Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

STEP1 Uworld > Deck 2 > Flashcards

Deck 2 Flashcards

0
Q

Chromosome for NF-1?

eye manifestation?

A

17

  • Lisch nodules on iris
  • also bony problems and other tumors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

Enzyme defect in homocysteinuria, and brif clinical feautures?

A
  • Cystathionine beta synthetase

- premature athero, ectopia lentis, osteoporosis, MR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Generic name for zofran? mechanism?

A
  • odansetron
  • inhibits serotonin 5-HT# receptors (located peripherally in pre-synaptic nerve terminals of Vagus nerve in GI tract)
  • also located centrally in solitary nucleus tract and chemoreceptor trigger zone aka area postrema

-other options: granisetron, dolasteron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How does silicosis affect immune system?

A
  • impairs macrophage effector arm or cell mediated immunity
  • macrophages are main CMI against intracellular mycobacteria (TB)
  • *mechanism: disruption of macrophage phagolysosomes by internalized silica particles
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

RANK receptors

A
  • Over-expression in hypoestrogenic states –> incr bone resorption
  • produced by osteoblasts
  • stimulates differentiation of mature clasts
  • OPG oposes it
  • PTH stimulates blasts to produce RANK and colony stimulating factor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which part of vit D synthesis does sunlight impact?

A

-7-dehydrocholesterol –> Cholicalciferol (D3)

  • next: 25-hydroxylation occurs in liver and kidney
  • last: 1-alpha hydroxylase catalyzes final step for active vitD (in kidney)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

PTH effects in kidney

A
  • increases reabsorption of Ca

- Decreases reabsorption of Phosphorus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

manifestations of parasagittal brain tumor?

A

contralateral spastic paresis of the leg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

presentation of Toxic megacolon in UC? workup?

A
  • fever, bloody diarrhea, abd distension, abd tenderness, signs of shock
  • Abd Xray for Dx
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What drug class increases triglycerides as a side effects?

A
  • Bile acid binding resins: cholestyramine, colestipol, colesevelam
  • mech: decr bile rab….live ramps up bile prod, which uses LDL, so incr uptake of LDL from circulation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Recall bias

A
  • inaccurate recall of past exposure by study participants
  • usually in retrospective studies
  • people with adverse event are more likely to recall a risk factor/exposure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What genes are mutated in Lynch syndrome?

A

MSH2 and MLH1

-defective MutS and MutL = no repair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How is protein phosphatase 1 activated? and what happens when it is activated?

A
  • By a tyrosine kinase (like Insulin receptor)
  • dephosphorylates Glycogen synthase –> activation –> Glycogen synthesis
  • Dephosphorylates Fructose 1,6-bisphosphatase –> De-activation –> inhibition of gluconeogenesis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Name 3 diseases caused by impaired DNA excision repair

A
  • Xeroderma pigmentosum
  • Fanconi anemia
  • Bloom syndrome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How do osteocytes communicate with each other?

A

Gap junctions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

WHat should you be suspicious for in a patient who has had hypercalcemia (with surgically removed parathyroids), and now has bitemporal hemionopsia?

A
  • MEN syndrome

* Parathyroid, pituitary, Check pancreas! (MEN1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Histologically, what does SCC look like?

A
  • Moderately differentiated
  • keratin nests/pearls within or between cells
  • intracellular bridging

*SCC of esophagus = smoking/drinking, betel nut chewing, foods with N-nitroso compunds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is “MELAS”?

A
  • Mitochondrial encephalopathy with Lactic acidosis and stroke-like episodes.
  • clinically = seizure disorder, stroke like episodes, lactic acidosis, maternally inherited (HETEROPLASMY)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How does the toxin of bordetella pertussis and bacillus anthracis work?

A

-Both increase cAMP –> edema and phagocyte dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

In granulomas of the lung, which cells surround the necrotic areas, and are large, with abundant pale and granular cytoplasm? What is their cell surface marker?

A
  • Macrophages!

- CD-14

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

WHat class of anti-arrhythmic is Verapamil? WHat is it used for? How does it work?

A
  • class IV
  • Supraventricular tachyarrhythmias
  • Blocks SA and AV node Calcium channels –> slows depolarization that occurs in phase 0 and the latter part of phase 4 (diastolic depolarization) —> decreases rate of SA node firing and slows AV node conduction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

A diet rich in Nitrates leads to deamination of DNA bases. This is repaired by the process of _________.

The steps in this process are _________

A

-Base excision repair

  1. New deaminated weird bases recognized by GLYCOSYLASES –> cleaves them
  2. ENDONUCLEASE cleaves the 5’ end of the AP site
  3. LYASE completes the removal of sugar-phosphate group
  4. DNA POLYMERASE fills the gap
  5. LIGASE seals the gap
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

_______ therapy in rheeumatoid arthritis normally takes weeks to have good response, but if very effective.

________ on the other hand, has very fast acting releif, but is not used as much bc of unfavorable side effect profile. SO usually not used for short term therapy

A
  • Methotrexate

- Steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What do interferon alpha and Beta do?

WHat does Interferon Gamma do?

A

alpha and Beta:

  • Secreted by a variety of cells in response to viral infection
  • act on neighboring cells (paracrine signaling)
  • stimulates cells to synthesize anti-viral proteins that degrade intracellular mRNA and impair protein synthesis

Gamma:

  • produced mainly by NK and T cells
  • promotes TH1 cell differentiation
  • induces class II MHC expression
  • activates macrophages
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What do V1 vasopressin receptors modulate? V2?

A

-V1: vasoconstriction and incr prostaglandins

V2:

  • Antidiuretic response
  • Medullary collecting duct is most responsive
  • not only water, but also increase Urea transporters, allowing maximal osmolarity of medullary space, for maximal water escape
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Ulcers on the posterior wall of the duodenal bulb are most likely to erode into what artery?

A

-Gastroduodenal (comes from common hepatic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How does acyclovir/gancylovir etc.. work?

A
  • Nucleoside analogs

- incorporate themselves into viral DNA and terminate viral DNA chain synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How do cephalosporins work?

A
  • Bind to PCB’s (penicillin binding proteins) such as transpeptidase
  • Irreversibly inhibit PCBs like transpeptidase from cross-linking peptidoglycan

*resistance to cephalosporins = change in structure of PCBs, prevents binding by cephalosporins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How do organisms become resistant to Streptomycin?

Isoniazid?

Rifampin?

A
  • Altering structure of bacterial ribosomal proteins (aminoglycosides bind to 30s subunit)
  • Decrease activity of bacterial catalase-peroxidase
  • Structural alteration of enzymes involved in RNA synthesis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Inhaled anesthetics _______ cerebral blood flow. THey also ______ cardiac output, BP, respiratory TV and MV, and renal function

A
  • Increase cerebral blood flow via vasodilation (Increases ICP)
  • Decrease all other things listed
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which benzos have the biggest incidence of severe drowsiness and incr risk of falls for elderly?

A

Longest half life ones:

  • Chlordiazepoxide
  • Clorazepate
  • Diazepam
  • Flurazepam

*Chronic Cat-naps and Damn Falls”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are some drugs that can cause Acute interstitial nephritis? What clinical signs and labs etc do you see?

A
  • Beta-lactams
  • NSAIDS
  • Sulfonamides
  • Rifampin
  • Diuretics
  • usually a couple weeks later
  • Fever, MacPap rash, oliguria
  • Urine = RBCs, Eosinophils, Neutrophils…serum may show eosinophils as well
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Chronic lymphedama is a risk factor for __________.

Common scenario in which this might happen?

A
  • Angiosarcoma

- Axillary lymph node dissection in breast cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are some gross pathological and histological findings in Crohn’s disease?

A
  • Non-caseating granulomas
  • Linear or serpiginous ulcerations
  • fistulas
  • transmural inflammatory infiltrate
  • cobble-stoning
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What causes Gallstone ileus and what does it present with?

A
  • passage of a large stone (usually > 2.5 cm) through a cholecyst-enteric fistula —> Obstructio at ileo-cecal valve
  • Signs and Sx of SBO + gas in gallbladder and biliary tree (bc of fistula)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Why is it thought that rheumatic fever actually occurs?

A

-Autoimmune reaction based on Antigenic similarity between bacterial antigens and self antigens in the heart and CNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Where is Human placental Lactogen (hPL) secreted from? What are its effects?

A

-Syncytiotrophoblasts

  • Increase insulin resistance
  • stimulates proteolysis and lipolysis
  • inhibits gluconeogenesis

*Main goal = incr glucose delivery to baby, use fats and ketones for mom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

When does acute hemolytic transfusion reaction normally happen?
What are signs/Sx?
What causes it?

A
  • within minutes to hours of transfusion
  • Fever/chills, HoTN, dyspnea, chest and/or back pain , hemoglobinuria
  • ABO incompatibility –> type 2 hypersensitivity –> anti-ABO antibodies (mostly IgM) –> complement activation.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Low frequency sounds are best detected at the _______ within the inner ear.

A
  • Apex of the cochlea

- Near the helicotrema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What does Vasoactive Intestinal Peptide do? What suppresses it?

A
  • produced by pancreatic islet cells and neurons in the GI mucosa
  • relaxes GI SM, inhibits gastric acid secretion, stimulates pancreatic bicarb and Cl secretion —-> secretory diarrhea

-Somatostatin decreases production of ALL GI hormaones basically, including VIP, alleviating Sx in pts with VIPoma

40
Q

In embryology, what parts of the pancrease come from the dorsal pancreatic bud?

What parts come from the ventral pancreatic bud?

A

Dorsal:

  • tail
  • body
  • most of head
  • small accessory pancreatic duct

Ventral:

  • Uncinate process
  • Major pancreatic duct
  • inferior/posterior portion of the head
41
Q

WHat mechanism underlies HUS?

A

-Microthrombi in small blood vessels following injury to endothelium by toxin (platelet activation and aggregation —> thrombi)

42
Q

What are some things used to treat alzheimers?

A
  • Cholinesterase inhibitors like Donepezil (your forgetfulness is DONE!)
  • Antioxidants like vit E
  • NMDA rec. antagonists (memantine)
43
Q

What characteristic of methadone allows for it to decrease incidence of withdrawal for heroin addicts?

A
  • Long half life

* Methadone is a very potent, long-acting opiate with good bioavailability

44
Q

What are 2 psych meds that can cause seizure?

Name 3 antibiotics that can also cause seizure?

A
  • Buproprion and clozapine

- Isoniazid, cipro, imipenem

45
Q

What drugs are MOST effective at treating hyperlipidemia? What are some other options?

A

-Fibrates

Others: Niacin, Statins, Omega-3 supplements

46
Q

WHat drugs are particulary useful in pts with Atypical depression, who have failed 1st line options?

A
  • MAOi’s

* key words for atypical depression: Mood reactivity, rejection sensitivity, INCR sleep/appetite

47
Q

Why does Tx of 21-Hydroxylase deficiency with cortisol work?

A

-Supresses ACTH –> reduces stimulation of the adrenal cortex –> decreased androgens

48
Q

What is the underlying problem in Dubin-Johnson syndrome?

What is seen as far as Sx?

Histology?

A
  • Defect in hepatic excretion of bilirubin glucoronides across canalicular membrane
  • Usually Asx….but maybe some Icterus, non-specific stuff like fatigue
  • Liver is grossly BLACK, dense pigment composed of epinephrine metabolites within hepatocyte Lysosomes
49
Q

What are some laboratory findings associated with PBC?

A
  • Anti-mitochondrial antibodies
  • Incr AlkP
  • incr cholesterol
  • incr serum IgM
  • Incr bili perhaps?
50
Q

How is colon cancer associated with IDB different than adenomatous sporadic type?

A
  • non-polyp dysplastic lesions
  • multi-focal
  • EARLY p53 mutations
  • LATE APC gene mutations
  • Higher grade usually
51
Q

What drug can be used for hypertensive emergencies, and causes arteriolar dilation with increase renal perfusion and natriuresis?

A
  • Fenoldopam
  • Perfect for hypertensive emergencies in pts with concurrent renal insufficiency

-1st line though for hypertensive emergencies is Nitroprusside

52
Q

Melanocytes come from what embryologic derivitive?

A
  • Neural crest

* melanoma

53
Q

Local defense against candida is mediated by ________ cells, whereas systemic infection is prevented by ________.

A
  • T-cells

- Neutrophils

54
Q

Most common cause of gas gangrene? By what mechanism?

A
  • Clostridium perfringens

- Toxin is phospholipase –> destroys cell membranes, metabolizes sugars –> gas formation

55
Q

How do thiazide diuretics work?

A
  • Block Na-Cl symporters in the distal convoluted tubules

* can cause hypercalcemia

56
Q

How do high FFAs affect insulin sensitivity?

A

Increase

57
Q

In what disease do you see low levels of serum C1 esterase? Wht drug should not be given to these patients?

A
  • Hereditary angioedema

- ACEi’s

58
Q

In pts with cryptochordism, what happens to seminiferous tubules?

A
  • Atrophy and hyalinization from temperature-induced damage
  • leads to decr sperm count
  • decreased Inhibin levels –> incr FSH bc loss of negative feedback
59
Q

What marker reflects activity of Osteo-BLASTS?

A

-Serum (bone specific) Alkaline phosphatase

60
Q

What is 1st line Tx of acute gouty attack?

A

NSAIDS

*colchicine if NSAIDS are contraindicated

61
Q

1st line tx for enterobius vermicularis? What about in pregnant patient?

A
  • Albendazole/mebendazole

- Pyrantel pamoate

62
Q

Why do patients taking llong acting nitrates for CP (like isosorbide dinatrate) need to have nitrate free periods every day?

A

to decrease development of drug tolerance

63
Q

What is warfarin’s mech of action?

A
  • Blocks glutamate residue carboxylation on factors 10, 9, 7, 2
  • makes them innefective –> decr clotting
64
Q

What can atropine toxicity look like? What drug is best to rapidly reverse atropine effects?

A
  • agitation, mydriasis, tachycardia, dry and flushed skin, bronchodilation, urinary retention……if serious —> coma and death
  • in elderly = delerium/psychosis

Toxicity: Treated with PHYSOSTIGMINE

65
Q

ANP released from atrial myocytes acts on what 3 tissues and in what way?

A
  • Kidney –> incr Afferent artriole dilation –> incr GFR, decreases Sodium reabsorption
  • Adrenal gland –> restricts aldo secretion
  • Blood vessels –> relaxes vascular smooth muscles –> vasodilation
66
Q

What is seen on histology in vegetations associated with bacterial endocarditis?

A
  • Fibrin and platelet deposition

* when bacteria binds –> expression of tissue factor

67
Q

What is seen on immunofluorescence on skin samples from celiac disease patients with dermatitis herpetiformis?

-What about intestinal mucosa?

A
  • IgA deposits in the tips of dermal papillae

- Flattening of villi

68
Q

What malignancy is associated with carcinogen exposue, specifically arsenic, thorotrast, and polyvinyl chloride……and expresses CD31 on its surface?

A
  • Liver angiosarcoma

- CD31 is PECAM-1….from endothelial cells, used for leukocyte migration through the endothelium

69
Q

What malignancy, on histology, shows rounded and polygonal cells with abundant clear cytoplasm?

What are characteristics of this illness?

A

-Clear cell carcinoma of the kidney

  • Metastases are usually found before primary lesion, but if present, the classic triad is flank pain, hematuria, and palpable mass.
  • paraneoplastic syndromes common:
  • incr EPO —> erythrocytosis
  • PTHrP —> Hypercalcemia
70
Q

What is c-Jun and c-Fos? how do they bind to their target?

A
  • Nuclear transcription factors
  • Directly bind DNA via a Leucine zipper motif
  • Genes that code for these are proto-oncogenes
71
Q

What do each of these do/represent with HepB infection:

  • HBcAg
  • HBeAg
  • HBsAg
A

HBcAg:

  • Nucleocapsid core protein
  • resides within hepatocytes
  • assembles virion

HBeAg:

  • Marker of high infectivity
  • Nucleocapsid core and precore protein
  • core component within hepatocytes, assembles virion
  • pre-core component directs secretion into blood

HBsAg:

  • Envelope glycoprotein
  • Non-infective
  • forms spheres and tubules 22 nm in diameter
72
Q

How does abnormal huntingtin protein in huntington’s disease cause the actual disease?

A
  • De-acetylation of histones

- Silences genes necessary for neuronal survival

73
Q

In what layer of mucosa are gastric parietal cells found? What do they stain like on histology in pernicious anemia?

A
  • Superficial region of gastric glands

- oxyntic (pale pink), round, platelike cells in the periphery of the upper-layer glands

74
Q

Acetylcholine and Adenosine work on phase ______ of myocyte action potentials. What does this result in?

A
  • phase 4
  • reduction of the rate of spontaneous depolarization in pacemaker cells
  • activate K+ channels, prolongs K+ flow…..keeping membrane potential negative for longer
  • Inhibit L-type Calcium channels, prolobging the time taken to reach threshold
75
Q

What defects are seen from femoral nerve neuropathy? (L2-L4)

A
  • Weakness involving quadriceps
  • possible weakening of iliopsoas
  • often complain of difficulty with stairs and frequent falling 2/2 “knee buckling”
  • *patellar reflex is diminished
  • sensory loss = anterior and medial thigh, medial leg
76
Q

______ increases power of a study, and can account for different p-values of 2 studies with the same relative risk result

A

-Sample size

77
Q

Visual field defect is temporal lobe lesion?

A

-Contralateral “pie in the sky”

78
Q

What is the diagnosis in a patient with Hx of bronchial asthma who has recurrent transient pulmonary infiltrates, CBC showing eosinophila and high IgE and IgG, and CT showing proximal bronchiectasis??

A

-Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA)

79
Q

From what embryologic layer does the anterior pituitary come ffrom?

A

-Surface ectoderm

80
Q

Central chemoreceptors and located in the ______ and respond primarily to _______, whereas peripheral chemoreceptors located in the ________ respond primarily to _________.

A
  • Medulla , increased PaCO2

- Carotid and aortic bodies , hypoxemia (low PaO2)

81
Q

Hepatic ethanol catabolism produces high levels of ________, and inhibits _________, leading to hypoglycemia

A
  • NADH

- Gluconeogenesis

82
Q

A retained dead fetus (from decision to conservatively manage) can lead to DIC…..how?

A
  • Chronic release of tissue factor (THROMBOPLASTIN) from the placenta
  • leads to overwhelming activation of intravascular coagulation cascade
  • widespread deposition of fibrin and consumption of coag. factors, platelets, and eventual bleeding
83
Q
  • What are the findings of DIC?

- What should you monitor if you’re worried about someone potentially developing DIC?

A

Findings:

  • prolonged PTT and PT
  • TCP
  • Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia
  • Low fibrinogen
  • elevated D-dimer
  • Low factor 5 and 8

Monitor:

  • fibrinogen
  • platelet count
84
Q

What agents can cause reperfusion arrythmias on arterial re-opening in tx of acute STEMI?

A

-Fibrinolytics like tPA

85
Q

What type of vaccine is the meningiococcal vaccine? How is Neisseria mening. spread?

A
  • Capsular polysaccharide vaccine

- contaminated respiratory secretions or airborne droplets

86
Q

Where is the enzyme transketolase found and what pathway is it used in?

  • what co-factor does it need?
  • Where is pyruvate carboxylase found?
A
  • Cytoplasm, used for pentose-phosphate shunt
  • Requires Thiamine (B1)
  • Pyruvate carboxylate is found in the mitochondria
87
Q

How can you distinguish between MAC infxn and disseminated TB?

A
  • Marked anemia
  • Hepatosplenomegaly
  • Incr AlkP and LDH
  • These are all possible in TB theoretically, but much more common for MAC
  • MAC grows well at high temperatures (optimum = 41 deg)..unlike TB!!
88
Q

What can be given to reverse cyanide toxicity associated withNitroprusside administration?

A
  • Sulfur (Sodium Thiosulfate)

* donates additional sulfur to liver rhodanase –> enhances metabolism and detoxification of cyanide to thiocyanate

89
Q

How does ethosuximide work?

A

Blocks T-type calcium channels in thalamic neurons

-causes hyperpolarization –> inhibits firing

90
Q

What is dephenoxylate used for and how does it work?

A
  • Anti-diarrheal (structurally similar to Meperidine)
  • opiate anti-diarrheal that binds to mu opiate receptors –> slows motility
  • Low dose provides effective releif without opiate-associated euphoria and dependence
  • typically higher doses are combined with Atropine to discourage abuse
91
Q

HepB replication is accomplished through a reverse transcriptase polymerase that creates intermediate _________, and who’s progeny’s has ________

A

+ RNA ss template

-Double-stranded DNA

92
Q

Reed-Sternberg cells are characteristic (and diagnostic) for _______. and are derrived from __________.

A
  • Hodgkin lymphoma

- Germinal center B-lymphocytes

93
Q

Which anticonvulsant causes elevated phenobarbital level?

A

Primidone

-metabolized to phenobarbital and PEMA (phenylethylmalonamide)

94
Q

What are the 2 most common brain neoplasms in kids? How are they different on histology?

A
  1. Pilocytic astrocytoma
    - pilocytic astrocytes
    - rosenthal fibers
    - *low grade
  2. Medulloblastomas
    - sheets of primitive, small, blue cells
    - many mitotic figures
    - *undifferentiated, aggressive tumors
95
Q

Tx of Wilson’s disease?

A

-copper chelators such as d-peniccillamine and trientine

96
Q

What does light microscopy show in post-strep GN?

-What labs are seen?

A
  • Hypercellular glomerulus (q 12)
  • all lobules involved

Labs:

  • hematuria, proteinuria, urine RBC casts
  • Low C3
  • incr Anti-streptolysin O, anti-DNAase B, anti-cationic proteinase
97
Q

What embryologic process failed in a pt with Meckel’s diverticulum?

A

-Obliteration of the omphalomesenteric duct

STEP1 Uworld (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions