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DEA-1TT4 > deck1 > Flashcards

deck1 Flashcards

1
Q 
What is an accurate statement about Governance?
A. Restrict access to certain users
B. Ensure removal of security risks
C. Authorize policy-making decisions
D. Demonstrate adherence to polices
A

C. Authorize policy-making decisions

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2
Q 
An Ethernet switch has eight ports and all ports must be operational for 24 hours, from Monday through Friday. However, a failure of Port4 occurs as follows:
• Monday = 8 PM to 9 PM
• Wednesday 7 PM to 9 PM
• Thursday = 6 AM to 9 AM
• Saturday = 4 PM to 7 PM
What is the MTTR of Port 4?
A. 2 hours
B. 3 hours
C. 28 hours
D. 38 hours
A

A. 2 hours

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3
Q

What accurately describes an iSCSI HBA?
A. Performs both iSCSI and TCP/IP processing
B. Requires CPU cycles for TCP/IP processing
C. Requires a software adapter with built-in functionality
D. Enables transmission of data through iSCSI tunneling

A

A. Performs both iSCSI and TCP/IP processing

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4
Q

When using the erasure coding technique in an object-based storage system, data is divided into 12 data segments and 4 coding segments.
What is the maximum number of disk drive failures against which data is protected by the configuration?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 8
D. 12

A

A. 3

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5
Q

What is a key advantage of cloning a virtual machine (VM)?
A. Ability to run new VMs simultaneously with the same IP address.
B. Reduces the time required to create multiple copies of a VM.
C. Improves the performance of an existing VM and new VMs.
D. Eliminates the need to create multiple snapshots for a VM.

A

B. Reduces the time required to create multiple copies of a VM.

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6
Q

A company is using an intrusion detection and prevention system (IDPS) to scan and analyze intrusion events.
Which IDPS technique uses a database that contains known attack patterns?
A. Role-based
B. Profile-based
C. Signature-based
D. Anomaly-based

A

C. Signature-based

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7
Q

In an archiving environment, how is a content address created in a content addressable storage (CAS) system to store an object?
A. From the metadata of an object.
B. By using the logical address of the memory space.
C. From the binary representation of an object.
D. By using the physical address of the storage device.

A

D. By using the physical address of the storage device.

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8
Q

What is a benefit of link aggregation?
A. Optimizes fabric performance by distributing network traffic across ISLs.
B. Improves ISL utilization by increasing the network traffic on a specific ISL.
C. Yields a higher throughput by combining two parallel ISLs into a single physical ISL.
D. Saves bandwidth by restricting traffic to a specific potentially congested ISL.

A

A. Optimizes fabric performance by distributing network traffic across ISLs.

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9
Q

In a compute-based storage area network (SAN), what is a function of the metadata manager?
A. Holds cluster-wide mapping information and load balancing in a compute-based SAN.
B. Performs the I/O operations on the local storage of a compute system as requested by a client.
C. Provides an interface to the software-defined storage controller.
D. Controls all data read and write operations in a compute-based SAN.

A

A. Holds cluster-wide mapping information and load balancing in a compute-based SAN.

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10
Q

Why is it important for organizations to store, protect, and manage their data?
A. Reduce the amount of data to be replicated, migrated, and backed up.
B. Rapidly develop and deploy modern applications for business improvement.
C. Develop new business opportunities by leveraging existing data.
D. Reduce the complexity in managing the data center environment.

A

C. Develop new business opportunities by leveraging existing data.

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11
Q 
A Fibre Channel switch has eight ports and all ports must be operational 24x7. However, a failure of Port 5 occurs on a particular week as follows:
• Monday = 11 AM to 12 PM
• Thursday = 7 AM to 11 AM
• Saturday = 11 AM to 1 PM
What is the availability of Port 5 in that week?
A. 93%
B. 94.1%
C. 95.8%
D. 97%
A

C. 95.8%

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12
Q 
Which layer of the OSI model provides the functional and procedural methods to transfer data between network entities?
A. Data link
B. Presentation
C. Session
D. Application
A

A. Data link

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13
Q

What is an accurate statement about variable prefetching?
A. Many blocks that have recently been written to storage by the compute system are retrieved and placed in cache.
B. Many non-contiguous blocks that are not currently required can be retrieved from cache in advance.
C. Storage system prefetches data in multiples of the original I/O request size from the compute system.
D. Storage system prefetches many non-contiguous blocks of data, with varied sizes, from cache.

A

D. Storage system prefetches many non-contiguous blocks of data, with varied sizes, from cache.

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14
Q 
Which Dell EMC product is a hyper-scale storage infrastructure that provides universal accessibility with support for object and HDFS?
A. ViPR Controller
B. PowerMax
C. Isilon
D. Elastic Cloud Storage
A

D. Elastic Cloud Storage

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15
Q 
Which cloud deployment model allows provisioning of a cloud infrastructure only for use by a single organization having multiple consumers?
A. Public cloud
B. Multi-cloud
C. Hybrid cloud
D. Private cloud
A

D. Private cloud

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16
Q

A company plans to deploy a new application in their environment. The new application requires 2 TB of storage space. During peak workloads, the application is
expected to generate 4500 IOPS with a typical I/O size of 4 KB. The capacity of each available disk drive is 250 GB. In addition, the maximum number of IOPS a
drive can perform at with a 70% utilization is 90 IOPS.
What is the minimum number of disk drives needed to meet the application’s capacity and performance requirements for a RAID 0 configuration?
A. 8
B. 40
C. 50
D. 70

A

D. 70

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17
Q 
Which technology decouples the OS, applications, and user state from a physical compute system?
A. Application virtualization
B. Storage virtualization
C. Thin client virtualization
D. Desktop virtualization
A

D. Desktop virtualization

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18
Q

What is the goal of a business continuity solution?
A. Reduce the amount of investment in protecting an organization’s business-related data.
B. Avoid a disaster in a data protection environment to control the loss of data.
C. Ensure information availability that is required to conduct vital business operations.
D. Eliminate security threats in a data protection environment for continuous access to data.

A

C. Ensure information availability that is required to conduct vital business operations.

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19
Q

QUESTION 22
What is a function of the metadata service in an object-based storage device (OSD)?
A. Generates the file system namespace from the file contents.
B. Manages both physical and logical disks on which the user data is stored.
C. Manages the storage space for all remote clients.
D. Maintains the object IDs and file system namespace mappings.

A

D. Maintains the object IDs and file system namespace mappings.

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20
Q

What accurately describes virtual SAN (VSAN) trunking?
A. Reduces the utilization of ISLs by removing all the ISLs configured between the FC switches.
B. Increases the number of E_ports used for the ISLs to transfer multiple VSAN traffic.
C. Increases the complexity of managing the FC SAN with an increase in the number of ISLs.
D. Reduces the number of ISLs between switches that are configured with multiple VSANs.

A

D. Reduces the number of ISLs between switches that are configured with multiple VSANs.

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21
Q 
What does an area ID represent in Fibre Channel (FC) addressing?
A. Group of switch ports
B. Switch within a group
C. Port within a group
D. Group of switches
A

C. Port within a group

22
Q

Which functionality does a Control layer provide in a software-defined networking architecture?
A. Defining the network behavior through various policies.
B. Making decisions on how the packets should be forwarded.
C. Establishing communications between the Infrastructure and Interface layers.
D. Forwarding data packets based on the requirements from the Application layer.

A

C. Establishing communications between the Infrastructure and Interface layers.

23
Q

What accurately describes an Incident in a storage infrastructure?
A. Unknown root cause of one or more disruptions to service.
B. Any event that may lead to the disruption of a service.
C. Support request to help access an IT resource.
D. Any event that may create a change in correcting a known error.

A

A. Unknown root cause of one or more disruptions to service.

24
Q

What accurately describes the scale-out storage architecture?
A. Scales the capacity only within a single storage system.
B. Provides a fixed capacity ceiling that limits scalability beyond a storage system.
C. Provides the capability to maximize its capacity by adding nodes to the cluster.
D. Restricts scalability to the limits of the storage controllers.

A

C. Provides the capability to maximize its capacity by adding nodes to the cluster.

25
Q 
QUESTION 31
Which technology combines NAND flash memory into a hard disk drive and is a single, integrated device incorporating both types of storage?
A. Solid-state drive
B. Dual drive
C. Fibre Channel drive
D. Solid-state hybrid drive
A

D. Solid-state hybrid drive

26
Q 
Winch Dell EMC product creates a server and IP-based SAN from direct-attached server storage to deliver flexible and scalable performance and capacity on
demand?
A. PowerMax
B. VxFlex OS
C. ViPR Controller
D. XtremIO
A

B. VxFlex OS

27
Q 
Which Internet of Things (IoT) component is responsible for the automation of operations by applying a force based on the dynamics of data?
A. Actuator
B. Switch
C. Sensor
D. Gateway
A

C. Sensor

28
Q

In an FCoE switch, which function is provided by the Fibre Channel Forwarder (FCF)?
A. Communication bridge between CEE and IP networks
B. Communication bridge between FC and FCIP networks
C. Communication bridge between CEE and FCIP networks
D. Communication bridge between CEE and FC networks

A

B. Communication bridge between FC and FCIP networks

29
Q 
Which technology is used in the media and entertainment industry to enable content-based search activity and to create video subtitles using natural language
processing?
A. Machine learning
B. Social networking
C. Cloud computing
D. Internet of Things
A

A. Machine learning

30
Q

Why are organizations moving towards a modern data center implementation?
A. Develop modern applications in the public cloud without having the right skill set in-house.
B. Ability to be agile, operate in real time, and develop intelligent products.
C. Deploy only unified and converged IT resources to reduce the management complexity.
D. Reduce the cost of managing data center components by using a self-service catalog.

A

C. Deploy only unified and converged IT resources to reduce the management complexity.

31
Q 
What is a key objective to performing continuous replication?
A. Avoid performing data archiving.
B. Reduce the RPO to near-zero.
C. Reduce the deduplication ratio.
D. Avoid performing data backups.
A

D. Avoid performing data backups.

32
Q

What accurately describes a shared pool in virtual provisioning?
A. Should contain only homogeneous disk drive types.
B. Supports a single RAID protection level.
C. Consists of only a virtual storage volume.
D. Should contain only physical drives with different sizes.

A

B. Supports a single RAID protection level.

33
Q 
Which data archiving component scans primary storage to find the files that meet the archiving policy?
A. Archive storage
B. Archive database server
C. Archive agent
D. Archive stub file
A

A. Archive storage

34
Q 
In the event of a disk failure, which RAID level enables quick data reconstruction?
A. RAID 3
B. RAID 5
C. RAID 6
D. RAID 10
A

C. RAID 6

35
Q

What is an advantage of implementing file-level virtualization in a data center environment?
A. Provides non-disruptive file mobility across NAS devices.
B. Allows users the ability to only use a physical path to access files.
C. Provides the capability to access files from any device.
D. Provides dynamic distribution of files across NAS clients.

A

A. Provides non-disruptive file mobility across NAS devices.

36
Q 
Which product delivers virtualized or hosted desktops and applications through a single platform?
A. VMware Horizon
B. Dell EMC VxRail Appliance
C. VMware NSX
D. Dell PowerEdge servers
A

A. VMware Horizon

37
Q 
Which product provides an organization with the power to search and analyze vast amounts of data in one place and helps administrators to discover suspicious
event trends?
A. Dell InTrust
B. Dell Change Auditor
C. VMware AppDefense
D. VMware AirWatch
A

A. Dell InTrust

38
Q

A company’s Finance department needs 200 GB of storage for their business applications. A LUN is created with 200 GB and RAID 1 is configured to support the
applications. If the cost of storage per GB is $2, what is the chargeback cost to the department for application storage?
A. $ 200
B. $ 400
C. $ 800
D. $ 1500

A

C. $ 800

39
Q

What is an example of a Performance Management task?
A. Selecting an appropriate RAID type for a storage pool.
B. Removing unused resources from a service and reassigning them to another.
C. Scanning applications and databases to identify vulnerabilities.
D. Planning and architecting data backup and replication solutions

A

B. Removing unused resources from a service and reassigning them to another.

40
Q

A backup administrator has defined a backup policy. The policy requires full backups to be performed at 10 PM every Sunday and incremental backups performed
at 10 PM the remaining days. If files were accidentally deleted Wednesday morning, how many backup copies are required to restore the files?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

A

A. 2

41
Q 
Which file system uses a MapReduce framework to run applications and a NameNode for managing the file system?
A. New Technology File System (NTFS)
B. Hadoop Distributed File System (HDFS)
C. Network File System (NFS)
D. Common Internet File System (CIFS)
A

B. Hadoop Distributed File System (HDFS)

42
Q

When using a bridged iSCSI connection, which components facilitate communication between gateways?
A. Compute system with iSCSI ports and the storage system with Ethernet ports.
B. Compute system with iSCSI ports and the storage system with only FC ports.
C. Compute system with FC HBA ports and the storage system with only FC ports.
D. Compute system with FCoE ports and the storage system with iSCSI ports.

A

D. Compute system with FCoE ports and the storage system with iSCSI ports.

43
Q

What accurately describes hypervisor-based continuous data protection?
A. Virtual appliance is running on a hypervisor.
B. Journal is stored in a virtual machine.
C. Virtual appliance runs on a storage system.
D. Replica volumes are created in the hypervisor.

A

A. Virtual appliance is running on a hypervisor

44
Q

When implementing a full mesh topology in a Fibre Channel (FC) SAN environment, what is the effect when there is an increase in the number of switches?
A. Reduces the available node ports for ISL connectivity.
B. Increases the load on the ISLs due to traffic aggregation.
C. Increases the hop count for compute to storage traffic.
D. Reduces the available switch ports for node connectivity.

A

D. Reduces the available switch ports for node connectivity.

45
Q

What is an accurate statement about stretched VLANs?
A. Reduces network bandwidth requirements during VM migration across sites.
B. Requires a change in the VMs’ IP addresses to match the addressing scheme at the other sites.
C. Enables automatic modification of VLAN addresses during VM migration across sites.
D. Supports migration of VMs across sites without the need to change their network configurations.

A

A. Reduces network bandwidth requirements during VM migration across sites.

46
Q

A consumer is interested in a service that provides multiple operating systems and programming frameworks for application development and deployment.
Which recommended cloud service model will meet these requirements?
A. Storage as a Service
B. Platform as a Service
C. Infrastructure as a Service
D. Software as a Service

A

B. Platform as a Service

47
Q 
Which Dell EMC product enables continuous protection for any PIT recovery and offers multi-site support?
A. RecoverPoint
B. Avamar
C. SourceOne
D. SRDF
A

A. RecoverPoint

48
Q

What accurately describes a software-defined architecture?
A. Supports only central management of private cloud resources using a pre-defined policy.
B. Provides a unified management platform for centralized monitoring and administration.
C. Uses only converged and hyperconverged infrastructures to offer services to companies.
D. Provides decentralized, manual, and policy-driven IT resource management.

A

B. Provides a unified management platform for centralized monitoring and administration.

49
Q

What is an advantage of deploying a purpose-built, disk-based backup appliance in a data center environment?
A. Eliminate the need for performing source-based deduplication.
B. Convert the capital expenditure to an operational expenditure.
C. Lower the recovery time objective of an organization.
D. Retain the fixed content for longer periods in the data center

A

C. Lower the recovery time objective of an organization.

50
Q

What is a key advantage of implementing FCIP?
A. Provides a disaster recovery solution by replicating data across data centers.
B. Enables migration of VMs across data centers by using existing FC networks.
C. Ensures lossless transmission of FC traffic across data centers over Ethernet.
D. Provides a dedicated network for transmission of storage traffic within a data center.

A

A. Provides a disaster recovery solution by replicating data across data centers.

51
Q

If a company has experienced a passive attack on its IT infrastructure, how is the company’s security impacted?
A. Access to services is denied.
B. Availability of data is affected.
C. Information privacy is compromised.
D. Data is altered by an unauthorized user.

A

D. Data is altered by an unauthorized user.

52
Q

A company is planning to perform a cloud-based backup. They want to send their data over a public network to a cloud backup device.
Which security control mechanism helps to protect the data from an attacker?
A. Multi-factor authentication
B. Demilitarized zone
C. Data shredding
D. Encryption

A

D. Encryption

DEA-1TT4 (1 decks)

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