Deck 10 Flashcards

1
Q

A segment meets the size test if the absolute amount of reported profit or loss is 10% or greater, in absolute amount of:

A
  1. The combined reported profit of all operating segments that did not report a loss, or
  2. The combined reported loss of all operating segments that did report a loss

Separate the segments that reported a loss and ones that reported a profit. Then get 10% of the greater amount, doesn’t matter if it is negative (absolute amount). Then the segments that we greater than the 10 % qualify as reportable segments.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Timeliness, understandability, comparability, and verifiability are characteristics that:

A

Enhance the usefulness of information that is relevant and faithfully represented. Neutrality is a key component of faithful representation, not a enhancing qualitative characteristic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Personal financial statements usually include:

A

A statement of financial condition (similar to a balance sheet) and a statement of changes in net worth (similar to a income statement).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A bond investment is classified as trading securities if the bond is:

A

Held for the purpose of selling them in the near future. Trading securities are reported at fair value on the balance sheet, not face value.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

A gain/loss on extinguishment is equal to the difference between:

A

The reacquisition price and the net carrying amount of the bond.
The reacquisition price is: Face value times the call amount (i.e 102).
The carrying value is: Face Value less unamortized discount less unamortized bond issue costs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Financing activities include the cash effects of transactions:

A

Obtaining resources from owners and providing them with a return on their investment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Cash provided by operations is determined by:

A

Taking Net income adding back depreciation expense and subtracting any gain on sale of equipment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The primary difference between the purchase method and the comsumption method of accounting for inventory is that the purchase method:

A

Initially records additions to inventory as expenditures and then establishes inventory balances and related non-spendable fund balance amounts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Non-capital financing activities (governmental accounting) include borrowing for non-capital purposes as well as:

A

Cash receipts from grants or subsidies, or property taxes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Contributions that don’t allow the recipient to have variance (discretion) power over the use of the contribution is a:

A

Liability not a temporary restricted contribution.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Under IFRS, an impairment loss is first allocated to:

A

Goodwill, any remaining impairment loss is then allocation on a pro rata basis to the other assets of the cash-generating unit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Under US GAAP, R&D includes costs incurred prior to technological feasibility for:

A

Developed software that is to be sold, leased, or marketed. R&D related to Software intended for internal use is not part of R&D expense. Market research is also not part of R&D expense.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Under IFRS, Development costs may be capitalized if all of the following criteria are met:

A
  1. Technological Feasibility has been established.
  2. The company intends to complete the asset.
  3. The company has the ability to sell or use the asset.
  4. Sufficient resources are available to complete the development and sell/use the asset.
  5. The asset will generate future economic benefit.

All need to be met in order for development costs to be capitalized under IFRS. Under GAAP, both Research and Development cost are always expensed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The minimum operating cycle for purposes of reporting a prepaid is:

A

12 months. Even if the company’s operating cycle is 6 months, the current portion of a prepaid is 12 months. Current assets are 12 months.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Costs associated with computer software that is developed to be sold, leased, or licensed may be capitalized:

A

Once technological feasibility has been established. The costs will continue to be capitalized until the software is released for sale. Costs incurred prior to (including planning, coding, and testing phases) and after release are expensed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Under percentage of completion method, current liability exists when:

A

Progress billings exceed costs and estimated earnings (aka profit).

17
Q

Nonmonetary exchanges that lack commercial substance:

A

Only in situations where boot was received and the boot is less than 10% of total consideration, then any gain recognized is reported at the ratio of cash received to total consideration (proportionally). Fair value is not used for nonmonetary exchanges that lack commercial substance.

18
Q

If boot exceeds 25% of the total consideration then:

A

The exchange is considered a monetary exchange. All gains and losses are recognized in full. Total consideration is Boot plus fair value of asset being exchanged. Gain is determined by subtracting FV and BV for old asset.

19
Q

Current cost amounts of inventory and PPE are measured at:

A

Current cost or lower recoverable amount at measurement date.

20
Q

On personal statement of financial condition:

A

Estimated income tax equals the difference between fair values and tax bases of assets and liabilities.

21
Q

On a consolidated balance sheet, the carrying amount of equipment should be reported at:

A

Cost less reported Gain.

22
Q

The rule for consolidated financials as it related to common stock is:

A

100% of a purchased subsidiary’s stockholders’ equity (including common stock) is eliminated in consolidation.

23
Q

When subsidiary’s declare and pay dividends, the only amount that should be reported on the consolidated financial statements is:

A

The amount declared and paid to external parties. Intercompany dividends should be eliminated upon consolidation.

24
Q

Consolidated net income is the same as the:

A

Parent company when using the equity method.

25
Q

Bond investments which are intended to be held to maturity are reported at:

A

Their amortized cost.

26
Q

A change from cost method to equity method is:

A

Accounted for retrospectively. However, a change from equity method to cost is not required to account for retrospectively.

27
Q

When members of a consolidated group have intercompany bond holdings:

A

The bonds are eliminated in consolidation and the difference (gain or loss) between the discounted bond price and the premium on reacquisition would be included in retained earnings.

28
Q

Marketable debt securities, both long and short term are reported at:

A

Carrying amount (amortized cost) unless there is a permanent decline in market value.

29
Q

Goodwill is calculated as:

A

Fair value of subsidiary - Fair value of subsidiary’s net assets. Net assets means assets less liabilities.

30
Q

The discount on a note payable should be reported as:

A

A direct reduction to the face amount of the note on the balance sheet.

31
Q

The amount of deferred gross profit relating to installment AR collections that are more than 12 months from the balance sheet date are reported as:

A

A current asset and a contra account.

32
Q

Unrealized gains and losses on available for sale securities are booked to:

A

OCI. Changes in fair value of the securities will continue to go there until they are sold. This is only for Available for Sale securities.

33
Q

The depletion base equals:

A

the purchase price plus the development costs plus the estimated restoration costs less the expected salvage value. The amount that the company thinks they can sell the property for after depletion is subtracted from the depletion costs.

34
Q

Retained earnings are reduced by both:

A

Cash and property dividends.