Deck 3 Module 31 Flashcards

1
Q

After a mammogram, a client is told that she needs a fine needle aspirate of a breast mass. Which action by the client demonstrates engagement in a primary appraisal of the stressful situation?
A) Holding her breath while the nurse is talking
B) Sitting in the dressing room crying
C) Asking the nurse if she has cancer
D) Scheduling the procedure in 6 weeks, which is the earliest possible appointment

A

C) Asking the nurse if she has cancer

Rationale:

In primary appraisal, the client assesses the potential for benefit, harm, loss, threat, or challenge in a situation. The client asking the nurse if she has cancer is engaging in a primary appraisal. The client holding her breath while the nurse is talking is evaluating coping resources and options. This is a secondary appraisal. The client who sits in the dressing room and cries is applying a coping resource. This is coping. The client who schedules the procedure at the earliest possible appointment is engaging in reappraisal, which is an ongoing reinterpretation of the situation based on new information.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
A client states to the nurse that learning how to use the blood glucose machine will have to wait until holiday events are planned. Which cognitive indication of stress is the client demonstrating?
A) Problem solving
B) Suppression
C) Self-control
D) Cognitive structuring
A

B) Suppression

Rationale:

The client is demonstrating suppression, which is the conscious process of denying unacceptable thoughts or emotions. The client is focusing on other needs and not the need to learn how to use the blood glucose machine. Problem solving involves thinking through a challenging situation, using specific steps to arrive at a solution. Cognitive structuring uses mental processes to make sense of environmental stimuli. Self-control is the ability to restrain oneself from acting on impulse or to act in such a way as to delay gratification.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
) A client worries every day about personal health and states, "I may not have enough medication if the weather takes a turn for the worse." This client is exhibiting a sign of which alteration in stress and coping?
A) Generalized anxiety disorder
B) Phobia
C) Obsessive-compulsive disorder
D) Panic disorder
A

A) Generalized anxiety disorder

Rationale:

Generalized anxiety disorder is excessive worry about everyday problems, with the anxiety being more intense than the situation warrants. The client is demonstrating signs of generalized anxiety disorder. A phobia is an intense, persistent, irrational fear of a simple thing or social situation that compels the individual to avoid the stressor that elicits the fear. Panic disorder is a sudden attack of terror, accompanied by a pounding heart, sweatiness, weakness, faintness, or dizziness. Obsessive-compulsive disorder is characterized by obsessive thoughts and compulsive repetitive behaviors formed in response to the obsessive thoughts to lower the level of anxiety experienced.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
Which assessment findings indicate to the nurse that a client is experiencing stress? Select all that apply.
A) Chewing on a fingernail
B) Checking cellular phone
C) Reading a magazine
D) Talking with others
E) Tapping foot
A

A) Chewing on a fingernail
E) Tapping foot

Rationale:

The client is experiencing both behavioral (nail chewing) and physical (foot tapping) indications of stress. Reading a magazine, checking a phone, and talking with others are not indications of stress.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

A client complains about the stress of having to work long hours and missing daily exercise routines. Which response by the nurse is appropriate?
A) “There are other ways to reduce stress, such as meditation.”
B) “Exercise helps reduce the impact of stress on the body and would be a good thing.”
C) “Drinking a small glass of wine each day does help reduce stress.”
D) “Maybe exercising, with all of the work, would be too much for your body anyway.”

A

B) “Exercise helps reduce the impact of stress on the body and would be a good thing.”

Rationale:

The client had been exercising but has not been recently because of additional work, which is causing stress. The nurse should encourage the client to resume daily exercise to reduce the impact of the stress on the body. The nurse should not reinforce the client’s not exercising. Meditation might be beneficial, but because the client mentioned initially exercising and not meditating, this suggestion is not as appropriate in addressing the client’s needs. The nurse should not suggest using alcohol to deal with stress.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which intervention would help a client who is demonstrating stress about being hospitalized who is concerned about the needs of the children at home?
A) Ask the client if there is anything that is needed once discharged to home.
B) Ask the client if there is anyone who would be able to help with the family needs at home during recuperation.
C) Find out if the children can be sent to a grandparent’s home until the client fully recovers.
D) Suggest the client be transferred to a long-term care facility to ensure a full recovery.

A

B) Ask the client if there is anyone who would be able to help with the family needs at home during recuperation.

Rationale:

The nurse needs to focus on what can be done right away to help the client. The best way that the nurse can help this client is to ask if there is anyone who can help the client at home. Transferring the client to a long-term care facility will not help the client with the stress of caring for a family at home. Sending the children to a grandparent’s home might not work if the children are in school and the grandparent lives far away. Asking the client if there is anything that is needed once discharged is not enough. The nurse needs to do something else.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which instruction by the nurse to a client prescribed diazepam (Valium) for anxiety and stress is appropriate?
A) “This medication will be good to take for a long time.”
B) “Take this medication every time feelings of stress become overwhelming.”
C) “This medication works best if taken with a meal.”
D) “This medication is good to use for the short term only.”

A

D) “This medication is good to use for the short term only.”

Rationale:

Diazepam (Valium) is a benzodiazepine that is typically used for short-term treatment during an acute phase of an anxiety disorder. It may be effective in quickly lowering the severity of a client’s anxiety but is generally not recommended for use beyond a few weeks because of its addictive properties. The nurse should instruct the client that the medication is good to use for the short term only. There is no indication that this medication needs to be taken with a meal. Instructing the client to take the medication every time feelings of stress become overwhelming could lead to an overdose and should not be done.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

A client is recently prescribed risperidone (Risperdal) by the healthcare provider. Which would be a priority nursing consideration for this client?
A) Assess blood pressure and heart rate.
B) Monitor for increased agitation.
C) Assess for drowsiness.
D) Monitor for neuroleptic malignant syndrome.

A

D) Monitor for neuroleptic malignant syndrome.

Rationale:

Monitoring for neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a priority nursing consideration for a client taking risperidone (Risperdal). The nurse must monitor for signs and symptoms of neuroleptic malignant syndrome and tardive dyskinesia and immediately report signs and symptoms of these conditions. Monitoring for increased agitation and assessing for drowsiness are nursing considerations for clients taking Risperdal, but they are not the priority diagnosis. Assessing blood pressure and heart rate would be a priority nursing consideration for the client taking Inderal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
A nurse on the behavioral health unit is caring for a client diagnosed with depression who just lost a spouse in a motor vehicle crash. The client states to the nurse, "My wife would not have wanted to live if she were disabled." Based on this statement, which defense mechanism is the client using?
A) Identification
B) Denial
C) Intellectualization
D) Displacement
A

C) Intellectualization

Rationale:

Intellectualization is a mechanism by which an emotional response that normally would accompany an uncomfortable or painful incident is evaded by the use of rational explanations that remove from the incident any personal significance and feelings. Identification is an attempt to manage anxiety by imitating the behavior of someone feared or respected. Denial is an attempt to screen or ignore unacceptable realities by refusing to acknowledge them. Displacement is the transferring or discharging of emotional reactions from one object or individual to another object or individual.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
Which hormone is one of the primary mediators of stress?
A) Glucagon
B) Cortisol
C) Serotonin
D) Somatostatin
A

B) Cortisol

Rationale:

The two primary stress mediators are glucocorticoids (e.g., cortisol) and catecholamines (e.g., epinephrine). Serotonin is a neurotransmitter that is involved in some mood and anxiety disorders, but it is not a primary mediator of stress. Somatostatin is a hormone released by the pituitary gland. It is not involved in the stress response. Glucagon is secreted by the pancreas to increase blood glucose levels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
Occupation-specific stressors that are ongoing and unmanaged can lead to what extreme form of stress?
A) Distress
B) Eustress
C) Allostasis
D) Burnout
A

D) Burnout

Rationale:

Eustress is good stress that leads to accomplishment and victory. Distress is bad stress that is associated with inadequacy, insecurity, and loss. Although occupation-specific stressors can be a type of distress, distress is not the specific term for the extreme form of stress caused by ongoing and unmanaged stress. The term used for that form of extreme stress is burnout. Burnout in nurses can lead to reduced quality of care and decreased patient satisfaction. Allostasis refers to the changes necessary to achieve homeostasis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
Which intervention can the nurse implement independently when caring for a client with alterations in stress and coping?
A) Therapeutic communication
B) Cognitive-behavioral therapy
C) Psychotherapy
D) Administration of medications
A

A) Therapeutic communication

Rationale:

Using therapeutic communication is an essential intervention that the nurse can implement independently when caring for a client with an alteration in stress and coping. Cognitive-behavioral therapy, psychotherapy, and administration of medications are all collaborative interventions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which child would the nurse recognize as being at the highest risk of experiencing toxic stress?
A) A 15-year-old adolescent who is slightly overweight and didn’t make the football team; he regularly gets teased for his weight at school.
B) A 2-week-old infant who was born at 31 weeks’ gestation and has been in the neonatal intensive care unit (NICU) for the entire 2 weeks; the child’s parents are at the hospital as often as possible.
C) A 12-year-old child whose father recently died and whose mother works three part-time jobs; this child is expected to care for two younger siblings after school.
D) A 4-year-old child who attends preschool or daycare each day while the parents work; the child displays signs of mild separation anxiety.

A

C) A 12-year-old child whose father recently died and whose mother works three part-time jobs; this child is expected to care for two younger siblings after school.

Rationale:

The 4-year-old child and 15-year-old adolescent are experiencing normative stressors, which do not usually lead to toxic stress. The 2-week-old infant may be experiencing non-normative stress, but the infant is receiving appropriate adult support and is likely too young to be cognitively aware of stressors. The 12-year-old child has experienced a non-normative stressor in the death of the father, and the child does not have adequate adult support. This places the child at high risk for toxic stress.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The nurse is assessing a 68-year-old client who appears disheveled. At previous appointments, the client was well kept with good hygiene practices. Today, the client’s clothes do not match, the client’s hair is unkempt, and the client has intense body odor. The nurse is concerned about this change in self-care. When conducting the assessment, what is the primary factor the nurse should consider?
A) Whether the changes are due to a lack of understanding of technology
B) Whether the changes are due to stress or dementia
C) Whether the client is taking all medications as prescribed
D) Whether the client is living independently

A

B) Whether the changes are due to stress or dementia

Rationale:

In older clients, changes in self-care habits are frequently in response to stress, but they could also be related to dementia and an inability to remember how to use basic grooming tools. The nurse needs to determine the cause of the self-care changes. A lack of understanding of technology and living independently could be causes of stress, and forgetting to take medications could be a sign of dementia, so these are secondary considerations after determining whether the changes are due to stress or dementia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
A client, who is experiencing anxiety, is trembling and complaining of dizziness and palpitations. The client is having a hard time following the nurse's instructions. Based on this data, which level of anxiety is the client likely experiencing?
A) Panic
B) Severe
C) Moderate
D) Mild
A

B) Severe

Rationale:

Severe anxiety can be associated with trembling, dizziness, palpitations, and difficulty following directions, among other signs and symptoms. Mild anxiety causes an increase in alertness and sensory perception. Moderate anxiety results in a reduction in awareness and increased restlessness and irritability. Panic is associated with dilated pupils, pallor, diaphoresis, and bizarre behavior.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

A client, who was recently laid off from work, is scheduled for a biopsy to evaluate a site for malignancy. When planning this client’s care, which does the nurse include?
A) Reasons to delay the biopsy
B) Medicate around the clock for pain
C) Interventions to address anxiety
D) Social services to aid with financial planning

A

C) Interventions to address anxiety

Rationale:

Risk factors for anxiety disorders include multiple stressors such as an illness occurring with a change in employment. The nurse should plan interventions to address anxiety. Social services may or may not be needed for the client’s financial planning. Delaying the biopsy will not help reduce anxiety. There is no evidence to suggest the client is experiencing pain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The nurse is evaluating medication teaching for a client who recently started taking fluoxetine (Prozac) for anxiety. Which statement by the client indicates appropriate understanding of the information presented?
A) “My medication will take 1 week to become effective.”
B) “My medication will take 4 weeks to become effective.”
C) “My medication will become effective immediately after I start taking it.”
D) “My medication will not begin to work for 12 weeks.”

A

B) “My medication will take 4 weeks to become effective.”

Rationale:

Fluoxetine (Prozac) is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). Although these drugs begin to alter brain chemistry after the first dose, their full effect requires a few weeks because a series of neurobiological changes must take place before SSRIs achieve efficacy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
The nurse is instructing a client with an anxiety disorder on behavioral tools to help with coping. Which tools to help with coping should the nurse include in the teaching session? Select all that apply.
A) Relaxation techniques
B) Thought stopping
C) Journaling
D) Distraction
E) Practicing yoga
A

A) Relaxation techniques
C) Journaling
E) Practicing yoga

Rationale:

Behavioral tools to help with coping include relaxation techniques, yoga, and journaling stressors and emotional responses and alternatives. Thought stopping and distraction are cognitive coping tools.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which is the priority nursing action when providing care to a client who demonstrates signs of escalating anxiety?
A) Isolate the client in a safe, quiet, and protective environment.
B) Leave the client alone in a room.
C) Provide a benzodiazepine.
D) Phone the physician.

A

A) Isolate the client in a safe, quiet, and protective environment.

Rationale:

The nurse should first isolate the severely anxious or panicked client in a safe, quiet, protective environment. The nurse should not leave the client unattended. Phoning the physician may not be helpful to the client. Medications can be provided once the client is in a safe, protective environment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
The nurse is admitting a client suffering a panic attack to the behavioral health unit. Which clinical manifestations would indicate that the client's anxiety is at a panic level of severity? Select all that apply.
A) Inability to focus
B) Dilated pupils
C) Feelings of doom
D) Self-absorption
E) Rapid speech
A

A) Inability to focus
B) Dilated pupils
C) Feelings of doom

Rationale:

An inability to focus, dilated pupils, and a feeling of doom are clinical manifestations that a client could experience at the panic level of severity of anxiety. Self-absorption and rapid speech could indicate that a client is experiencing anxiety at a moderate level of severity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

A nurse on the behavioral health unit is leading a group regarding risk factors for anxiety. At the completion of group work, which comment made by a client would indicate the need for further teaching?
A) “A lack of social interaction places me at risk for anxiety.”
B) “My personality could place me at risk for anxiety because I am shy.”
C) “Chronic illness is not a risk factor unless I am also unemployed.”
D) “I experienced a traumatic event that placed me at risk for having this anxiety disorder.”

A

C) “Chronic illness is not a risk factor unless I am also unemployed.”

Rationale:

Chronic illness is a risk factor for anxiety disorders with or without the unemployment factor. For some clients multiple stressors, such as chronic illness with loss of employment, are risk factors. So this statement indicates a need for further teaching. The other statements are accurate and therefore do not require further teaching.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The nurse is discharging a client diagnosed with general anxiety disorder (GAD). The client is prescribed a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). Which statement made by the client would indicate to the nurse a need for further education?
A) “This medicine could make me feel like I have the jitters.”
B) “I may experience some nausea while on this medication.”
C) “My doctor will start me off on a high dose and then decrease the dose.”
D) “This medicine alters the levels of the neurotransmitter serotonin in the brain.”

A

C) “My doctor will start me off on a high dose and then decrease the dose.”

Rationale:

SSRIs are generally started at low doses and then increased as their effectiveness becomes apparent; therefore, this statement made by the client is inaccurate and indicates a lack of understanding and the need for further teaching. The other statements are accurate so do not require further teaching.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q
A client states, "I haven't left my house for 6 years." Based on this data, which diagnosis does the nurse anticipate for this client?
A) Hematophobia
B) Social anxiety disorder
C) Pathophobia
D) Agoraphobia
A

D) Agoraphobia

Rationale:

Agoraphobia is characterized by anxiety associated with two or more of the following situations: being in enclosed spaces, being in open spaces, using public transportation, being in a crowd or standing in a line of people, or being alone outside the home environment. Social anxiety disorder is a fear of one or more social situations that may lead to scrutiny by others. Hematophobia is the fear of blood. Pathophobia is the fear of disease.

24
Q

A client states to the nurse, “I experience shortness of breath and dizziness every time I get into an elevator.” Which actions by the nurse are appropriate based on this data? Select all that apply.
A) Assist the client to rethink the degree of anxiety associated with elevators.
B) Ask the client how he has survived in life so far with elevators.
C) Instruct the client in deep breathing exercises.
D) Suggest that the client should avoid elevators.
E) Tell the client that elevators are completely safe.

A

A) Assist the client to rethink the degree of anxiety associated with elevators.
C) Instruct the client in deep breathing exercises.

Rationale:

Deep breathing exercises can help the client reduce the anxiety associated with a fearful situation, such as entering an elevator. Assisting the client to rethink the degree of anxiety associated with elevators helps the client learn to manage the anxiety. Suggesting that the client avoid elevators will not help the client. Asking the client how he has survived in life so far with elevators will not help the situation. Telling the client that elevators are completely safe might not be true and should not be said to the client.

25
Q
Free-floating anxiety is often connected to what stimulus?
A) Elevators
B) Airplanes
C) No specific stimulus
D) Water
A

C) No specific stimulus

Rationale:

Free-floating anxiety is characterized by excessive worry that is hard to control and whose focus may shift from moment to moment. Free-floating anxiety is anxiety that is not connected to a specific stimulus. Anxiety caused by elevators, airplanes, and water is linked to a specific stimulus.

26
Q
A client tells a nurse that he believes he has an anxiety disorder because his mom and sister both have anxiety disorders. The nurse recognizes that the client believes in which theory related to the etiology of anxiety disorders?
A) Neurochemical theories
B) Neurobiological theories
C) Genetic theories
D) Humanistic theories
A

C) Genetic theories

Rationale:

Genetic theories state that genetic predisposition plays a part in the development of anxiety disorders, with first-order family members being at higher risk of developing an anxiety disorder. Humanistic theories state that multiple factors contribute to the development of anxiety disorders. Neurochemical theories state that anxiety disorders are related to a disruption in neurotransmitter regulation. Neurobiological theories state that anxiety disorders are related to specific areas of the brain.

27
Q
A client with what level of anxiety would be most receptive to learning tools that would help the client recognize triggers?
A) Mild
B) Moderate
C) Severe
D) Panic
A

A) Mild

Rationale:

Clients with mild anxiety would be able to learn about how to recognize triggers. Clients with higher levels of anxiety may be unable to learn new tools and would first need other interventions to help reduce their level of anxiety before they could learn how to recognize triggers for anxiety.

28
Q

A nurse is providing care to a woman who recently got married and would like to try to become pregnant. The woman has been on an antianxiety medication, paroxetine (Paxil), for the past year. The woman feels that she needs to continue receiving treatment for anxiety, especially if she gets pregnant. What information should the nurse provide regarding treatment options during pregnancy?
A) The woman should consider switching to a different SSRI such as fluoxetine (Prozac).
B) The woman should consider switching to cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) rather than medication.
C) The woman should consider stopping all medications immediately.
D) The woman should consider gradually decreasing medication until she finds out she is pregnant.

A

B) The woman should consider switching to cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) rather than medication.

Rationale:

For women who are pregnant or trying to become pregnant, nonpharmacologic therapies such as CBT and relaxation techniques are the safest for reducing anxiety and preventing harm to the fetus. The woman should not stop all treatment immediately. When stopping medication, the medication should be tapered off, but this should continue even after she finds out she is pregnant, not until she finds out she is pregnant. If she changes to a different SSRI, she should change to sertraline (Zoloft), which does not have the same risk of birth defects as paroxetine or fluoxetine.

29
Q

A 72-year-old client presents to the clinic with complaints of restlessness, muscle tension, and increased perspiration. Her vital signs are P 112, R 23, BP 131/85, and T 97.8°F. The nurse recognizes these manifestations as signs and symptoms of moderate anxiety. However, the client reports that she does not feel anxious about anything and has never before been diagnosed with an anxiety disorder. What other factor must the nurse consider based on this client’s age?
A) These manifestations could instead be related to a medical illness.
B) These manifestations could be related to an overdose of antianxiety medications.
C) These manifestations could indicate a change in the client’s cognitive functioning.
D) These manifestations could be related to drug-drug interactions between selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) and other medications.

A

A) These manifestations could instead be related to a medical illness.

Rationale:

The scenario indicates that the client has not been previously diagnosed with an anxiety disorder, so these symptoms are not likely due to an overdose of antianxiety medications or drug-drug interactions between SSRIs and other medications. The client also does not present with symptoms that indicate cognitive function is declining. The most likely explanation is that these symptoms are related to a medical illness other than anxiety, because manifestations of anxiety often overlap with manifestations of other medical illnesses in older adults.

30
Q

The nurse is providing care to a client who is “in crisis.” The client recently lost a job, was served with divorce papers, and has been sick with back-to-back colds for 1 month. Which nursing statement demonstrates understanding of the care of a client in crisis?
A) “Experiencing a crisis is never positive, so we must work to relieve your anxiety as soon as possible.”
B) “People generally find it easier to work through a crisis if someone is working with them.”
C) “Men often handle crisis better individually, whereas women do better with a counselor.”
D) “Once you reach the crisis state, you may remain there for several months until you recover.”

A

B) “People generally find it easier to work through a crisis if someone is working with them.”

Rationale:

In general, people are more successful in working through a crisis if they have someone to help them. This need for help is not gender dependent. A crisis results in such a state of disequilibrium that it is generally self-limiting and not a long-term event. Experiencing a crisis may actually offer the family or individual a potential for growth and change.

31
Q

After an assessment, the nurse determines that an older adolescent client is experiencing a maturational crisis because of which findings? Select all that apply.
A) Relationship with significant other ended
B) Inability to focus on school studies
C) Cannot sleep at night and skips classes
D) Recent death of a friend
E) Graduating from high school in 2 months

A

B) Inability to focus on school studies
C) Cannot sleep at night and skips classes
E) Graduating from high school in 2 months

Rationale:

Senior year is a transition to work or college. This is a developmental progression to the next level of maturity, a predictable event experienced by nearly all individuals. The client is demonstrating stressors unique to progressing to the next level of maturity. The recent death of a friend and having a relationship with a significant other end are situational crises.

32
Q
Which nursing diagnosis would be a priority for a client who is experiencing a situational crisis?
A) Ineffective Coping
B) Ineffective Activity Planning
C) Readiness for Enhanced Communication
D) Chronic Low Self-Esteem
A

A) Ineffective Coping

Rationale:

Ineffective Coping is a common nursing diagnosis for clients in crisis. Ineffective activity planning would likely be the result of ineffective coping strategies. Clients will not be ready for enhanced communication until they have begun to effectively cope with the crisis. Situational crisis is an acute event that is not the result of chronic low self-esteem.

33
Q

The nurse needs to plan interventions to address a client’s crisis. Which action by the nurse is appropriate?
A) Develop the plan prior to meeting with the client.
B) Conduct a complete assessment.
C) Determine follow-up.
D) Focus on long-term problems.

A

B) Conduct a complete assessment.

Rationale:

Nursing care is based on assessment. Thus, a plan cannot be developed prior to meeting with the client. The time frame, whether short term or long term, and the need for follow-up will be determined by the findings of the assessment.

34
Q
The nurse is beginning crisis counseling with a client. What actions will the nurse use when counseling the client? Select all that apply.
A) Assist in coping with the problem.
B) Conduct follow-up assessments.
C) Boil down the problem.
D) Achieve rapport.
E) Assess physiologic status.
A

A) Assist in coping with the problem.
C) Boil down the problem.
D) Achieve rapport.

Rationale:

When conducting crisis counseling with a client, the nurse will achieve rapport, boil down the problem, and assist the client in coping with the problem. Assessing physiologic status and conducting follow-up assessments are not steps within crisis counseling.

35
Q
A nurse is caring for a client in crisis. While providing care it is imperative that the nurse communicate effectively with this client. Which is true when communicating with clients in crisis? Select all that apply.
A) Communication should be frequent.
B) Communication should be brief.
C) Communication should be simple.
D) Communication should be detailed.
E) Communication should be directive.
A

A) Communication should be frequent.
B) Communication should be brief.
C) Communication should be simple.
E) Communication should be directive.

Rationale:

Communicating with individuals in crisis requires frequent, brief, simple, and often directive communication. Biologically speaking, the brain of the individual in crisis is in the process of being bombarded with electrochemical reactions. Concentration and the ability to remember and retain information can be impaired.

36
Q
A clinic nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing crisis. The nurse needs to determine the client's immediate needs. Which is the priority action by the nurse?
A) Scan for physical distress.
B) Explore perceptions of the crisis.
C) Develop a follow-up plan.
D) Assess for immediate safety needs.
A

D) Assess for immediate safety needs.

Rationale:

Assessing for immediate safety needs would take priority. Scanning for physical distress and exploring perceptions of the crisis are important, but do not take priority over safety. Developing a follow-up plan would occur only after other interventions have been implemented.

37
Q

The nurse is providing care to a client who is experiencing a crisis. Which statement by the client indicates that the goals of care have not been met?
A) “I came up with some ideas on how to cope when I am in this position.”
B) “I feel like I am in control and can begin managing things now.”
C) “I am not sure whom I am going to call when I start feeling like this again.”
D) “I can deal with this, I am a strong person, and I have a lot of friends and family.”

A

C) “I am not sure whom I am going to call when I start feeling like this again.”

Rationale:

The client who is unsure of whom to call in a crisis has not met goals yet. The other statements demonstrate a good understanding of managing a crisis.

38
Q

Which of these is an accurate description of a crisis?
A) An acute event that is detrimental
B) A chronic event that is intermittent
C) A chronic event that is consistent and ongoing
D) An acute event that will resolve

A

D) An acute event that will resolve

Rationale:

A crisis is an acute event, not a chronic event. Crises usually resolve within 4-6 weeks. A crisis can provide opportunities for growth or deterioration, so not all crises are detrimental.

39
Q
A client who has just experienced a crisis is likely to present to the emergency department with which clinical manifestation?
A) Depression
B) Disorientation
C) Fatigue
D) Sleeplessness
A

B) Disorientation

Rationale:

Immediately after experiencing a crisis, the client is likely to present with disorientation. The client likely will not yet be feeling fatigue or sleeplessness immediately after the event, although they may experience these symptoms over the next few days. Depression is a chronic condition that develops over time, not as the immediate result of a crisis.

40
Q
What characteristic is essential for individuals to adapt to crisis in a positive way?
A) Security
B) Strength
C) Resilience
D) Independence
A

C) Resilience

Rationale:

Resilience is the way in which individuals adapt successfully to crisis events to develop positive outcomes. Security, strength, and independence are all positive character traits that may be helpful during a crisis, but even individuals without these characteristics can respond to a crisis in a positive way if they have resilience.

41
Q

The nurse is part of a disaster response team caring for individuals after a metro bus collided with a building. What must the nurse consider when assessing the emotional state of each individual?
A) The individual’s previous healthcare experiences will make them more open to sharing emotions.
B) The individual’s race or ethnicity will be a predictor of their resiliency.
C) The individual’s emotional state is not as important as their physical injuries.
D) The individual’s culture will influence their expression of emotions.

A

D) The individual’s culture will influence their expression of emotions.

Rationale:

Cultural factors may influence how an individual expresses emotions. Just because one person is more reserved than another does not mean they need less care. Although physical injuries may be more urgent, the person’s physical and emotional state are both equally important and require nursing care. Individuals of any race or ethnicity can display the characteristic of resilience during a crisis. Individuals who have had a negative experience with the healthcare system may be less open to sharing emotions.

42
Q

A pregnant woman has just been informed that her baby will be born with spina bifida. The woman begins to cry, stating “Why is this happening to me? I can’t take care of a baby with a disability. I can’t afford to pay for all the treatments the baby will need. What am I going to do?” What is the best response by the nurse?
A) “If you calm down, we can talk about it. It’s not as bad as it sounds.”
B) “The first step is to learn more about what to expect. Let me help you.”
C) “I know this is overwhelming, but everything will work out OK.”
D) “Your love for your baby will outweigh all of the difficulties.”

A

B) “The first step is to learn more about what to expect. Let me help you.”

Rationale:

Ignoring the woman’s concerns or providing platitudes that may not be true are not effective ways to provide support to a pregnant woman in crisis. Instead, nursing interventions that increase knowledge about the crisis situation will increase the woman’s ability to cope with the stressor.

43
Q

The nurse is concerned that a client is demonstrating signs of obsessive-compulsive disorder. Which clinical manifestations and risk factors identified during the nursing assessment caused the nurse’s concern? Select all that apply.
A) Not making eye contact with the nurse
B) Female age 25
C) Client checking the contents of a purse several times within minutes
D) Client repeating the words “third floor”
E) Client asking to use the bathroom in the middle of the assessment

A

B) Female age 25
C) Client checking the contents of a purse several times within minutes
D) Client repeating the words “third floor”

Rationale:

Obsessive-compulsive disorder affects men and women equally; however, women often develop the disorder in adolescence or early adulthood. Checking and repeating are two common compulsions related to symmetry obsessions. Lack of eye contact and using the bathroom during an assessment are not manifestations of the disorder.

44
Q
A mother says to the nurse, "I think my teenage son is showing signs of obsessive-compulsive disorder, just like his father." Which risk factors in the client's medical history would support this diagnosis? Select all that apply.
A) Lives with parents
B) Male gender
C) Unemployed
D) History of chronic illnesses
E) Family history
A

B) Male gender
E) Family history

Rationale:

Risk factors for obsessive-compulsive disorder include having a first-degree relative with the disorder and going through a major life stressor. Men develop the disorder earlier than women. Living with parents, being unemployed, or having a history of chronic illnesses are not risk factors for the disorder.

45
Q
When caring for a client newly diagnosed with obsessive-compulsive disorder, which action by the nurse is appropriate?
A) Do not interrupt the ritual.
B) Interrupt the ritual.
C) Teach about antianxiety foods.
D) Teach ritual interruption skills.
A

A) Do not interrupt the ritual.

Rationale:

Do not interrupt the ritual because the client may feel compelled to start from the beginning. For the newly diagnosed client, teaching ritual interruption skills and teaching about antianxiety foods would not be the priority.

46
Q

The home care nurse observes a client scrubbing areas throughout the house over and over, especially areas where the family gathers. Prior to planning care for this client, which must the nurse assess?
A) If the client is forgetful
B) If the client does not clean thoroughly
C) How frequently the client cleans the house
D) The impact of symptoms on the family system

A

D) The impact of symptoms on the family system

Rationale:

Obsessive-compulsive disorder impacts the family system, especially with impaired role function. How frequently or thoroughly the client cleans the house may be important to assess, but they are not the most important. Forgetfulness is not a component of obsessive-compulsive disorder.

47
Q

Which finding would indicate that treatment for a client with obsessive-compulsive disorder is effective?
A) The client watches television while eating meals and engages in conversation with a roommate.
B) The client conducts ritualistic hand washing every hour.
C) While walking, the client counts 13 steps and then reverses the direction and repeats the process.
D) The client folds and refolds clothing in a drawer before each meal.

A

A) The client watches television while eating meals and engages in conversation with a roommate.

Rationale:

The client who watches television while eating meals and engages in conversation with a roommate is exhibiting behavior that suggests treatment for obsessive-compulsive disorder is effective. This behavior is evidence of reduced anxiety and less of a need to engage in ritualistic behavior. The other observations would indicate the need for additional treatment.

48
Q

A client is prescribed fluoxetine (Prozac) for treatment of obsessive-compulsive disorder. During the latest office visit, the client washes the hands while counting to 10 and repeats the process every 5 minutes. Which is the priority assessment for the nurse to complete for this client?
A) The amount of medication the client is taking
B) Side effects from the medication the client is experiencing
C) Whether the client is taking the medication as prescribed
D) Foods that may be interacting with the client’s medication

A

C) Whether the client is taking the medication as prescribed

Rationale:

Fluoxetine (Prozac) is one medication prescribed for the treatment of obsessive-compulsive disorder. Because the client is demonstrating continuing signs of the disorder, the nurse should assess if the client is taking the medication as prescribed. The client would have other signs and symptoms if taking too much medication. There are no specific foods to avoid when taking this medication. Continuing symptoms of obsessive-compulsive disorder is not a side effect of the medication.

49
Q

The nurse is providing care to a client who is diagnosed with obsessive-compulsive disorder. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate when providing care to this client?
A) Confront the client and ask what purpose the behavior serves.
B) Tell the client that the behavior is unacceptable and must end.
C) Interrupt the ritualistic behavior when observed.
D) Discuss the need to incorporate the behavior with other hospital routines.

A

D) Discuss the need to incorporate the behavior with other hospital routines.

Rationale:

The client with obsessive-compulsive behavior will not be able to perform the behavior at will, so the nurse needs to discuss the need to incorporate the behavior with other hospital routines. The nurse should not interrupt the behavior, as this will cause the client to start over from the beginning. The nurse should also not confront the client and ask what purpose it serves, as the client might be embarrassed about the behavior. Telling the client that the behavior is unacceptable and must end also will not help the client with the behavior.

50
Q

A client diagnosed with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is being admitted as an inpatient. The client is obsessed with thoughts of symmetry. Which compulsive behaviors does the nurse anticipate when performing the admission assessment? Select all that apply.
A) The client repeatedly washes his hands.
B) The client repeatedly taps both wrists on the bedside table.
C) The client avoids shaking the nurse’s hand
D) The client begins counting the floor tiles.
E) The client repeatedly cleans the top of the bedside table.

A

B) The client repeatedly taps both wrists on the bedside table.
D) The client begins counting the floor tiles.

Rationale:

Repeatedly tapping both wrists on the bedside table and counting the floor tiles demonstrate common behaviors of a client whose obsession is symmetry. A client whose obsession is symmetry often demonstrates counting, ensuring orderliness of items, or fixation on maintaining symmetrical positioning of items, such as repeatedly tapping both wrists on the bedside table. On the other hand, a client whose obsession is cleaning typically demonstrates repetitive performance of decontamination practices, such as repetitive hand washing; avoidance of contamination, such as refusing to shake hands; or repetitive environmental cleaning, such as repeatedly cleaning the top of the bedside table.

51
Q

A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client recently diagnosed with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) and prescribed fluvoxamine (Luvox). Which statement made by the client indicates to the nurse that the client understands the instructions?
A) “I am glad the physician chose this medication because it does not have any side effects.”
B) “I should continue taking this medication and in 1-2 years I can stop taking it.”
C) “I should continue taking this medication and in 1-2 years my physician may taper me off gradually.”
D) “Even though I don’t think this medication is for my OCD, I will take it because the physician wants me to.”

A

C) “I should continue taking this medication and in 1-2 years my physician may taper me off gradually.”

Rationale:

This statement indicates that the client understands instruction regarding this medication. A client should continue taking fluvoxamine (Luvox) for 1—2 years, at which time a physician may begin gradually tapering, while observing the client for symptom exacerbation. Fluvoxamine (Luvox) does have side effects; however, it has fewer side effects than clomipramine and is recommended for the first medication trial. Fluvoxamine (Luvox) is approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) for treatment of OCD.

52
Q

A nurse is evaluating the plan of care for a client diagnosed with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). Which client statement indicates a positive outcome for the plan of care?
A) “Instead of washing my hands several times a day I use hand sanitizer several times a day.”
B) “I am still hand washing frequently, and even though it is less than before I am a failure.”
C) “I am still hand washing frequently but it is less often than before. I think I am improving.”
D) “I don’t know why I can’t wash my hands several times a day; I have nothing else to do anyway.”

A

C) “I am still hand washing frequently but it is less often than before. I think I am improving.”

Rationale:

The client who acknowledges improvement when washing hands less frequently recognizes that continued obsessive-compulsive behaviors are not an indication of treatment failure and that reductions in behavior signify positive progress. The client who has substituted the ritualistic use of hand sanitizer for the ritualistic hand washing has not demonstrated adequate coping skills to control anxiety related to absence of ritualistic compulsive behaviors. The client who sees nothing wrong with washing hands several times a day does not recognize that the ritualistic hand washing is a problem.

53
Q

A malfunction in what system is thought to contribute to the development of obsessive-compulsive disorder?
A) Frontal-subcortical circuit
B) Hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis
C) Cortico-striato-thalamo-cortical circuit
D) Microbiome-gut-brain axis

A

C) Cortico-striato-thalamo-cortical circuit

Rationale:

A malfunction in the cortico-striato-thalamo-cortical (CSTC) circuit in the brain is the possible cause for OCD. A malfunction in the other pathways contributes to other conditions or diseases, but they have not been linked to OCD.

54
Q

What important fact should the nurse relay to the young adult who was just diagnosed with obsessive-compulsive disorder?
A) Not acting on compulsions is the best cure.
B) Treatment is essential to remission.
C) Recognizing the obsessions as false will lessen their impact.
D) The disorder will gradually get better over time.

A

B) Treatment is essential to remission.

Rationale:

Without treatment, the rate of remission of OCD is estimated to be low. Therefore, treatment is essential; the disorder will not usually get better over time without treatment. Many individuals with OCD recognize that their obsessive thoughts are false or unlikely to happen, but that does not lessen their impact. Individuals with OCD perform compulsions to lessen anxiety, and they are often unable to control whether or not they perform the actions.

55
Q
For a client with obsessive-compulsive disorder with contamination obsessions, what nursing assessment is essential to development of an effective client care plan?
A) Assessment for skin integrity
B) Assessment for sexual activity
C) Assessment for tics
D) Assessment for religious beliefs
A

A) Assessment for skin integrity

Rationale:

Clients with contamination obsessions often have compulsions related to cleaning and washing, especially washing the hands. Continual exposure to water and cleansing agents may result in loss of skin integrity. Assessment for sexual activity or religious beliefs would be more important if the client had aggressive, sexual, or religious obsessions. Assessment for tics would be more important for individuals with symmetry obsessions.

56
Q

The mother of a 12-year-old child with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) tells the nurse that the child tends to get angry and throw a fit when the parents prevent him from performing compulsions in public. She tells the nurse that they don’t have this problem at home because they just let him perform his rituals. The mother asks the nurse why he has these. What is the best response by the nurse?
A) “It would be best if you don’t take your child out in public until he can learn to control himself.”
B) “Rage attacks by children with OCD are often made worse if the parents accommodate the OCD behaviors.”
C) “The best way to prevent the rage attacks is to reinforce the OCD behaviors, especially when in public.”
D) “When he has rage attacks, you need to discipline him immediately and remove him from the area.”

A

B) “Rage attacks by children with OCD are often made worse if the parents accommodate the OCD behaviors.”

Rationale:

Studies indicate that children and adolescents are more likely than adults to suffer rage attacks in relation to their OCD, a phenomenon that is enhanced if their family accommodates or reinforces their OCD behaviors. Telling the mother about this link can help the parents see the need to change their actions, which may eventually help decrease the rage attacks in public. Not taking the child out in public, reinforcing the behaviors in public, or immediately disciplining the child will not be beneficial to the child.

57
Q

A 68-year-old female client was recently diagnosed with depression and subclinical obsessive-compulsive symptoms. What does the nurse need to consider when planning care for this client?
A) This client will not need treatment for the OCD symptoms because they are subclinical.
B) This client may take longer to meet goals than a younger client with similar symptoms.
C) This client will need to be assessed frequently for signs of dementia.
D) This client may need a higher dose of medication than a younger client.

A

B) This client may take longer to meet goals than a younger client with similar symptoms.

Rationale:

The comorbidity of obsessive-compulsive symptoms and other mental disorders may interfere with responsiveness to treatment and increase the time it takes for medications to be effective in older adults. The obsessive-compulsive symptoms do still need to be treated in the older adult, even though they are subclinical. Although older adult clients with multiple mental health disorders should be assessed for dementia, the assessments do not need to be performed more frequently than normal. Older adults often need lower doses of medication because of an increased risk of side effects.