Deck 1 Flashcards
Which of the following tests BEST measures muscular strength?
A. 10-repetition-maximum bench-press test
B. YMCA push-up test
C. Half sit-up test
D. YMCA bench-press test
A. 10-repetition maximum bench-press test
This is the best test for measuring muscular strength because it is safer than a 1-repetition maximum
bench-press test and most people can complete 10 repetitions with 75% of their maximum resistance.
While a 1-repetition maximum bench-press test is considered a more accurate measure of strength, the
risk of injury outweighs the benefits of performing the test for most personal training clients. Therefore, the
10-repetition test is considered an appropriate substitute for assessing strength.
Which strategy will BEST ensure agreement between the client and trainer with respect to motivation and
goals?
A. The client should be allowed by the trainer to plan the initial training activities.
B. The trainer should establish a basic program for the client to start their regimen.
C. The trainer should explore the client’s expectations and prior experience.
D. The client’s present level of physical fitness should be determined.
C. The trainer should explore the client’s expectations and prior experience
This response will best ensure agreement between the client and trainer with respect to motivation and
goals. Finding out where a client is mentally and experimentally with respect to exercise allows a trainer to
develop a specific exercise program tailored to exactly what the client wants and needs. When a program
is designed with client expectations and prior experience in mind, the client’s motivation increases because
the client was a contributor to the process.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pgs. 378-386; 2nd ed., 358-365
Cardio respiratory fitness is BEST evaluated by which of the following?
A. Rating of perceived exertion
B. Maximal oxygen uptake
C. Sub-maximal exercise heart rate
D. Heart-rate recovery rate
B. Maximal oxygen uptake
This is the best method for evaluating cardio-respiratory fitness because it measures maximal oxygen
uptake during an exercise activity. Since cardio-respiratory fitness is defined by an individual’s ability to take
in and use oxygen during physical activity, maximal oxygen uptake (also known as VO2max) is the best
method for evaluation. Depending on the age and cardiovascular risk of the client, this method is often
limited to clinical or research facilities and is usually performed in the presence of a physician trained in
advanced cardiac life support.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pgs. 175-176; 2nd ed., pgs. 175-176
Client: Male
Age: 39
Physician Clearance: Yes
Medical/Health Concerns: Smokes 30+ cigarettes per day
Blood pressure: 136/94 mmHg
Past Activity Levels: Played high-school soccer and rugby
Current Activity Levels: Walks dog and walks 10 minutes to work everyday
Main Fitness Goal: To improve stamina and feel more fit
Given the information above, which of the following fitness tests is contraindicated for a personal trainer
to perform?
A. 3-minute step test
B. Submaximal cycle ergometry test
C. Maximal graded treadmill test
D. 1-mile walk test
C. Maximal graded treadmill test
This response is correct because this is a maximal fitness test and, therefore, contraindicated. The client’s
information, given in the stem of the question, places him in the moderate risk category for experiencing a
cardiac event during exercise. He has two risk factors, current cigarette smoker and hypertension, but has
no symptoms of cardiopulmonary disease. Therefore, he may exercise at a moderate intensity and
undergo sub-maximal fitness testing.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pgs. 170-180; 2nd ed., pgs. 170-180
Which of the following methods is MOST accurate for assessing body composition?
A. Bioelectrical impedance analysis
B. Body mass index
C. Waist-to-hip ratio
D. Skinfold thickness measurement
D. Skinfold thickness measurement
Of all the responses listed for this question, the skinfold measurement method is the most accurate for
assessing body composition provided the measurements are taken properly. If the technician/personal
trainer performing the assessment has ample experience locating and measuring the standard sites, the
results are both valid and reliable for estimating body composition.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pg. 187; 2nd ed., pgs. 187-189
When designing a program, the personal trainer should identify client goals by _______________.
A. Interviewing using close-ended questions
B. Training the client for a week before assessment
C. Using a lifestyle questionnaire
D. Creating a formal contract with the client
C. Using a lifestyle questionnaire
This response is correct because using a lifestyle questionnaire prior to training is an excellent way to
uncover a client’s preferences, needs, exercise history and motivational readiness for change. With this
information the personal trainer, together with the client, can develop realistic and relevant goals tailored
specifically to the client’s motivational needs.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pg. 397; 2nd ed., pg. 376-380
If a client has an increased risk for injury during exercise, the trainer should obtain a physician’s medical
release form prior to training because it _______________.
A. Releases the trainer from liability if the client is injured following the exercise program
B. Guarantees the client’s success in reaching his or her goals
C. Allows the physician to direct modifications in the exercise program
D. Prevents the trainer from being sued by the client for acts of negligence
C. Allows the physician to direct modifications in the exercise program.
This response is correct. The
purpose of a physician’s medical release form is to provide the personal trainer with clarification of a client’s
status and to explain any limitations to physical activity. It also enables the physician to direct modifications
to the exercise program.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pg. 155; 2nd ed., pg. 156
Your new client, who is 34 years old, smokes 10 cigarettes per day, has a triglyceride level of
200 mg/dL, and a total cholesterol/HDL ratio of 3.5. Before training him, you should _______________.
A. Recommend he see a registered dietitian to help him reduce his dietary fat
B. Recommend he see a registered dietitian to help him reduce his dietary cholesterol
C. Require a physician’s approval
D. Have him sign an informed consent form
D. Have him sign an informed consent form.
This response is correct. The client does not need to be
referred to another health professional prior to training. Therefore, having him sign prerequisite paperwork,
such as informed consent and release of liability, is appropriate at this time.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pgs. 154-155; 2nd ed., pgs. 154-156
During the initial interview with your new client, you discover that he has a thyroid disease and is
currently taking medication. Your FIRST course of action should be to _____________.
A. Research the effects of his medications on exercise capacity and design his program accordingly.
B. Obtain appropriate exercise parameters from his primary care provider.
C. Incorporate an extended warm-up and cool-down period at a low-intensity level.
D. Refer him to a registered dietitian since his condition is nutrition related.
B. Obtain appropriate exercise parameters from his primary care provider
This response is correct. It is outside the scope of practice for a personal trainer to design an exercise
program for a client with a metabolic disorder without first gaining clearance and guidelines from a
physician. The ACSM Initial Risk Stratification places individuals with known thyroid disorders in the high
risk category, indicating that they should receive medical clearance prior to engaging in an exercise
program.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pg. 496.
A lifestyle information form is helpful in developing _______________.
A. Rapport, program design, and goals
B. A treatment plan for special populations
C. The fitness components of rehabilitation program
D. A relapse prevention strategy
A. Rapport, program design, and goals
This response is correct because a lifestyle information questionnaire includes the following important
components: (1) physical activity feelings, barriers, preferences, and history, (2) family history and social
support, (3) occupation, (4) stressors, (5) dietary patterns, and (6) hobbies and leisure activities. This
information aids the personal trainer in developing a sound program for the client. Additionally, it provides
an opportunity for rapport-building as the client and personal trainer discuss and clarify any concerns
associated with the training program.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pg. 163
Which of the following must be known in order to perform a comprehensive evaluation of a client’s
lifestyle?
A. Stressors
B. Gender
C. Education
D. Income
A. Stressors
This response is correct because a lifestyle information questionnaire includes the following important
components: (1) physical activity feelings, barriers, preferences, and history, (2) family history and social
support, (3) occupation, (4) stressors, (5) dietary patterns, and (6) hobbies and leisure activities.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pg. 163; 2nd ed., pg. 163
Once the trainer obtains personal goals and health data from the client, the gathered information should
be________________.
A. Posted as a motivational incentive measure
B. Attached to the program card found in the training area
C. Entered on the general client database
D. Filed in a secured data storage area
D. Filed in a secured data storage area
This response is correct. All client data should be stored in a secured area within the fitness facility. This
limits the access to the client’s personal data to the personal trainer. Every client has the right to expect
all personal data and discussion with an ACE-certified professional will be safeguarded and not disclosed
without the client’s express written consent or acknowledgment.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pg. 436; 2nd ed., pgs. 399-400
Which of the following is a component of a well-stated goal?
A. Competitive
B. Precise
C. Flexible
D. Time-bound
D. Time-bound
This response is correct because it is one of the components of a well-stated goal (a SMART goal). The
components of a SMART goal are: Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Relevant, and Time-bound. SMART
goals are effective because they translate clients’ vague statements about what they want into precise
goals.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pgs. 396-397; 2nd ed, pgs. 376-377
A client informs you that he has been prescribed beta-blockers to control his blood pressure. In response
to this prescription, you should_____________________.
A. Use the rating of perceived exertion to measure intensity
B. Adjust target heart rate to prevent overexertion
C. Reduce training intensity to minimize pulse pressure
D. Use a heart rate monitor to measure heart rate
A. Use the rating of perceived exertion to measure intensity
This response is correct because beta-blockers decrease an individual’s resting, exercise, and maximal
heart rates. This reduction in heart rate requires modifying the method used for determining exercise
intensity. Using the Borg Scale of Perceived Exertion or the newer modified 0 - 10 scale of perceived
exertion is appropriate for monitoring an aerobic exercise program for someone on beta-blockers.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pgs. 162, 221-222; 2nd ed., pgs. 162 & 217
Your client has started taking beta-blocker medication after eight weeks of training. Which of the
following should you do?
A. Reduce the target heart-rate training zone by 20%.
B. Keep the target heart-rate training zone the same.
C. Increase intensity level in order to elevate heart rate.
D. Have his physician recommend appropriate exercise intensities.
D. Have the physician recommend appropriate training intensities.
This is the most appropriate response listed. Since this is a newly-prescribed medication, it is best to
communicate with the client’s physician regarding appropriate exercise intensities as well as any other
limitations that may now be present. Additionally, using a rating of perceived exertion scale to monitor
intensity is an acceptable alternative to heart-rate monitoring.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pgs. 241-242; 2nd ed., pg. 235
The risk of hypotension in the pregnant exerciser can be minimized by _______________.
A. Encouraging the exerciser to perform supine abdominal work
B. Replacing supine positions with semirecumbent and prone positions
C. Using the Valsalva maneuver during strength training
D. Introducing the client to Kegel exercises
B. Replacing supine positions with semi-recumbent and prone positions
This response is correct. The supine position allows the weight of the uterus to press against the blood
vessels, especially the inferior vena cava. This pressure causes a restriction in blood flow, which may
cause a reduction in blood pressure, cardiac output, and blood flow to the fetus. Clients should be
advised to avoid the supine position after the first trimester of pregnancy. Supine positions may be
replaced with semirecumbent positions, and prone positions replaced with an all-fours position or an
elbows-and-knees position.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pgs. 365-367; 2nd ed., pgs. 345-346
Which of the following is a well-stated goal for an overweight client?
A. I will lose 55 lb (25 kg) in 6 months by exercising and strength training.
B. I will start dieting and strength training 3-5 days a week.
C. I will lose 3 lb (1.5 kg) a week by dieting and exercising 5-7 days a week.
D. I will lose 1 lb (0.5 kg) a week by dieting and exercising 3-5 days a week for the next 3 months.
D. I will lose 1 lb (0.5 kg) a week by dieting and exercising 3 - 5 days a week for the next 3 months.
This response is correct. The goal is well-stated and follows the ACSM guidelines for safe and effective
weight loss.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pgs. 396-397; 2nd ed., pgs. 376-377
You are reviewing lifestyle information of the potential client described below:
Male, age 40
Height: 5’7” (170 cm)
Weight: 200 lb (90 kg)
RHR: 70
BP: 124/76
Occupation: Finance Manager
Highest education completed: college
Marital status: married, two children
Physical activity history: wrestler in high school
Goal: Would like to lose 40 lb and increase functional strength
Submaximal exercise test result: VO2max of 40 mL/kg/min (fair)
Push-ups test: Fair
Half sit-ups test: Fair
Based on this information, which of the following is the MOST realistic goal for the first two
months?
A. Increase VO2max by 5% and achieve a scale weight of 175 lb.
B. Increase local muscular endurance and decrease weight by 8%.
C. Achieve an aerobic fitness rating of “excellent” and increase local muscular endurance.
D. Increase VO2max by 10% and achieve a scale weight of 175 lb.
B. Increase local muscular endurance and decrease weight by 8%.
This response is the most realistic goal for this client. It addresses the fact that he only scored a “fair” on
his endurance assessments by focusing on increasing local muscular endurance. Additionally, the
reduction in weight by 8% is within the ACSM guidelines for weight loss of losing no more than 1-2 lb per
week. This scenario has the client losing 2 lb per week. Finally, it is recommended that the initial weight
loss goal be set at no more than 10% of the client’s total body weight. The goal of 8% body weight
reduction falls within this recommendation.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed. pgs. 170 - 207 & pg. 238; 2nd ed. pgs. 170 - 205 & pg. 232.
A new member of your health club has been cleared by his physician to exercise after recently
celebrating his 63rd birthday. Which of the following exercise parameters is MOST appropriate for an
initial program?
A. Strength training utilizing low resistance and high repetitions
B. Moderate to vigorous aerobic activity 5-7 days per week, 30-60 minutes
C. Strength training with free weights to maximize neurological adaptations
D. Functional training emphasizing dynamic balance exercises
A. Strength training utilizing low resistance and high repetitions
This response is most appropriate for an initial program because it addresses the loss of muscle mass
and bone density as one ages. To promote strength gains and increases in bone density, a program with
more resistance and fewer repetitions is required. However, because this individual is more than 50 years
old, the ACSM recommends he begins his program with low resistance and high repetitions. This is the
recommendation for older individuals due in part to the fact that as people age their blood pressures tend
to rise. Low resistance and high repetitions is the recommendation for resistance training for hypertensive
clients as well. After several months of training a more intense program may be appropriate.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pgs. 360-362; 2nd ed., pgs. 340-342
Bertha is a fit middle-aged woman. She has received medical clearance to exercise and has been
prescribed diuretic medication for 6 months. Which of the following recommendations is MOST
appropriate?
A. Refrain from performing high-intensity exercise.
B. Consume fluids before, during, and after exercise.
C. Minimize duration to no more than 30 minutes per session.
D. Monitor intensity using RPE instead of heart rate.
B. Consume fluids before, during, and after exercise
This response is the most appropriate because diuretic medications increase the excretion of water and
electrolytes through the kidneys, which may lead to dangerous cardiac arrhythmias. Since diuretics
decrease blood volume, they may predispose an exerciser to dehydration. Therefore, adequate fluid
intake before, during, and after exercise is important.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pg. 162; 2nd ed., pg. 162
Which of the following is among the possible side effects of diuretic medication?
A. Decreased heart rate
B. Increased blood volume
C. Water retention in the extremities
D. Electrolyte imbalance
D. Electrolyte imbalance
This response is correct because the primary effect of diuretic medication is increased excretion of water
and electrolytes through the kidneys, which may cause electrolyte imbalances and cardiac arrhythmias.
Since the diuretics may also decrease blood volume, they may predispose an exerciser to dehydration.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pg. 162; 2nd ed., pg. 162
A reduction in peripheral vascular resistance is a primary benefit of exercise in controlling
____________.
A. Peripheral vascular disease
B. Diabetes
C. Hypertension
D. Asthma
C. Hypertension
This is the correct response because high blood pressure is a condition that causes increased peripheral
resistance. Regular aerobic exercise appears to reduce both systolic and diastolic blood pressure by an
average of 10 mmHg, thereby reducing peripheral vascular resistance.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pg. 214; 2nd ed., pgs. 330-331
To experience a significant improvement in fitness, unfit individuals require a _______________.
A. Higher training dose than fit individuals
B. Lower training dose than fit individuals
C. Longer training duration than fit individuals
D. Higher training intensity than fit individuals
B. Lower training dose than fit individuals
This response is correct. Most unfit individuals need lower intensity, duration, and frequency
programming than their more fit counterparts to give their unconditioned bodies adequate time to adapt to
the higher demands of exercise. Additionally, unfit individuals experience higher gains in fitness
improvements through lower doses of exercise than do fit exercisers. This is a result of the fact that fitter
individuals are closer to reaching their fitness potential than unfit exercisers and have less room for
improvement.
Longer training
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pgs. 218, 2nd ed, pg. 318-319
You have just checked your client’s heart rate after a 5-minute warm-up on the stationary bicycle and
noticed that her heart rate is 15 beats per minute higher than usual. She informs you that she is taking a
decongestant for her cold. You should _______________.
A. Refer her to a physician for medical clearance
B. Have her finish the remainder of her workout at the same intensity
C. Reduce the exercise intensity and monitor the session using rating of perceived exertion
D. Terminate the workout and reschedule the session when she is over her cold
C. Reduce the exercise intensity and monitor the session using rating of perceived exertion
This response is correct. The client’s heart rate is elevated, which will affect her performance and ability
to work at her regular intensity level. Since the formula used to determine exercise intensity is no longer
valid due to her altered exercise heart rate, the best approach is to reduce exercise intensity and monitor
exercise using rating of perceived exertion.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pg. 163 &242; 2nd ed., pg. 164 & 220
To assist your potential client’s transition from the contemplation stage of change to the preparation stage
of change, which intervention should be used?
A. Formal contract
B. Periodic goal evaluation
C. Health-risk appraisal
D. Relapse prevention strategies
C. Health-risk appraisal
This response is the best intervention because it assists the potential client in the process of weighing the
costs and benefits of lifestyle modification. Completing a health-risk appraisal and consulting with a
personal trainer about the results may initiate the motivation needed to progress to the preparation stage
of change. Often individuals in the contemplation stage are unaware of their own health risks and may be
motivated to change upon discovering their shortcomings.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pgs. 411-412; 2nd ed, pg. 376
Which of the following programs is MOST appropriate to improve a client’s initial level of
conditioning?
A. 5-6 times per week, 30 minutes, 80% of VO2max
B. 2-4 times per week, 20-40 minutes, 65% of VO2max
C. 3-4 times per week, 20-30 minutes, 80% of VO2max
D. 3-5 times per week, 25 minutes, 70% of VO2max
D. 3-5 times per week, 25 minutes, 70% of VO2max
This is the most appropriate program to improve a client’s initial level of conditioning. All parameters fall
within the ACSM guidelines for cardiorespiratory endurance progression in the improvement conditioning
stage. These guidelines consist of an intensity of 50-85% of VO2max, a frequency of 3-5 days per week
and a duration of 20-60 minutes per session.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed. pg. 226; 2nd ed. pg. 221
When exercising in a hot environment, it is recommended that a person drink approximately
__________.
A. 2 to 4 fluid ounces of a sports drink every 10-15 minutes
B. 3 to 6 fluid ounces of water every 10-15 minutes
C. 32 fluid ounces of water within 30 minutes prior to, and following exercise
D. 1 ounce of fluid for every ounce of weight lost during exercise
B. 3 to 6 fluid ounces of water every 10-15 minutes
This response is correct. The guideline for fluid replenishment while exercising in a hot environment is to
drink at least 3-6 ounces of water every 10-15 minutes during exercise. Additionally, drink 8 ounces of
water 20-30 minutes prior to exercise and 8-10 ounces of water in the 30 minutes following exercise.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pg. 141; 2nd ed., pg. 141
When using a medicine ball for upper-body plyometric training, which of the following is activated when
the muscular contraction is initiated by catching a medicine ball?
A. Pacinian corpuscles
B. Muscle spindles
C. Extrafusal fibers
D. Golgi tendon organs
B. Muscle spindles
This response is correct. The muscle spindle responds to a quick stretch of its associated muscle fibers
by creating a sudden, reflexive, protective muscular contraction. In the case of catching a medicine ball,
the muscle fibers of the anterior shoulder girdle and triceps are quickly stretched as they are called into
eccentric action to decelerate the velocity of the incoming ball. The muscle spindles are activated by this
quick movement and respond by calling on the muscles of the anterior shoulder girdle and triceps to
quickly contract, which results in the participant throwing the ball in return.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pgs. 309-312; 2nd ed., pgs. 295-298
What is the prime mover involved during flexion of the knee joint?
A. Rectus femoris
B. Biceps femoris
C. Vastus lateralis
D. Vastus medialis
B. Biceps femoris
This response is correct. The biceps femoris has two major actions hip extension and knee flexion. It is
included as one of the muscles that make up the hamstrings group.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pg. 52; 2nd ed., pg. 52
Your client has plateaued in her progress levels. Upon further review of the exercise record, you notice
that she has been averaging only two sessions per week over the last four weeks. Your BEST
recommendation is to _______________.
A. Suspect “burnout” and tell her to take a week off from training
B. Increase the frequency of training to three times per week
C. Tell her that exercise should be a priority and that she must attend more sessions
D. Lower her intensity level by 10% to increase compliance
B. Increase the frequency of training to three times per week
This is the best recommendation as it will bring her up to the minimum recommended guideline for
frequency of physical activity and perhaps help her progress through her plateau. The personal trainer
also may want to discuss the reasons for the client’s two-session-per-week average. Perhaps the client’s
work or family obligations are getting in the way. If this is the case, the personal trainer may need to come
up with more convenient alternatives for exercise for the client.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pg. 226; 2nd ed, pg. 220-221
The results of a client’s re-evaluation step test show a similar recovery heart rate to the initial evaluation.
This indicates _______________.
A. Improved cardiorespiratory fitness
B. No change in cardiorespiratory fitness
C. Low initial cardiorespiratory fitness
D. A need to refer the client to his or her physician
B. No change in cardiorespiratory fitness
This response is correct. In order for the client to have experienced an improvement in cardiorespiratory
fitness, the recovery heart rate would have had to decrease. The rate at which the pulse returns to normal
after exercise is a good measure of cardiorespiratory capacity; heart rate remains lower and recovers
faster in people who are more physically fit due to the body’s improved ability to provide oxygen and
nutrients to the working muscles. Since the re-evaluation results showed no change in recovery heart
rate, the client’s fitness level has not changed.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pgs. 213-217; 2nd ed., pgs. 209-212
The 1996 Surgeon General’s Report on Physical Activity and Health and ACSM’s guidelines (2000)
emphasize that the public can obtain heath benefits from a MINIMUM of _______________.
A. 20 minutes or more of low-intensity physical activity, 3-5 days a week
B. 30 minutes or more of moderate-intensity physical activity, on most, preferably all, days of the week
C. 30 consecutive minutes of moderate-to-high-intensity exercise, 4-5 days a week
D. 20 consecutive minutes of structured, moderate-intensity exercise at least 3-5 days a week
B. 30 minutes or more of moderate-intensity physical activity on most, preferably all, days of the
week
This response is correct. These guidelines were established because previous public health efforts to
promote physical activity overemphasized the importance of high-intensity exercise. The ACSM
recognized that most people prefer a less technical, more informal approach to exercise programming
and developed this guideline to help exercise appear less intimidating to the general public. Additionally,
the ACSM’s latest recommendation allows for the physical activity to be accumulated throughout the day
in shorter bouts of exercise as long as 30 minutes total is accomplished by the end of the day.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pgs. 328-330; 2nd ed., pgs. 310-312
