Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pathology AH > deck_2764924 > Flashcards

deck_2764924 Flashcards

1
Q

What is a Rule Out List?

A

List of Differentials

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the 1º Rule Out?

A

What you think it is the most

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How much kidney must be lost to show clinical signs?

A

66%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How much kidney must be lost to be azotemia?

A

75%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Azotemic and can concentrate urine, do they have kidney failure?

A

No, they are concentrating urine. Azotemia can be: Pre, Renal, Post

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Are Clinical Signs diseases?

A

NO!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Most CX are what?

A

Protective mechanisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When does loss of function give you the dz?

A

Beyond reserve capacity of the system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Does inflammation require loss of function?

A

NO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is a problem list?

A

Every single problem an animal has

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are Rule Out lists designed for?

A

Every single problem has its own Rule Out List

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

DAMNITV: What does D stand for?

A

Degenerative Developmental

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

DAMNITV: What does A stand for?

A

Anomalous Allergic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

DAMNITV: What does M stand for?

A

Metabolic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

DAMNITV: What does N stand for?

A

Neoplastic Nutritional

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

DAMNITV: What does I stand for?

A

Infectious InflammatoryImmune MediatedIdiopathicIschemicIatrogenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

DAMNITV: What does T stand for?

A

Trauma Toxic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

DAMNITV: What does V stand for?

A

Vascular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What does PARSIMONY mean?

A

Everything comes down to one thing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

When should you collect baseline samples?

A

When pet is healthy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is more important (regarding severity) for kidney function, azotemia or ability to concentrate?

A

Ability to concentrate, take a USG (UA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

TQ! What tests will you always want?

A

CBC, Chem, UA (at least USG)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is polachyuria?

A

Small spots all over the place

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

CKD?

A

Chronic Kidney Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

CDI?

A

Central Diabetes Insipidus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

PSS?

A

Portal Systemic Shunt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

1º NDI?

A

Nephrogenic Diabetes Inspipidus - exceedingly rare don’t have receptors for ADH, puppies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

2º NDI?

A

Nephrogenic DI - inability of receptors to respond to ADH - most cases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

When does epilepsy happen?

A

6 mo - 5 yrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What do buff colored cocker spaniels get?How many more times likely?

A

IMHA: This is your top differential. 8X more likely

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

When do we treat clinical signs?

A

When we know what is causing the clinical signs! Diagnosis!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What does S.O.A.P. stand for?

A

Subjective ObjectiveAssessmentPlan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Is CBC qualitative or quantitative?

A

BOTH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is ALWAYS done with a CBC?

A

Blood Smear!!!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

TQ! 2 Primary Rule Outs for Regenerative anemia?

A

Hemolysis Hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Why should you make sure tube is filled appropriately?

A

Anticoagulation Artifacts will change ratios of numbers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Immature cells are bigger or smaller?

A

Bigger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Decreased PCV is?

A

Anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Increased PCV is?

A

Polycythemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is PCV?

A

% of Whole blood that is RBC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Primary Rule Outs for Non-regenerative anemia?

A

InflammatoryRenal Dz - Could be anywhereBone Marrow Dz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What comes with inflammation?

A

Cytokines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What do Cytokines do?

A

Turn on and turn off all kinds of cells including inflammatory cells and some of which live in the bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is an increased PCV?

A

Polycythemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Types of Polycythemia?

A

RelativeAbsolute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is Relative Polycythemia?

A

Dehydration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Total Solids is best measured how?

A

Refractometer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Acute phase proteins? What are they turned on by?

A

Fibrinogen (LA!)HaptoglobinLiver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Total Solid Elevations occur due to?

A

DehydrationChronic InfectionsLeukemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Total Solids Decreases are due to?

A

Poor nutrition Liver DiseaseMalabsorptionDiahhreaPLN/PLEBurns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

If something is low, what are the most possible reasons?

A

Using LosingNot makingSequestering it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are 2 smallest proteins?

A

AlbuminAntithrombin III

53
Q

Why would you go into DIC with a nephropathy?

