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IT 2 > deck_4545410 (2) > Flashcards

deck_4545410 (2) Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 3 ways to flash the BIOS?

A

1) Run update program in the OS. 2) USB flash drive through the BIOS. 3) Use bootable CD

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2
Q

What program in BIOS allows settings to be changed?

A

BIOS setup or CMOS setup

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3
Q

What is the UEFI?

A

Unified Extensible Firmware Interface. An interface between the motherboard firmware and the OS. It hands the boot over to the OS and loads essential device drivers and applications.

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4
Q

What is the Host Clock Frequency?

A

The basic system clock provided by the chipset that other components synchronize their activities to.

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5
Q

What loads up drivers and programs that the OS needs to run?

A

The UEFI

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6
Q

What do the components in the computer match their frequency to?

A

The Host Clock Frequency

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7
Q

What are the 4 choices for BIOS security?

A

No access. View only. Limited. Full access.

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8
Q

What is drive encryption?

A

This sets a password for a hard drive that is needed to access any data on it. Still works if moved to another computer.

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9
Q

What is a TPM chip?

A

Trusted Platform Module. A chip on the motherboard that stores the password for the encrypted drive so it only works with one motherboard.

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10
Q

What is the name of the chip on some motherboards that encrypts a hard drive so it can only be accessed on that computer?

A

The TPM chip. Trusted Platform Module.

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11
Q

What does ISO stand for?

A

International Organization for Standardization.

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12
Q

What is a system clock?

A

A line on a bus dedicated to timing components connected to it.

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13
Q

How large can ATX motherboards be?

A

Up to 12” x 9.6”

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14
Q

How large can MicroATX motherboards be?

A

Up to 9.6” x 9.6”

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15
Q

How large can ITX motherboards be?

A

Up to 6.7” x 6.7”

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16
Q

What bus type do PCI cards use?

A

Local I/O

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17
Q

What size data path do PCI cards use?

A

Parallel 32-bit or Parallel 64-bit

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18
Q

How many address lines do PCI cards have?

A

32 or 64

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19
Q

What frequencies do PCI cards come in?

A

33 MHz and 66MHz

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20
Q

What kind of throughput do PCI cards offer?

A

133, 266, and 532 MBps

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21
Q

What are the 4 types of PCI slots?

A

3.3V 32-bit, 5V 32-bit, 3.3V 64-bit, 5V 64bit

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22
Q

What voltages do PCI cards come in?

A

3.3V and 5V

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23
Q

What are the 6 types of PCI card configurations?

A

3.3V 32-bit, 5V 32-bit, Universal 32-bit, 3.3V 64-bit, 5V 64bit, and Universal 64-bit

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24
Q

What bus type do PCI-X cards use?

A

Local I/O

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25
Q

What size data path do PCI-X cards use?

A

Parallel 32-bit or Parallel 64-bit

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26
Q

How many address lines do PCI-X cards have?

A

32 or 64

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27
Q

What frequencies do PCI-X cards come in?

A

266 MHz or 533 MHz

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28
Q

What kind of throughput do PCI-X cards offer?

A

Up to 8.5 Gbps

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29
Q

What are PCI-X cards primarily used for?

A

Servers

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30
Q

What voltages do PCI-X cards come in?

A

3.3V and 5V

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31
Q

What are the 2 types of PCI-X slots?

A

3.3V and 5V

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32
Q

What are the 3 types of PCI-X card configurations?

A

3.3V, 5V, and Universal

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33
Q

What bus type do PCIe cards use?

A

Local video and local I/O

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34
Q

What size data path do PCIe cards use?

A

Serial up to 32 lanes

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35
Q

How many address lines do PCIe cards have?

A

Up to 32 lanes

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36
Q

What frequencies do PCIe cards come in?

A

2.5 GHz

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37
Q

What kind of throughput do PCIe cards offer?

A

Up to 500 MBps per lane in each direction

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38
Q

If a PCIe slot is meant for a video card, what does it connect to?

A

The North Bridge or the processor

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39
Q

How many slot sizes do PCIe cards come in?

A

Four

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40
Q

What are the 4 types of PCIe slots?

A

PCIe x1, PCIe x4, PCIe x8, PCIe x 16

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41
Q

What bus type do AGP cards use?

A

Local video

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42
Q

What size data path do AGP cards use?

A

32 bits

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43
Q

What frequencies do AGP cards come in?

A

66 MHz, 75 MHz, 100 MHz

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44
Q

What kind of throughput do AGP cards offer?

A

266 MBps to 2.1 GBps

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45
Q

What are the four major releases of AGP?

A

AGP 1.0, AGP 2.0, AGP 3.0, AGP Pro

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46
Q

What are the four different speeds AGP comes in?

A

1x @ 266 MBps, 2x @ 533 MBps, 4x @ 1.06 Gbps, 8x @ 2.12 Gbps

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47
Q

What are the three voltages AGP comes in?

A

0.8V, 1.5V, 3.3V

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48
Q

What are the six different slots AGP comes in?

A

AGP 3.3V, AGP 1.5V, AGP Universal, AGP Pro 3.3V, AGP Pro 1.5V, AGP Pro Universal

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49
Q

What RAM variants can use dual channels?

A

DDR, DDR2, and DDR3

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50
Q

What RAM variants can use triple channels?

A

DDR3

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51
Q

What RAM variants can use quad channels?

A

DDR3

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52
Q

Which AMD socket is the only one to use an LGA socket?

A

Socket F

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53
Q

What families of processors use the LGA2011 socket?

A

Second Generation (Sandy Bridge) Core i7 Extreme, Core i7, Core i5, Core i3, Pentium, and Celeron

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54
Q

What families of processors use the LGA1155 socket?

A

Ivy Bridge Celeron, Pentium, Core i3, Core i5, Core i7; Sandy Bridge Core i3, Core i5, Core i7

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55
Q

What families of processors use the LGA1366 socket?

A

Core i7, Core i7 Extreme

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56
Q

What families of processors use the LGA1156 socket?

A

Core i7, Core i5, Core i3, Pentium, and Celeron

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57
Q

What families of processors use the LGA775 socket?

A

Core 2 extreme, Core 2 Quad, Core 2 Duo, Pentium Dual-Core, Pentium Extreme Edition, Pentium 4, and Celeron

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58
Q

What RAM variants do LGA 1155 CPUs work with?

A

DDR3

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59
Q

What RAM variants do LGA 1366 CPUs work with?

A

DDR3

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60
Q

What RAM variants do LGA 1156 CPUs work with?

A

DDR3

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61
Q

What RAM variants do LGA 775 CPUs work with?

A

DDR2 and DDR3

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62
Q

How many pins in Socket FM2 processors?

A

904

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63
Q

How many pins in Socket FM1 processors?

A

905

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64
Q

How many pins in Socket AM3+ processors?

A

942

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65
Q

How many pins in Socket AM3 processors?

A

941

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66
Q

How many pins in Socket AM2+ processors?

A

940

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67
Q

How many pins in Socket F processors?

A

None! Socket F is a LGA socket. I has 1207 lands

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68
Q

How many pins in Socket AM2 processors?

A

940

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69
Q

How many pins in Socket 940 processors?

A

940

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70
Q

What families of processors use Socket FM2?

A

Trinity line of processors

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71
Q

What families of processors use Socket FM1?

A

AMD A4, AMD A6, AMD A8, AMD E2, Athlon II

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72
Q

What families of processors use Socket AM3+?

A

AMD FX

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73
Q

What families of processors use Socket AM3?

A

Phenom II

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74
Q

What families of processors use Socket AM2+?

A

Phenom II, Phenom, Athlon

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75
Q

What families of processors use Socket F?

A

Opteron, Athlon 64 FX

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76
Q

What families of processors use Socket AM2?

A

Athlon 64, Athlon, Phenom, Sempron, Second Generation Opteron

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77
Q

What families of processors use Socket 940?

A

Athlon

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78
Q

What RAM variants do Socket FM2 CPUs work with?

A

DDR3

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79
Q

What RAM variants do Socket FM1 CPUs work with?

A

DDR3

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80
Q

What RAM variants do Socket AM3+ CPUs work with?

A

DDR3

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81
Q

What RAM variants do Socket AM3 CPUs work with?

A

DDR3 and DDR2

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82
Q

What RAM variants do Socket AM2+ CPUs work with?

A

DDR2

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83
Q

What types of setups are Socket F CPUs used for?

A

Workstations and servers

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84
Q

What RAM variants do Socket AM2 CPUs work with?

A

DDR2

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85
Q

What RAM variants do Socket 940 CPUs work with?

A

DDR

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86
Q

What is the BSB?

A

The back side bus. It’s the connection between the CPU and its internal cache memory.

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87
Q

What is a DMI?

A

The direct media interface. This connects the CPU to the memory controller and graphics in newer chipsets in place of the FSB.

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88
Q

What is the GMCH?

A

The Graphics Memory Controller.

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89
Q

What is data path size?

A

The width of a data bus, usually powers of two, such as 8, 16, 32, 64, 128,

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90
Q

What are the three variations of P1 power connector?

A

20-pin, 24-pin, 20+4-pin

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91
Q

What are 20-pin P1 connectors used for?

A

Early ATX systems.

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92
Q

What are 24-pin P1 connectors used for?

A

Most motherboards today.

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93
Q

How many pins in a P4 connector?

A

4

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94
Q

How many pins in a P8 connector?

A

8

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95
Q

What is the P4 connector used for?

A

Providing extra 12V power to the processor

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96
Q

What is the P8 connector used for?

A

Providing extra 12V power to the processor, more than the P4 does.

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97
Q

How many pins in a molex connector?

A

4

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98
Q

What are Molex connectors used for?

A

IDE (PATA) drives

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99
Q

What voltages do Molex connectors provide?

A

(+)5V and (+)12V

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100
Q

How many pins in an SATA power connector?

A

15

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101
Q

What voltages do SATA power connectors provide?

A

(+)3.3V, (+)5V, and (+)12V

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102
Q

What type of power connector do floppy drives use?

A

A 4-pin Berg connector.

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103
Q

What kind of voltages do the Berg connectors for floppy drives provide?

A

(+)5V and (+)12V

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104
Q

What type of power connector do PCIe version 1 cards use?

A

6-pin (+)12V

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105
Q

What type of power connector do PCIe version 2 cards use?

A

8-pin (+)12V

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106
Q

How many pins in a fan header?

A

3 or 4

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107
Q

How many holes in a fan connector?

A

3 or 4

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108
Q

What happens if you place a 3-hole fan connector on a 4-pin fan header?

A

It works, but the fan will always operate at the same speed.

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109
Q

What’s the difference between a 4-pin fan header and a 3-pin fan header?

A

4-pin headers support fan speed modulation. Helps reduce system noise.

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110
Q

What can you do if you suspect a power connector is faulty?

A

Remove the connection and connect the two pins with a flat-head screwdriver. This simulates pressing the button.

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111
Q

What is a BGA?

A

Ball Grid Array. A processor connection that is soldered to the motherboard.

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112
Q

What is a data path size?

A

The number of lines on abus that can hold data. Usually powers of 2 (8, 16, 32, 64 etc.) but some that use other numbers generally have additional lines for ECC.

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113
Q

What is the data path size of the FSB?

A

64-bits

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114
Q

What are some other terms for FSB?

A

System bus and host bus.

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115
Q

What is a riser card?

A

It’s an expansion card that allows for more expansion cards to be mounted parallel to the motherboard.

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116
Q

What is a trace?

A

It’s a wire on a circuit board that connects two components or devices.

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117
Q

How many pins in a DDR3 DIMM?

A

240

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118
Q

How many channels do DDR3 DIMMs support?

A

single, dual, triple, and quad

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119
Q

How many pins in a DDR2 DIMM?

A

240

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120
Q

How many channels do DDR2 DIMMs support?

A

Single and dual

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121
Q

Where might you find SDRAM?

A

Almost all DRAM is SDRAM. It’s usually just noted as DRAM though so it isn’t confused with SRAM.

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122
Q

Where might you find SRAM?

A

In processor memory caches.

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123
Q

How many pins in a DDR DIMM?

A

184

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124
Q

How many pins on a non-DDR SDRAM DIMM?

A

168

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125
Q

How many channels do DDR DIMMs support?

A

Just single.

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126
Q

How many pins does a RIMM have?

A

184

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127
Q

What is the best way to identify a RIMM?

A

The metal plate covering it.

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128
Q

What process does DDR RAM use that allows double the speed of SDRAM?

A

Double pumping. It uses the leading and trailing edge of the system clock.

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129
Q

Why do they call it a DIMM?

A

Dual Inline Memory Module. It has independent pins on opposite sides of the module.

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130
Q

How many pins in a DDR SODIMM module?

A

200

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131
Q

How many pins in a DDR2 SODIMM module?

A

144 or 200

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132
Q

How many pins in a DDR3 SODIMM module?

A

204

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133
Q

What technology did older SIMMs use to check for errors?

A

Parity. A ninth bit was stored for every other eight.

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134
Q

What happens when a parity error is detected?

A

It causes the system to halt.

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135
Q

What does it mean if “Parity error 1” is displayed on the screen?

A

There has been a parity error detected on the motherboard.

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136
Q

What does it mean if “Parity error 2” is displayed on the screen?

A

There has been a parity error detected on an expansion card.

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137
Q

What technology do current SIMMs use to check for errors?

A

ECC

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138
Q

What advantages do ECC have over Parity?

A

ECC detects any time even a single bit is incorrect, then fixes the error on-the-fly.

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139
Q

What disadvantages does ECC RAM have compared to non-ECC ram?

A

ECC RAM is always slower.

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140
Q

What is required to use ECC RAM?

A

A specialized motherboard with a specialized MCC (Memory Chip Controller)

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141
Q

What is a bank?

A

Slots on a motherboard designed to hold pairs (or more) of DIMMs for dual (or more) channels.

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142
Q

What is a channel?

A

For dual channel motherboards, each channel represents a seperate 64-bit communication path.

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143
Q

Which slots are paired into banks on AMD cards?

A

Slot 1 and Slot 2; Slot 3 and Slot 4.

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144
Q

Which slots are paired into channels on AMD cards?

A

Slot 1 and Slot 3; Slot 2 and Slot 4.

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145
Q

Which slots are paired into banks on Intel cards?

A

Slot 1 and Slot 3; Slot 2 and Slot 4.

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146
Q

Which slots are paired into channels on Intel cards?

A

Slot 1 and Slot 2; Slot 3 and Slot 4.

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147
Q

For triple-channel DIMMs, which slots are bank 0?

A

Slot 1, Slot 3, and Slot 5.

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148
Q

For triple-channel DIMMs, which slots are bank 1?

A

Slot 2, Slot 4, and Slot 6.

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149
Q

For triple-channel DIMMs, which slots are channel 1?

A

Slot 1 and Slot 2.

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150
Q

For triple-channel DIMMs, which slots are channel 2?

A

Slot 3 and Slot 4.

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151
Q

For triple-channel DIMMs, which slots are channel 3?

A

Slot 5 and Slot 6.

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152
Q

What is different about double-sided RAM compared to single.

A

The RAM is separated into two groups known as ranks, and the system can only access one rank at a time. Quad-sided rank exists as well. The less ranks, the faster the RAM.

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153
Q

What does the number on RAM names stand for?

A

It’s a rounded version of the number of megabytes it can transfer in a second.

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154
Q

Where is the notch in a DDR DIMM?

A

Right of the center

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155
Q

Where is the notch in a DDR2 DIMM?

A

Barely right of the center

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156
Q

Where is the notch in a DDR3 DIMM?

A

Left of the center

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157
Q

How many times can CD-RW and DVD-RW be rewritten?

A

Up to 1,000 times.

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158
Q

What is unique about BD-R?

A

Data can be rewritten to it but not erased.

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159
Q

What is unique about BD-RE?

A

It is rewritable and erasable.

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160
Q

How many devices can a single USB port support?

A

127

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161
Q

How much power does a bus-powered USB port provide?

A

100mA

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162
Q

How much power does a self-powered USB port provide?

A

500mA, unless it’s USB 3.0. In which case, 900mA

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163
Q

How much power can a firewire cable provide?

A

1.5A

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164
Q

Does SATA support hot-swapping?

A

Only if configured for AHCI (Advanced Host Controller Interface) mode.

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165
Q

When can ethernet connections be used for storage?

A

When connected to a NAS (Network Attached Storage) device

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166
Q

How many pins does a SATA data connector use?

A

7-pin

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167
Q

How many pins does a SATA power connector use?

A

15-pin

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168
Q

What are the two modes SATA drives can be set to?

A

AHCI and IDE

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169
Q

What is the result if a SATA drive is set to IDE mode?

A

It emulates a PATA drive.

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170
Q

What can you do with an SATA drive set to AHCI mode?

A

You can hot swap them and they support Native Command Queuing (NCQ)

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171
Q

What is Native Command Queuing?

A

This allows data on drives to be prioritized so that more commonly accessed data loads faster.

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172
Q

What does AHCI stand for?

A

Advanced Host Control Interface

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173
Q

How many drives can a PATA interface accommodate?

A
  1. Primary and Secondary
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174
Q

Which does the blue connector on a PATA data cable connect to?

A

The motherboard

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175
Q

Which does the black connector on a PATA data cable connect to?

A

The primary drive

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176
Q

Which does the gray connector on a PATA data cable connect to?

A

The secondary drive

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177
Q

What are the 3 jumper settings for PATA cables?

A

Master, Slave, and Cable Select

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178
Q

How many devices does narrow SCSI support?

A

7

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179
Q

How many devices does wide SCSI support?

A

15

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180
Q

How are device Ids set for SCSI devices?

A

By a group of jumpers or DIP (dual in-line package) switches

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181
Q

What is the standard SCSI connector?

A

There is none! They vary widely.

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182
Q

What range of speeds do SCSI devices operate in?

A

10MBps - 320MBps

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183
Q

What is required for a daisy chain of SCSI devices to function?

A

Each end must be terminated.

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184
Q

How large are the sectors that magnetic hard drive platters are divided into?

A

512 bytes

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185
Q

Do external magnetic drives need AC power?

A

3.5” drives do. 2.5” drives can be bus powered.

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186
Q

Do magnetic drives have cache memory?

A

Yes, generally several megabytes worth for freuently accessed data.

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187
Q

What are xD flash drives used for?

A

Older FujiFilm and Olympus cameras

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188
Q

What are the two varieties of SSDs?

A

MLC (Multi Level Cell) and SLC (Single Level Cell)

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189
Q

Which is faster, MLC or SLC SSDs?

A

SLC, but it’s much rarer and more expensive

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190
Q

What is RAID 0?

A

Two drives treated as a single drive, with both drives storing different portions of the same file. This is known as striping. Boosts performance of read/write speeds.

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191
Q

What is RAID 1?

A

Two drives that perfectly mirror one another. Boosts only read performance and is backed up if a drive fails.

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192
Q

What is RAID 5?

A

At least three drives. One may fail without loss of data. Very fast read speeds, decent write speeds. Replacing a failed drive may take a very long time.

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193
Q

What is RAID 10?

A

At least four drives. Combines RAID 0 and RAID 1.

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194
Q

What is striping?

A

Multiple drives storing different parts of the same file in a RAID array to boost speed of read/write operations.

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195
Q

Which RAID array is ideal for boosted read/write performance?

A

RAID 0

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196
Q

Does RAID 1 boost performance?

A

It boosts read performance only.

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197
Q

For a floppy drive, how do you tell which is drive A: and drive B:?

A

If the drive is connected after the twist in the data cable, it’s drive A:. If it’s connected before (mid-cable), it’s drive B:.

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198
Q

What is hyperthreading?

A

The emulation of multiple cores.

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199
Q

What speeds do PATA/IDE drives come in?

A

100 MBps - 133 MBps

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200
Q

What are some other names for Serial connections?

A

COM ports or RS-232

201
Q

What connectors do serial conections use?

A

DB-9M, DB-25M

202
Q

What are some other names for Parallel connections?

A

LPT, Line Printer

203
Q

What connector do Parallel connections use?

A

DB-25F

204
Q

What type of connectors do VGA connections use?

A

DB-15

205
Q

What are the four types of HDMI connectors?

A

A, B, C, and D

206
Q

Where might you find HDMI type A connectors?

A

Everywhere.

207
Q

Where might you find HDMI type B connectors?

A

You won’t.

208
Q

What’s another term for HDMI type C connectors?

A

Mini HDMI

209
Q

What’s another term for HDMI type D connectors?

A

Micro HDMI

210
Q

What is another term for 1/8 inch (3.5mm) audio mini-jack connectors?

A

TRS (Tip Ring Sleeve) connectors

211
Q

What is the pink TRS connection for?

A

Microphone in

212
Q

What is the light blue TRS connection for?

A

Line in

213
Q

What is the lime green TRS connection for?

A

Stereo/Headphone out

214
Q

What is the brown TRS connection for?

A

Left-to-right speaker

215
Q

What is the orange TRS connection for?

A

Subwoofer

216
Q

What varieties do SPDIF connections come in?

A

Optical and coaxial

217
Q

What is a primary disadvantage of analog signals?

A

More suscetible to noise and they denegrate as they travel through the cable.

218
Q

How fast is Bluetooth 1.2?

A

1MBps

219
Q

How fast is Bluetooth 2.0?

A

3MBps

220
Q

How far does class 1 bluetooth transmit?

A

100 meters

221
Q

How powerful is class 1 bluetooth’s frequency?

A

100 mW

222
Q

How far does class 2 bluetooth transmit?

A

10 meters

223
Q

How powerful is class 2 bluetooth’s frequency?

A

2.5 mW

224
Q

How far does class 3 bluetooth transmit?

A

1 meter

225
Q

How powerful is class 3 bluetooth’s frequency?

A

1 mW

226
Q

What kinds of connections are RF connections?

A

Bluetooth and wi-fi

227
Q

What range of speeds do RF connections provide?

A

1Mbps to 600Mbps

228
Q

What voltages do slimline SATA power connectors provide?

A

5V

229
Q

What voltages do Molex connectors provide?

A

5V and 12V

230
Q

What voltages do 4/8-pin connectors provide?

A

12v

231
Q

What voltages do 6/8 connectors provide?

A

12v

232
Q

What voltages do 20-pin P1 connectors provide?

A

3.3V, 5V, 12V

233
Q

What voltages do 24-pin P1 connectors provide?

A

3.3V, 5V, 12V

234
Q

What voltages do 4-pin Berg connectors provide?

A

5V, 12V

235
Q

What kind of computer would a 220 watt rated power supply be good for?

A

A slimline desktop

236
Q

What kind of computer would a 400 watt rated power supply be good for?

A

Standard tower

237
Q

What kind of computer would a 750watt rated power supply be good for?

A

Full tower with SLI graphics

238
Q

What is a way to determine the wattage of attached components in a computer?

A

Multiply their amperage by their voltage then add them all up.

239
Q

Which dimensions of ATX power supplies are fixed?

A

Highth and Width, but not depth

240
Q

How many volts does commercial power in the U.S, provide?

A

115VAC

241
Q

If not 115VAC, what voltage would a power supply be designed for?

A

230VAC

242
Q

What is the most important factor in an audio workstation?

A

A large, fast, hard drive.

243
Q

How fast must a processor be to run Windows 7?

A

1 GHz

244
Q

How much RAM is required to run 32-bit Windows 7?

A

1 GB

245
Q

How much RAM is required to run 64-bit Windows 7?

A

2 GB

246
Q

How much Hard Disk space is required to run 32-bit Windows 7?

A

16 GB

247
Q

How much Hard Disk space is required to run 64-bit Windows 7?

A

20 GB

248
Q

What is WDDM?

A

Windows Display Driver Model. The graphic driver architecture for video card drivers running Microsoft Windows versions beginning with Windows Vista.

249
Q

What is required of a graphics card to run Windows 7?

A

It must be compatible with DirectX 9 and have WDDM 1.0.

250
Q

What type of backlight does an LCD screen use?

A

Cold Cathode Flouescent Lamp (CCFL)

251
Q

What are some downsides to Plasma screens?

A

They draw more power than LCD and LED screens and are more prone to burn in.

252
Q

How high must a refresh rate be in order to avoid flickering on CRT screens?

A

72Hz

253
Q

What is the resolution for VGA?

A

640 x 480

254
Q

What is the resolution for SVGA?

A

800 x 600

255
Q

What is the resolution for XGA?

A

1024 x 768

256
Q

What is the resolution for EVGA?

A

1024 x 768

257
Q

What is the resolution for SXGA?

A

1280 x 1024

258
Q

What is the resolution for UXGA?

A

1600 x 1200

259
Q

What is the resolution for WUXGA?

A

1920 x 1200

260
Q

What is the resolution for HDMI 1080?

A

1920 x 1080

261
Q

What is the resolution for HDMI 720?

A

1280 x 720

262
Q

If a CRT monitior is quite dim, regardless of the brightness setting, what might be the cause?

A

It’s old.

263
Q

What is the brightness of a projector called?

A

Lumens

264
Q

What form do analog signals come in?

A

A modulated sine wave

265
Q

Why might younot want to keep converting signals between digital and analog?

A

It wastes processing power.

266
Q

Besides a video signal, what else can Displayport carry?

A

Audio and USB data

267
Q

What is the pin arrangement in a DB-15 connector?

A

3 rows of pins carrying analog video

268
Q

What is a DB-15 connector used for?

A

VGA

269
Q

What is a BNC connector used for?

A

Coaxial cables carrying analog signals.

270
Q

Can a RJ-45 connector be used for a display>

A

Yes, but it is rare.

271
Q

Can a RJ-11 connector be used for a display>

A

Nope.

272
Q

What kind of signals do component cables send?

A

Analog video signals.

273
Q

How are component cables identified?

A

YPBPR

274
Q

What is YPBPR btoken down by cable?

A

Y is green, PB is blue, PR is red

275
Q

What kind of jack do composite cables use?

A

RCA jacks

276
Q

What kind of signals do composite cables carry?

A

Analog audio or video, but usually audio

277
Q

What kind of jack do S-video cables use?

A

4-pin DIN connector

278
Q

What kind of signals do S-video cables carry?

A

Analog video signals.

279
Q

What kind of jack do RGB cables use?

A

RCA jacks

280
Q

What kind of signals do RGB cables carry?

A

Analog video signals.

281
Q

What are the two types of connectors used for coaxial cables?

A

Twist-on BNC or screw-on F-type

282
Q

What interface do PATA drives use?

A

Either Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) or Enhanced IDE (EIDE)

283
Q

What is the only difference between IDE and EIDE?

A

EIDE may have better performance.

284
Q

Where does the red stripe on a PATA go?

A

It goes to pin-1 on the connector

285
Q

Where does the red stripe on a floppy drive go?

A

It goes to pin-1 on the connector

286
Q

How many pins does a floppy drive cable have?

A

34

287
Q

What kind of cable is used with Firewire 400?

A

Either a 4-pin connector or a 6-pin connector

288
Q

What is the difference between the 4-pin and 6-pin Firewire 400 cable?

A

The 6-pin provides power.

289
Q

What kind of cable is used with Firewire 800?

A

A 9-pin connector

290
Q

What does SCSI stand for?

A

Small Computer System Interface

291
Q

What kind of connector is PS/2?

A

A round mini-DIN connector

292
Q

What types of sound systems use RCA connectors?

A

High-end sound systems

293
Q

What is one of the benefits of SATA cables form factor?

A

They’re flat and thin, allowing better airflow

294
Q

What is another term for SCSI-1?

A

narrow SCSI

295
Q

What is another term for SCSI-2?

A

fast SCSI

296
Q

What is another term for SCSI-3?

A

Ultra SCSI

297
Q

What type of cables do SCSI-1 use?

A

Just 50-pin cables

298
Q

What type of cables do SCSI-2 use?

A

25-pin, 50-pin, and 68-pin cables

299
Q

What type of cables do SCSI-3 use?

A

50-pin, 68-pin, and 80-pin cables

300
Q

What kind of connectors do Parallel cables use?

A

They use a DB-25 connector to connect to the computer, and a Centronics connector to connect to the printer.

301
Q

What color is the PS/2 port for a mouse?

A

Green

302
Q

What color is the PS/2 port for a keyboard?

A

Purple

303
Q

What is needed to connect a touch screen?

A

In addition to video and power cables, a USB cable is needed.

304
Q

What are joysticks plugged into?

A

A two row DB-15 port included on sound cards.

305
Q

What does POTS stand for?

A

Plain Old Telephone System

306
Q

What are the 3 connectors fiber cables use?

A

SC, ST, and LC

307
Q

What does an SC connector look like?

A

It’s square

308
Q

What does an ST connector look like?

A

It’s round with a straight tip

309
Q

What does an LC connector look like?

A

It’s a miniature SC connector

310
Q

What does an SC stand for in an SC connector?

A

Square Connector

311
Q

What does an ST stand for in an ST connector?

A

Straight Tip

312
Q

What does an LC stand for in an LC connector?

A

Lucent Connector

313
Q

In twisted pair, what is the blue wire paired with?

A

White wire with a blue stripe

314
Q

In twisted pair, what is the orange wire paired with?

A

White wire with a orange stripe

315
Q

In twisted pair, what is the green wire paired with?

A

White wire with a green stripe

316
Q

In twisted pair, what is the brown wire paired with?

A

White wire with a brown stripe

317
Q

With fiber, what are some limiting factors for bandwidth?

A

The further the signal is carried, the less bandwidth is possible

318
Q

What are the two standards that twisted pairs come in?

A

T568A and T568B

319
Q

Which is more common between T568A and T568B?

A

T568B

320
Q

What is a downside of fiber compared to twisted pair or coaxial?

A

It is more expensive and harder to work with

321
Q

What is a benefit of fiber cables over twisted pair?

A

Not susceptible to EMI or RFI

322
Q

What does EMI stand for?

A

Electromagnetic interference

323
Q

What does RFI stand for?

A

Radio frequency interference

324
Q

Whats a common source of EMI?

A

Electric power cables and flourescent light fixtures.

325
Q

What a common source of RFI?

A

Anything that uses radio signals. And microwave ovens.

326
Q

What are the two modes fiber cables come in?

A

Single-mode fiber (SMF) and multi-mode fiber (MMF)

327
Q

How far can data travel on SMF fibers without a repeater?

A

Up to 40 Km

328
Q

How far can data travel on MMF fibers without a repeater?

A

Up to 2 Km

329
Q

How do STP cables handle EMI and RFI?

A

They provide some protection, but not as much as fiber cables.

330
Q

How do UTP cables handle EMI and RFI?

A

Quite poorly. They are highly susceptible.

331
Q

How fast are CAT3 twisted pair cables?

A

10 Mbps

332
Q

How fast are CAT5 twisted pair cables?

A

100 Mbps

333
Q

How fast are CAT5e twisted pair cables?

A

1 Gbps

334
Q

How fast are CAT6 twisted pair cables?

A

10 Gbps

335
Q

What are the two types of coaxial cable used?

A

RG-6 and RG-59

336
Q

Do RG-6 coaxial cables support digital or analog data?

A

Both

337
Q

Do RG-59 coaxial cables support digital or analog data?

A

Both

338
Q

Which coaxial cable type is used for digital cable distribution?

A

RG-6

339
Q

What connector type is most popular for RG-6 coaxial cables?

A

F-type screw-on

340
Q

What connector type is most popular for RG-59 coaxial cables?

A

BNC twist-on

341
Q

How many coaxial cables are needed to provide a home with both Tv and internet access?

A

One, but a splitter is used in the home.

342
Q

Why isn’t RG-59 used in to distribute cable television?

A

It is susceptible to high-frequency losses.

343
Q

Which number in an IPv4 address signifies the IP class?

A

The first number

344
Q

What range signifies a Class A IP address?

A

1 to 126

345
Q

What range signifies a Class B IP address?

A

128 to 191

346
Q

What range signifies a Class C IP address?

A

192 to 223

347
Q

What class is an IPv4 address in if the first number is 120?

A

Class A

348
Q

What class is an IPv4 address in if the first number is 190?

A

Class B

349
Q

What class is an IPv4 address in if the first number is 128?

A

Class B

350
Q

What class is an IPv4 address in if the first number is 220?

A

Class C

351
Q

What class is an IPv4 address in if the first number is 124?

A

Class A

352
Q

What class is an IPv4 address in if the first number is 126?

A

Class A

353
Q

What class is an IPv4 address in if the first number is 194?

A

Class C

354
Q

What class is an IPv4 address in if the first number is 188?

A

Class B

355
Q

What class is an IPv4 address in if the first number is 123?

A

Class A

356
Q

What class is an IPv4 address in if the first number is 130?

A

Class B

357
Q

What class is an IPv4 address in if the first number is 121?

A

Class A

358
Q

What class is an IPv4 address in if the first number is 222?

A

Class C

359
Q

What class is an IPv4 address in if the first number is 131?

A

Class B

360
Q

What class is an IPv4 address in if the first number is 127?

A

None! It’s a loopback adress

361
Q

What class is an IPv4 address in if the first number is 199?

A

Class C

362
Q

What class is an IPv4 address in if the first number is 187?

A

Class B

363
Q

What class is an IPv4 address in if the first number is 119?

A

Class A

364
Q

What class is an IPv4 address in if the first number is 134?

A

Class B

365
Q

What class is an IPv4 address in if the first number is 196?

A

Class C

366
Q

Can IPv6 omit leading zeros or trailing zeros?

A

Leading

367
Q

What is the loopback address for IPv4?

A

127.0.0.1

368
Q

What is the loopback address for IPv6?

A

::1

369
Q

What is the subnet mask for class A IPv4 addresses?

A

255.0.0.0

370
Q

What is the subnet mask for class B IPv4 addresses?

A

255.255.0.0

371
Q

What is the subnet mask for class C IPv4 addresses?

A

255.255.255.0

372
Q

What range are Class A IPv4 Private addresses found in?

A

10.0.0.0 through 10.255.255.255

373
Q

What range are Class B IPv4 Private addresses found in?

A

172.16.0.0 through 172.31.255.255

374
Q

What range are Class C IPv4 Private addresses found in?

A

192.168.0.0 through 192.168.255.255

375
Q

What do all APIPA addresses start with?

A

169.254

376
Q

What does APIPA stand for?

A

Automatic Private IP Addressing

377
Q

What are APIPA addresses?

A

Randomly selected private addresses that are assigned only when a DHCP client does not get a reply from a DHCP server from an IP address.

378
Q

What happens if a device assigns an IP address that has already been assigned?

A

The device won’t be able to communicate with the network.

379
Q

Where does DHCP run from?

A

On larger networks, it runs from a DHCP server. On SOHO networks, routers often include DHCP.

380
Q

What types of information does DHCP assign?

A

IP addresses, subnet masks, default gateways, and DNS server addresses.

381
Q

What does the subnet mask determine?

A

It determines which part of the IP address is the network ID and which is the host ID.

382
Q

How does a subnet mask show which part of an IP address is the host ID and which is the network ID?

A

If a bit in the binary version of the subnet mask is a 0, then the corresponding bit on the IP address is host ID. If it’s a 1, then it’s the network ID.

383
Q

What is a default gateway?

A

It’s a IP address on a router that provides a path out of the network

384
Q

What ports do FTP use?

A

21 an 20

385
Q

What port does TELNET use?

A

23

386
Q

What is TELNET used for?

A

Used for connecting to remote servers

387
Q

What port does SMTP use?

A

25

388
Q

What is SMTP used for?

A

Sending e-mail

389
Q

What port does DNS use?

A

53

390
Q

What port does HTTP use?

A

80

391
Q

What port does POP3 use?

A

110

392
Q

What is POP3 used for?

A

Recieving e-mail

393
Q

What port does IMAP use?

A

143

394
Q

What is IMAP used for?

A

Recieving e-mail

395
Q

What port does HTTPS use?

A

443

396
Q

What port does RDP use?

A

3389

397
Q

What does RDP stand for?

A

Remote desk protocol

398
Q

What is RDP used for?

A

Provides a graphical user interface to connect to another computer on the network

399
Q

What is DNS protocol used for?

A

It resolves user-friendly names to their IP addresses.

400
Q

What is LDAP used for?

A

It’s used to interact with Directory/Database services such as in microsoft domains.

401
Q

What is SNMP used for?

A

Used to communicate with and manage network devices such as switches and routers.

402
Q

What does SNMP stand for?

A

Simple Network Management Protocol

403
Q

What is SMB used for?

A

It’s used to transfer files over a network in a Microsoft network

404
Q

What does SMB stand for?

A

Server Message Block

405
Q

What is SSH used for?

A

It’s used to encrypt some types of traffic such as SFTP.

406
Q

What does SSH stand for?

A

Secure shell.

407
Q

What is SFTP used for?

A

It’s used to transfer large files securely.

408
Q

What does SFTP stand for?

A

SSH File Transfer Protocol

409
Q

What is the difference between TCP and UDP?

A

TCP guarantees and confirms delivery, UDP does neither.

410
Q

What does TCP stand for?

A

Transfer Control Protocol

411
Q

What does UDP stand for?

A

User Datagram Protocol

412
Q

What frequency does 802.11a use?

A

5GHz

413
Q

What is the maximum speed of 802.11a?

A

54 Mbps

414
Q

What kind of range does 802.11a have?

A

One of the shortest ranges

415
Q

What frequency does 802.11b use?

A

2.4GHz

416
Q

What is the maximum speed of 802.11b?

A

11 Mbps

417
Q

What kind of range does 802.11b have?

A

Medium range

418
Q

What frequency does 802.11g use?

A

2.4GHz

419
Q

What is the maximum speed of 802.11g?

A

54 Mbps

420
Q

What kind of range does 802.11g have?

A

Medium range

421
Q

What frequency does 802.11n use?

A

2.4GHz and 5GHz

422
Q

What is the maximum speed of 802.11n?

A

Up to 600 Mbps

423
Q

What kind of range does 802.11n have?

A

One of the longest

424
Q

Rank the secureness of the 3 wireless encryption types

A

WPA2 is more secure than WPA, which is more secure than WEP, which is not recommended.

425
Q

What kinds of encryption protocols do WPA use?

A

It can use either AES or TKIP

426
Q

What kinds of encryption protocols do WPA2 use?

A

It can use either AES or TKIP

427
Q

What does AES stand for?

A

Advanced Encryption Standard

428
Q

What does TKIP stand for?

A

Temporal Key Integrity Protocol

429
Q

What is port forwarding?

A

It sends traffic coming in (from the Internet) from one port to an internal system with a specific IP address.

430
Q

What is port triggering?

A

It opens a specific incoming port only after sending traffic out of a specific port

431
Q

What does MAC stand for?

A

Medis Access Control

432
Q

A MAC address is assigned to every… what?

A

NIC

433
Q

What does NIC stand for?

A

Network Interface Card

434
Q

What can firewals filter traffic based on?

A

IP addresses, MAC addresses, logical ports, and protocols.

435
Q

What is a DMZ?

A

It’s a server placed between an internet-facing server and an internal network to add a second of security. If the initial internet facing server is compromised, an attacker must also compromise the DMZ before they may access the systems of the internal network.

436
Q

What are some other names for DMZs?

A

Screened subnet, perimeter networks, or buffer networks

437
Q

What is NAT?

A

It is a service that replaces private IP addresses used internally with public IP addresses used on the Internet.

438
Q

What does NAT stand for?

A

Network Address Translation

439
Q

What is WPS?

A

A service meant to make security configuration on wireless routers almost as easy as pressing a button. It is not secure and not recommended.

440
Q

What does WPS stand for?

A

Wi-Fi protected Setup

441
Q

What is an ISDN?

A

A transmission standard that uses digital signals and terminal adapters in place of modems, allowing users to talk on the phone at the same time as accessing the Internet.

442
Q

What does ISDN stand for?

A

Integrated Services Digital Network

443
Q

What does WiMAX stand for?

A

Worldwide Interoperability for Microwave Access

444
Q

What is a LAN?

A

A local area network. A network in a single location. Can often be made up of many subnets for businesses (with seperate netwroks for each department, for example)

445
Q

What is a WAN?

A

Wide area network. 2 or more LANs geographically seperated. (e.g. Office in LA and office in NY)

446
Q

What is a PAN?

A

Personal area network. A network of devices connected around a person. (e.g. Phone and bluetooth headset)

447
Q

What is a MAN?

A

A Metropolitan Area Network. A group of networks in the same general location but spread across a wide area, spanning multiple buildings. (e.g. A university campus)

448
Q

What does a mesh network topology look like?

A

Each device in the network has multiple redundant connections for each device. If any single connection fails, the network can continue on without issue.

449
Q

What makes a network a full mesh network?

A

Every single device has a direct connection to every other device.

450
Q

What does a ring topology look like?

A

Devices are connected in a physical or logical ring. Each device connected to 2 others.

451
Q

What does a star topology look like?

A

Each device connects to a central hub or switch.

452
Q

What does a bus topology look like?

A

A network of devices arranged in a line, with a terminator on each end. If any single device fails, or if a terminator fails, the entire network will fail.

453
Q

What does a hybrid topology look like?

A

It’s a combination of two or more topologies.

454
Q

What is unicast traffic?

A

Traffic in a network that is addressed to only one other device. If forwarded through a hub, it still gets sent to all other devices connected to the hub.

455
Q

What is broadcast traffic?

A

Traffic in a network sent to all other devices in the network

456
Q

What is multicast traffic?

A

Traffic in a netwrok sent from one device to multiple other devices.

457
Q

Why is a hub less secure than a switch?

A

A hub forwards data to all devices in a network, so secure data can be intercepted by a device that the data is not addressed to with the right tools.

458
Q

Besides security, what other advantages do switches have over hubs?

A

Since they only forward data to addressed devices, they provide better performance.

459
Q

What is the difference between a hub and a switch?

A

A hub forwards data to all devices in a network, a switch forwards the data only to addressed devices.

460
Q

What defines a router?

A

While a hub and switch connect devices in a network, a router connects mutiple networks to each other. They evaluate the traffic to determine the best path to send it along.

461
Q

Which routers use an NAT?

A

Ones that connect an internal network with the internet. If a router connects two internal networks, an NAT is not required.

462
Q

What is a WAP?

A

A wireless access point. A device that provides access to a wired network for wireless clinets. A wireless router includes the capabilities of a wireless access point, but they also have additional capabilities.

463
Q

What is a bridge?

A

A bridge is like a switch, but rather than connecting network devices, it connects groups of devices. That is, it conect two or more switches or hubs connected to networks. These are rarely used, switches are usually used instead.

464
Q

What kind of OS do most NAS use?

A

Unix or linux. They require very little configuartion or management and usually have a web-based interface for creating groups, users, and folders.

465
Q

What are the two types of firewalls?

A

Host-based and network-based.

466
Q

Where will you generally find a host-based firewall?

A

It is usually software running on a computer.

467
Q

Where will you generally find a network-based firewall?

A

It is often used in conjunction with a router.

468
Q

What is an Internet appliance?

A

A device (usually portable) that can access a web broswer or e-mail.

469
Q

What tool is used to secure connectors onto twisted pair cables?

A

A crimper

470
Q

What attributes does a multimeter measure?

A

Voltage, amperage, resistance, and continuity

471
Q

What does it mean when a multimeter measures continuity?

A

It checks to see if there are any breaks in the cable.

472
Q

What does a toner probe do?

A

It consists of two components, one creates a tone on one end of a cable, and the other listens for the tone along the cable. This allows you to identify two ends of a cable in cable-dense environments.

473
Q

What do cable testers do?

A

They verify that a cable is wired correctly and operational. They generally use LEDs to display how the cable is wired. If wired incorrectly, the tester reveals which pins have the wrong wires. It can also verify the bandwidth capabilities.

474
Q

What is a loopback plug?

A

A plug that loops transmit wires to recieve wires to verify functionality.

475
Q

What is a punchdown tool used for?

A

It attached twisted-pair cables to wall jacks or punch down blocks.

476
Q

How many pins in an Express card /34?

A

26

477
Q

How wide is an express card /34?

A

34 mm

478
Q

Are express cards hot swappable?

A

Yes.

479
Q

How many pins on an express card /54

A

26

480
Q

How wide is an express card /54?

A

It’s L-shaped! 34mm on the computer end, 54mm on the other end.

481
Q

What is a PC card?

A

An older expansion card from before express card. Comes in 3 types.

482
Q

How thick is Type I PC Card?

A

3.3 mm

483
Q

How thick is Type II PC Card?

A

5.0mm

484
Q

How thick is Type III PC Card?

A

10mm

485
Q

How many rows of pins does a Type I PC card have?

A

1

486
Q

How many rows of pins does a Type II PC card have?

A

2

487
Q

How many rows of pins does a Type III PC card have?

A

3

488
Q

What is another term for a PC card?

A

PCMCIA card.

489
Q

What does PCMCIA stand for

A

Personal Computer Memory Card International Association

490
Q

How do you access a laptop’s SODIMM card?

A

You remove the panel on the bottom of the computer then release the hold-down clips. Some laptops have a second SODIMM that you must disassemble the laptop to access.

491
Q

What is one thing you must almost always remove to access the system board?

A

The keyboard

492
Q

What size are hard drives used in laptops?

A

2.5”

493
Q

What must be removed before you can remove an optical drive?

A

Just one or two screws.

494
Q

What component provides wireless capabilities to a laptop?

A

A mini-PCIe wireless card

495
Q

Where is the wireless antenna usually located?

A

Around the screen bezel

496
Q

What must be removed to acces a Mini-PCIe card?

A

The bottom panel

497
Q

What must sometimes be removed to replace the speakers?

A

The screen

498
Q

What must sometimes be removed to replace the touchpad?

A

The keyboard

499
Q

What is the best way to seperate two plastic peices that are stuck together?

A

A plastic wedge so as not to damage the peices.

IT 2 (2 decks)

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