaccharide – poor antigens, conjugated to toxoid + outer membrane protein (eg MenC, Hib)
  • recombinant proteins
  • sub-cellular fractions
  • surface antigens (eg HepB, influenza haemagglutinins)
  • virulence determinant (eg aP-pertussis: adhesion + toxin + OMP)
  • DNA vaccines (encoding antigen): i/m expression MHC Ig + T-cells
  • Transgenic food
125
Q

What is conjugation?

A

Conjugation links polysaccharide antigen to protein carrier (e.g. diphtheria or tetanus) that the infant’s immune system already recognises in order to provoke an immune response

126
Q

About adjuvant markers and delivery systems…

A
  • Enhance immune response to antigen
  • Promote uptake and antigen presentation
  • Stimulate correct cytokine profiles
127
Q

What is the treatment and prevention of Hib meningitis?

A

Antibiotic therapy (ampicillin) immediately if diagnosis is suspected or G –ve pleomorphic rods seen in CSF.

Vaccine effective: (99% cases are type b)

Type b capsule polysaccharide linked to conjugate: - diphtheria/tetanus toxoids + outer membrane proteins.

128
Q

What are examples of vaccines where development is problematic?

A

Neisseria meningitides group B

¥ Capsular polysaccharide – poorly antigenic – sialic acid
¥ Non capsular vaccines

Outer membrane vesicles of epidemic strains
¥ Efficacy in the age group at greatest risk ?
¥ Which antigen induces protective immunity? porA, adhesins and surface proteins
¥ Antigenic variation of many surface components

It is as a result of the constant surveillance of infectious disease (only possible through notifications received from clinicians such as yourselves) and the ongoing development of new and improved vaccines that the vaccine programme in the UK is subject to ongoing review and changes.

129
Q

About the new MenB vaccine…

A

Outer membrane vesicles (OMV) from the Neisseria meningitidis group B strain NZ98/254 - menZB
In UK, Bexsero®. Contains MenZB PLUS

Surface proteins (non-variant) of the bacteria – recombinant :
• Factor H Binding Protein (fHbp)
• Neisseria Heparin Binding Antigen (NHBA)
• Neisserial Adhesin A (NadA)

88% efficacy and strain coverage
Duration pof protection – 10 years
30% reduction in carriage rates

130
Q

What is the spectrum of pneumococcal infection?

A
  • meningitis
  • sinusitis (common_
  • invasive pneumococcal disease (bacteramia)
  • soft tissue infection (rare)
  • arthritis (rare)
  • otitis media
  • pneumonia
  • peritonitis (rare)
131
Q

What are the two types of pneumococcal vaccine?

A

1 - pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine PPV23

2 - pneumococcal conjugate vaccine PCV-13V

132
Q

What is the pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine (PPv23)?

A
  • The 23-valent pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine (PPV) for at risk adults and children over the age of 2
  • Children under 2 can’t make a ling-lasting protective immune response to polysaccharide vaccines
  • These 23 types of bacteria cause about 96% of all pneumococcal disease cases in the UK
133
Q

What is the pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV-13V)?

A
  • Polysaccharides from 13 most common capsule types
  • Conjugated to T/D toxoids + OMP as for Hib and MenC
    Estimated that the capsular types in the vaccine cause: ~66% of all pneumococcal disease cases and 82% of pneumococcal disease in under 5 year olds
134
Q

About HPV…

A

¥ Over 40 types

Genital Warts:-
¥	High risk types (16,18) – lead to cancer
¥	HPV16:  50%       
¥	HPV18:  20% 
¥	Low risk types (6,11) – warts

¥ Cervical cancer kills 1100 women in UK each year (>200,000 cases p.a.)
¥ 2nd leading cause of cancer deaths in women

135
Q

About the HPV vaccine…

A

Two licensed vaccines:

  • gardasil: protects against HPV 6,11,16,18
  • cervarix: protects against HPV 16,18

Clinical trials show high efficacy, well tolerated

  • 66% reduction I prevalence high grade pre-cancerous lesions
  • 76% reduction in cervical cancer deaths
  • will save 400 lives/year

Schedule: September 2008 – all 12-13y and 17-18 year old girls (cervarix): 3 doses over 6 months – booster not currently thought necessary…?

Recombinant capsid L2 protein in virus-like particles – subunit

136
Q

What are problems with new vaccines?

A

¥ Sufficient organisms? : recombinant DNA technology
¥ Crude preparations (poor protection and toxicity)
¥ Correct Antigen? Can’t predict
¥ Type of immune response: to natural infection, to produce protection
¥ Live attenuated: reactivation (VZV), cancer (EBV)
¥ Many pathogens interfere with effective immune response e.g. gonorrhoea, HIV, Herpes
¥ Model to study: animal or cell lines, human challenge
¥ Latency
¥ Antigenic variation/diversity, serotypes

137
Q

What is herd immunity?

A
  • The level of immunity in a population against a specific disease
  • Adequate herd immunity is necessary to prevent outbreaks of infectious diseases
  • A high level of herd immunity particularly protects vulnerable unprotected groups
  • When vaccination rates are low, herd immunity falls and epidemics can occur
138
Q

What is the rationale for the changed to the UK BCG vaccination programme?

A
  • BCG introduced 1950s for secondary age. Around 50,000 cases TB annually UK
  • In 1960s selective immunisation of high risk neonates
  • TB causes fell from 50,000 to 5,800 late 1980s
  • Although total cases increased to approximately 7000 pa, epidemiology changed from disease of general population to one of predominantly high risk groups
  • Mainly large cities, 40% UK cases in London, 60% cases in people born abroad, rates high in their children, wherever born
  • Other risk groups, contacts of cases, homeless, HIV
139
Q

Who now gets BCG vaccination in the UK?

A
  • All infants living in areas where the incidence of TB is 40/100,000 or greater
  • Infants whose parents or grandparents were born in a country with a TB incidence of 40/100,000 or greater
  • Previously unvaccinated new immigrants from high prevalence countries for TB
  • Children who would otherwise have been offered BCG in the schools programme will now be screened for TB risk and vaccinated if appropriate
Nasal flu vaccine for children aged 2 and 3 years.
Oral rotavirus (live vaccine)
140
Q

What controversy surrounded MMR?

A
  • Case series in Lancet 1998 purporting to link MMR vaccine with autism. 12 cases with bowel abnormalities and serious developmental regression (9 had autism). In 8 cases parents reported regression starting shortly after MMR
  • Hypothesis that MMR leads to non-specific gut condition permitting the absorption of non-permeable peptides, leading to serious developmental disorders
141
Q

What criticism of MMR research was there?

A
  • Temporal association with MMR likely to be due to chance
  • Serious selection bias
  • Findings not replicable
  • Post-marketing surveillance (based on >250 million doses) and licensing reviews confirm safety
  • Epidemiological evidence unsupportive
  • Serious conflict of interest and unethical behaviour (Wakefield struck off by GMC 2010)
  • Paper retracted by Lancet in 2010
  • Data shown to be fraudulent Deer BMJ 2011
142
Q

What are high risk groups for immunisation?

A
  • travellers
  • occupational groups
  • patients with immundeficiency
143
Q

What are the immunisation needs of travellers?

A

• Make good deficiencies of primary courses of immunisation
• No further immunisations usually required for Europe, N. America, Japan, Australia, N. Zealand
• For other regions consider typhoid and hepatitis A if risk of faecal-oral infection
• Consider HepB for high sero-prevalence areas
• Yellow fever for S. America and Sub-Saharan Africa, certificate for entry
• Other immunisations advised for special circumstances
o Japanese encephalitis (SE Asia and far east endemic rural areas at end of monsoon season)
o Rabies (pre-exposure immunisation if long journeys in remote enzootic areas)
o Tick borne encephalitis (forested areas of Eastern Europe)
o Meningitis ACWY for those on Hajj or Umra pilgrimage

144
Q

What are the immunisation needs of occupational groups?

A
  • Health care and public safety workers need protection against hepatitis B
  • All health care workers should be immune to rubella, tuberculosis and chicken pox
  • Rabies prophylaxis for laboratory workers handling rabies virus and handlers of imported animals
145
Q

What are the immunisation needs of occupational groups?

A
  • Health care and public safety workers need protection against hepatitis B
  • All health care workers should be immune to rubella, tuberculosis and chicken pox
  • Rabies prophylaxis for laboratory workers handling rabies virus and handlers of imported animals
146
Q

What are the immunisation needs of patients with immunodeficiency?

A

• Primary
• Secondary
- Acquired through illness eg leukaemia, HIV
- Acquired through treatment eg steroids, chemotherapy, radiotherapy
• Particularly susceptible to many infections
• May not be able to mount normal immune response to live vaccines
• Could suffer severe manifestations eg disseminated infection with BCG or paralytic poliomyelitis form oral vaccine virus
• If general live vaccines avoided, inactivated vaccines safe and indicated but may have reduced efficacy

147
Q

What are the immunisation needs of patients with hyposplenism?

A
  • Children and adults with no spleen or with functional hyposplenism are at increased risk from bacterial infections, most commonly caused by encapsulated organisms
  • The following vaccines are particularly recommended: pneumococcal; Hib, influenza meningococcal A and C
148
Q

What are contraindications to immunisation?

A
  • Acute illness – but minor infections without systemic upset NOT reasons to postpone
  • Live vaccines contraindicated in individuals with immunodeficiency and in pregnancy
  • Anaphylactic reaction to previous dose
  • Specific contraindications for individual vaccines eg hypersensitivity to egg contraindicates influenza vaccine
149
Q

About the pertussis vaccine…

A
  • There are very few individuals who cannot receive pertussis
    o Anaphylactic reaction to previous dose
    o Anaphylactic reaction to neomycin, streptomycin, polymyxin B (present in trace amounts)
150
Q

Who is the pertussis vaccine recommended for?

A

• Children with family history or personal history of epilepsy of febrile convulsions
- Give advice on prevention of pyrexia to minimise risk of febrile convulsions occurring
• Children with stable neurological conditions such as cerebral palsy or spine bifida
- Neurological complications more common after whooping cough infection than after pertussis vaccination

151
Q

What are ethical issues of vaccines?

A
  • Balance of public health needs against individuals rights to refuse vaccination
  • Importance of informed consent
  • Different approaches to increasing immunisation uptake – health education versus legal compulsion
  • General practitioner payments for immunisation targets
  • Ethical issues raised by MMR scare