A

Antithrombin III leaks out and then you cant clot.

54
Q

PLE you tend to lose which proteins?Why?

A

Albumin & Globulins Leakier than nephrons

55
Q

Which proteins are lost in PLN?

A

Albumin Antithrombin III

56
Q

Elevations in both PCV and TS suggest?

A

Dehydration Polycythemia

57
Q

Elevated TS with low/low-normal PCV suggest?

A

Dehydration masking more severe anemia. PVC will tank once rehydrated!

58
Q

What is the difference between a Hct and PCV?

A

Hct is calculated PCV is measured

59
Q

Hemoglobin does what?

A

Carries O2 in g/dL

60
Q

How do you get PCV from Hgb?

61
Q

Leukogram relative values are?

62
Q

I promise I will never do what with a leukogram?

A

Read relative (%) values.

63
Q

What is the very best leukogram machine?

A

Flow cytometry

64
Q

Which machine is most inaccurate?

65
Q

How is Leukogram taken manually?

A

Hemocytometer

66
Q

TQ!!! What is a Stress leukogram?

A

Mature NeutrophiliaMonocytosis, Lymphopenia(sometimes Eosinopenia)

67
Q

What is Physiological Leukocytosis? Why?Who?

A

Neutrophilia & LymphocytosisCatecholamines/fearCATS!

68
Q

Corticosteroid Leukogram think what animal?

69
Q

What causes Extreme neutrophilic leukocytosis?

A

PyometraEhrlichiaHepatozoanosis (can be really high 154,000 neuts)FungusLeukemia >50,000

70
Q

What are the levels of leukocytosis in a leukemia?

71
Q

TQ! What will be on every DDX list ever!

A

EhrlichiaFungusNeoplasia

72
Q

Why mature neutrophilia in stress leukogram?

A

Body releases neutrophils (mature bc not infection)

73
Q

If all neutrophils are young and numbers are decreased what is this?

A

Degenerative Left Shift

74
Q

Why Lymphopenia in stress leukogram?

A

They’re marginated

75
Q

What causes Monocytosis?

A

Chronic InflammationNecrosisSteroids (stress leukogram),Neoplasia

76
Q

Why would there be an elevation in Mature Neutrophils?

A

Inflammation InfectionImmune Mediated DzStress - corticosteroidsFearNeoplasia

77
Q

Why would there be a decrease in Mature Neutrophils?

A

Overwhelming infection Overwhelming inflammationDestructionNeoplasiaBone Marrow Dz, (Dysfunction or Suppression)Cyclic Hematopoisis

78
Q

What is a Regenerative Left Shift? Is it a normal reaction? What cells will you see?

A

Neutrophil response to inflammation and are adequately responding to demand.YesThere are mature and immature cells.

79
Q

What is degenerative left shift? Is it a normal reaction?What cells are present?

A

Neutrophil production where release is not meeting the demand. Abnormal response. You will see bands but not mature/segmented neuts.

80
Q

What are lymphocytes? What are they markers for? Which cells are lymphocytes?

A

Circulating immune system cellsAntigenic stimulationB & T cells

81
Q

What do B cells produce?

A

Ab Cytokines

82
Q

What do T cells produce/do?

A

CytokinesAssist B cellsCan be cytotoxic/killerSpecialized duties

83
Q

What causes elevations in Lymphocytes?

A

Chronic inflammationESPECIALLY Rickettsial infections!!!!!,NeoplasiaCatecholaminesHYPOadrenocorticism - it’s a balance thing - absence of steroids

84
Q

What causes decreases in lymphocytes?

A

Steroids - suppress immune system cause marginationAcute inflammationEffusionsLymphoid Hyperplasia/aplasia

85
Q

What are Monocytes in the blood? What are they markers of?

A

Traveling to their designated site in tissue to become macrophages. Chronic inflammation

86
Q

Who shows up first neuts or monos?

A

Neuts ya twit!

87
Q

What type of cells are eosinophils and basophils?

A

Granulocytes

88
Q

What are eosinophils and basophils markers for?

A

Allergic and Parasitic DzsEosinophil dzs,Mast cell neoplasiaHYPOadrenocorticismNeoplasia

89
Q

Eosinopenia is caused by?

A

Steroids, Acute InflammationBone Marrow Dz

90
Q

Eosinophils and Mast cells share what?

A

Same Cytokines (IL5) turns them on!

91
Q

Who gets eosinophilic dzs?

A

Cats & Horses

92
Q

What is the stain for reticulocytes? What are you staining?

A

New Methylene BlueRNA Precipitates

93
Q

% retic based on what cell count?

94
Q

Two types of Feline Retics?

A

Aggregate & Punctate

95
Q

Which Feline Retics are newly released from marrow?

A

Aggregate (Lots of dots)

96
Q

What are aggregate retics specific from?

A

Bone Marrow Response

97
Q

What are Punctate Retics? How long do they circulate?

A

Mature aggregates7 days

98
Q

Corrected Reticulocyte % tells you what?

A

If it is regenerative enoughIf bone marrow is responding appropriately to the severity of the PCV.

99
Q

What is the absolute retic count for dogs?

100
Q

What is the absolute retic count for cats?

A

> 40,000 aggregates

101
Q

What % of corrected reticulocyte % (CRP) indicates regeneration in a dog?

102
Q

What % of corrected reticulocyte % (CRP) indicates regeneration in a cat?

103
Q

What is Retic Production Index?

A

CRP/lifespan of retics

104
Q

What is MCHC for all species with discoid RBCs?

105
Q

What is RDW?

A

Population spread

106
Q

Bimodal RDW signifies?

A

Regeneration

107
Q

MCV: Macrocytic RBCs signify?

A

Regeneration or you’re a poodle!

108
Q

MCV: Microcytic RBCs signify?

A

Fe deficiency PSS (Portal Systemic Shunt) Cu DeficiencyYou’re an Akita or Shibu Inu

109
Q

MCHC measures what?

A

[Average Hgb]

110
Q

MCHC: What does HYPOchromia signify?

A

Hemorrhage HemolysisFe Deficiency

111
Q

MCHC: What does HYPERchromia signify?

A

DOESN’T HAPPEN, if machine reads this think HEINZ BODIES look at your blood smear

112
Q

What do congenital PSS animals tend to have for RBC indicies?

A

Microcytic hypochromic

113
Q

What is fibrinogen? How long does it take to show up in blood after inflammation?

A

Acute Phase Protein24 - 72 hours

114
Q

TQ!!! Which species activate platelets easily?

A

CATS! Like Rough Stick!

115
Q

Which breed has larger platelets than others?

A

Cavalier King CharlesSometimes they even have less of them

116
Q

When can platelets be artificially decreased?

117
Q

Thrombocytopenia occurs due to?

A

Use itLose it,Don’t make itSequestration

118
Q

What size are young platelets?

119
Q

Thrombocytosis happens when?

A

RareCanine HYPERadrenocorticism

120
Q

Blood Smear: What changes morphology?

A

Regeneration Hgb contentMembrane compostitionStructural ProteinsOxidative Damage = Heinz bodiesFragmentationPlatelet Clumping

121
Q

Why do a smear?

A

Helps decide if regenerative

122
Q

On Blood Smear what would RBC with low Hb look like?

123
Q

Blood Smear: Heinz bodies happen due to?

A

Oxidative DamageDenatured HgbOnion ToxicityTylenol Toxicity

124
Q

Blood Smear: Agglutination occurs due to?

A

IMHARouleaux formation is NOT agglutination!

125
Q

How should you do Saline Dilution to decipher Rouleaux from Agglutination?

A

1/2 drop of blood with 4-5 drops of saline

126
Q

If bands are under 10,000 what scenario could their number be significant?

A

if > 10% total neuts

127
Q

QBC: Dark black line is?

128
Q

QBC: Thinner line is?

Pathology AH (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions