Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

HEENT Patho > deck_541931 > Flashcards

deck_541931 Flashcards

2
Q

Which side of the lungs is a FB more likely to get stuck in?

A

Right

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Where are Goblet cells and submucosal glands located in the respiratory tree?

A

Walls of trachea and bronchi. Not bronchioles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What do neuroendocrine cells secrete in the respiratory tree?

A

Serotonin, Calcitonin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are type 1 alveolar pneumocytes?

A

cover 95% of alveolar surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are type 2 alveolar pneumocytes?

A

they are rounded cells that secrete surfactin and cover 5% of alveolar surface. They give rise to type 1 cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are Pores of Kohn?

A

connect alveoli to alveoli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Does hypoplasia lung defect usually affect 1 or both lungs?

A

both

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is agenesis?

A

congenital defect where 1 or 2 lobes are missing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is tracheal atresia?

A

condition of abnormally closed or absent trachea.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

At which point is a tracheal/ bronchial stenosis a clinical manifestation?

A

When it is less than 50% of its size

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What can happen with esophageal atresia and distal fistula?

A

Food/drink intake will induce vomiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What can happen with no esoophageal atresia but “H” fistula”?

A

Fluid can pass from esophagus into trachea.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is eupnic respirations

A

“normal” breathing. 8-16bpm, 400-800 tidal volume.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are Kussmaul Respiration?

A

inc vent rate and tidal volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Characteristics of restricted breathing?

A

small TV, rapid rate, rapid expiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are Cheyne Stokes Respiration?

A

Alternating periods of deep and shallow breathing. Brainstem breathing pattern.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What could cause Kussmaul Respirations?

A

metabolic problem. DKA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What can hyperventilation cause?

A

hypocapnia= 1)tingling in fingers/lips 2)dec resp drive= fainting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What causes cyanosis?

A

saturated hemoglobin of 5gm or more

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are signs of central cyanosis?

A

blue buccal mucosa and lips

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are signs of peripheral cyanosis?

A

blue nail beds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is clubbing associated with?

A

chronic hypoxia= inc vascular growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is important to consider about location of irritant receptors in the airway?

A

few receptors in distal bronchi and alveoli so it is possible for secretions to accumulate distally w/o cough.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what is the effectiveness of cough dependent on?

A

Inspiratory volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what is chronic cough defined as?

A

persistent cough for > 3 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is typical with hemoptysis?

A

blood from airwaybright redalkalinemixed with frothy sputum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is typical with hematemesis?

A

blood from GI tractDarkAcidicFood particles may be present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is type 1 resp failure?

A

hypoxia w/o hypercapniaPa02 less than or equal 50mmHg

30
Q

What is type 2 resp failure?

A

hypoxia with hypercapniaPa02 less than or equal 50mmHg and PaC02 greater than or equal 50 with pH less than or equal 7.25

31
Q

What is neonatal atelectasis?

A

incomplete expansion of the lungs

32
Q

What is Acquired atelectasis?

A

collapse of previously inflated lung

33
Q

Where does the mediastinum shift in Resorption atelectasis?

A

toward the affected side due to dec pressure

34
Q

Where does the mediastinum shift in compression atelectasis?

A

away from the affected side.

35
Q

What is bronchiectasis?

A

permanent dilation of bronchi and cronchioles

36
Q

What causes bronchiectasis?

A

Caused by destruction of muscle & elastic tissue, resulting from or associated with chronic necrotizing infections.

37
Q

What conditions can be associated with Bronchiectasis?

A

Congenital conditions: CFPost-infectious conditions: TB, bact, virusBronchial obstruction: tumors, FB, mucusOther conditions: RA, systemic Lupus, IBD

38
Q

What is characteristic of lungs with Bronchiectasis?

A

Infection: InflammationNecrosisFibrosisDilation of airways

39
Q

What is Bronchiolitis?

A

Inflammatory obstruction of the small airways or bronchioles

40
Q

What is Bronchiolitis obliterans?

A

fibrotic process occluding airways and causes permanent scarring of the lungs Common after lung transplantation.

41
Q

What are characteristics of Bronchiolitis?

A

Most commonly in children: Due to RSVIn adults: accompanies chronic bronchitisUsually diffuse

42
Q

What causes pulm edema with inc hydrostatic pressure and normal oncotic pressure?

A

Left Heart failure, Mitral stenosis

43
Q

What causes Pulm edema with normal hydrostatic pressure and dec oncotic pressure?

A

nephrotic syndrome, liver Dz

44
Q

What causes pulm edema with normal hydrostatic pressure and normal oncotic pressure?

A

Microvascular Injury…-Infections- Aspiration- Drugs- Radiation

45
Q

What drug can cause pulm edema due to microvascular inj?

A

penicillin (after 10 days)

46
Q

Which part of the lungs is most affected by pulm edema?

A

lower lobes

47
Q

What are “heart failure cells?”

A

hemosiderin laden macrophages from pulm edema

48
Q

What occurs in the lungs with pulm edema?

A

Hemosiderin laden macrophages abundantFibrosisThickening of alveolar walls results in lungs becoming firm and brown “brown induration”

49
Q

What is the 2012 criteria for ARDS?

A

Respiratory symptoms must have started within one week of a known clinical insultBilateral opacities on chest radiograph or CT scanRespiratory failure must not be fully explained by cardiac failure or fluid overload (consider echocardiograph to rule out)Hypoxemia must be present on minimal ventilator settings

50
Q

What is mild ARDS?

A

PaO2/FiO2 >200mmHg but ≤300mmHg

51
Q

What is moderate ARDS?

A

PaO2/FiO2 >100mmHg but ≤ 200mmHg

52
Q

What is severe ARDS?

A

PaO2/FiO2≤100mmHg

53
Q

What are the majority of ARDS cases caused by?

A

SepsisDiffuse pulmonary infectionsGastric AspirationMechanical Trauma

54
Q

What type of bacteria usually cause ARDS form sepsis?

A

gram negative which activates the complement system

55
Q

What is the pathogenesis of ARDS?

A

Imbalance between pro-inflammatory mediators and inflammatory mediators leading to accumulation of neutrophils releasing oxidants, PAF, LKs which damage albeolar epithelium.

56
Q

What does IL-8 do?

A

chemotaxic factor for neutrophils

57
Q

What does IL-1 and TNF do?

A

activation of endothelial cells and neutrophils

58
Q

Which transcription factor shifts the balance to a pro-inflammatory state?

A

Kappa Beta

59
Q

What is involved after macrophage activation?

A

cytokine production, IL-1 & TNF effect on endothelial cells

60
Q

What is involved after Neutrophil activation?

A

free radicals, PAF, LKTs, proteases

61
Q

What are the 3 main phases of ARDS?

A

1)Exudative: diffuse alveolar damage2)Fibroproliferative: fibrosis and laying down of hyaline cartilage3)Recover/chronic

62
Q

Which cells are affected first in exudative phase of ARDS?

A

Type 1 alveolar pneumocytes

63
Q

What are the consequences of damage to alveolar pneumocytes?

A

SwellingBleb formationNecrosis

64
Q

What cells other than pneumocytes are damaged in the exudative phase of ARDS and what is the implication of this?

A

Capillary endothelial cells are damaged causing microthrombi. This is indicated by presence of vWF.

65
Q

What is the implication of diffuse alveolar damage during exudative phase of ARDS?

A

inc vascular permeablility

66
Q

What is the implication of basement membrane thickening during exudative phase of ARDS?

A

dec diffusion of O2= vent-perfusion mismatch

67
Q

What occurs in the fibroproliferative phase of ARDS?

A

Persistent hypoxemia: Development of hypercarbiaFibrosing alveolitisFurther decrease in pulmonary compliancePulmonary hypertensionSurfactant dysfunction

68
Q

1st tests to order for ARDS?

A

CXRABGCVPCBCSputum/blood CultureUALipase

69
Q

What tests would you order to rule out cardiogenic pulmonary edema in a ARDS workup?

A

BNP: BNP < 100 pg/mL bilateral infiltrates & hypoxemia suggests ARDS/ALI Echocardiogram normal in ARDSPulmonary artery catheterizatioin

70
Q

What is Lung Injury Prediction Score(LIPS)?

A

Identifies who is unlikely to develop ALI/ARDS based on a point system grading the predisposing conditionsAlerts clinicians to implement prevention strategies for those at riskUnder further investigation and current studies are being done to improve the prediction scoring system

HEENT Patho (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions