Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pathology Board Exam > Deck 1 > Flashcards

Deck 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Acquired factor deficiency in patients with systemic amyloidosis?

A

Factor X

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

McCune-Albright Syndrome and mutation?

A

Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia, cutaneous spots, and endocrinopathy. Mutation in GNAS1.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Viral cause of hemorrhagic cystitis?

A

Adenovirus type 11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Most common cause of traveler’s diarrhea?

A

ETEC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Most common cause of bacterial enteritis?

A

Campylobacter jejuni

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is a Phase II citation?

A

Requires documented corrective action within 30 days.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is a Phase I citation?

A

Must be corrected by the next internal inspection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What 3 groups of patients qualify for medicare?

A
  • Age 65 and older
  • Permanently disabled
  • ESRD
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What does medicare part A cover?

A

inpatient care excluding physician services

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What does medicare part B cover?

A

Outpatient services and inpatient physician services

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Technical charges for an inpatient are reimbursed under?

A

DRG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Causes daisy head orangophillic structures on Pap?

A

Tyrosine crystals of pleomorphic adenoma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

IHC profile of GI inflammatory polyps?

A

The spindle-shaped stromal cells are positive for CD34 and vimentin, while they are negative for CD117. A variable number are focally positive for smooth muscle actin and CD68.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

MUC staining in intestinal adenomas?

A

MUC2 positive

MUC1 and MUC5ac negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

MUC staining in pancreatobililary adenocarcinomas?

A

MUC2 negative

MUC1 and MUC5ac positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Recurrence rate for Pleomorphic Adenoma with positive margin?

A

Up to 1/3 of cases (old data), better now.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Poorly circumscribed dermal tumors composed of irregularly shaped islands and cords of basaloid cells that fit together like the pieces of a jigsaw puzzle.

A

Cylindromas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Adult classic seminomas, nonseminomatous, and mixed germ cell tumors are characterized by these two features?

A

intratubular germ cell neoplasia and i(12p).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

IHC profile of medullary thyroid carcinoma?

A
  • Thyroglobulin negative

- Calcitonin, carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA), chromogranin, synaptophysin, and thyroid transcription factor 1 (TTF-1).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What virus causes molluscum contagiousum and what is the inclusion called?

A

Pox-virus (molluscum contagiosum virus)

Henderson-Patterson bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the hallmark alteration in oligodendrogliomas?

A

Concurrent deletion of chromosomal arms 1p and 19q

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Persistence of amyloid beyond 5 days is suggestive of?

A

Pancreatic Pseudocyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Amylase or lipase is most specific for pancreatitis?

A

Lipase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Increased Amylase
Normal CEA
Increased CA 19-9

Indicative of which pancreatic cyst?

A

Pseudocyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Decreased Amylase
Decreased CEA
Decreased CA 19-9

Indicative of which pancreatic cyst?

A

Serous cystadenoma or Solid pseudo papillary tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Normal Amylase
Increased CEA
Increased CA 19-9

Indicative of which pancreatic cyst?

A

Mutinous cystadenoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Increased Amylase
Increased CEA
Normal to increased CA 19-9

Indicative of which pancreatic cyst?

A

IPMN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are Heinz bodies and what stain is used to observe them?

A
  • Denatured hemoglobin

- Supravital stains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How long must cytology slides retained?

A

5 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Translocation observed in nodular fasciitis and aneurysmal bone cyst?

A

t(17;22) - MYH9-USP6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What stain is specific for infantile hemangioma?

A

GLUT-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the most common post-radiation sarcoma?

A

Undifferentiated pleomorphic sarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Alicia blue at pH 2.5 stains which cells?

A

Goblet cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Microscopic colitidies are more prominent in which portions of the colon?

A

Right and transverse colon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Duret hemorrhages result from?

A

Uncal herniation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

True or false: MelanA stains the adrenal cortex?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Characteristics of IgG and IgM in regards to complement fixation and hemolysis pattern?

A

IgM - readily fixes complement and result in intravascular hemolysis
IgG - doesn’t as readily fix complement and results in extravascular hemolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What proportion of cases of arrhythmogenic cardiomyopathy are inherited in an AD manner?

A

Approximately half of cases of arrhythmogenic cardiomyopathy are autosomal dominant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is lymphomatoid granulomatosis?

A

Epstein-Barr virus-positive pulmonary lymphoma of B-cell origin. Lymphomatoid granulomatosis is a nodular pulmonary process characterized by vasculocentric necrotic nodules. The vessels can often show lifting of endothelium by the invading lymphocytes. The skin and CNS can also be involved.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the most common malignant salivary gland tumor overall?

A

Mucoepidermoid carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the most common malignant salivary gland tumor of the parotid?

A

Mucoepidermoid carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the most common malignant salivary gland tumor of the submandibular and sublingual glands?

A

Adenoid cystic carcinoma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Name two syndromes associated with fibrothecoma?

A

Meigs syndrome (fibroma, ascites, and right hydrothorax) and Gorlin (basal cell nevus) syndrome.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are the characteristic histopathologic findings of lupus erythematous skin involvement?

A

vacuolar (hydropic) alteration of the basal layer of the epidermis, a thickened basement membrane zone, interstitial mucin deposition in the dermis, and a lymphocytic inflammatory infiltrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

CD34 staining in DFSP.

A

Positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

CD34 staining in DF?

A

Negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the most common lymphoma of the thyroid?

A

DLBCL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

t(15;17) is seen in?

A

Acute promyelocytic leukemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Age associated with good and poor prognosis in neuroblastoma?

A

Good <1 yo

Poor >5 yo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

MKI index considered intermediate in neuroblastoma?

A

100-200

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

MKI index considered high in neuroblastoma?

A

> 200

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Anti–Saccharomyces cerevisiae antibody (ASCA) test is associated with which type of IBD?

A

Crohn’s disease (65% of patients, only 15% in UC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What rheumatologic condition may have organizing pneumonia?

A

RA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

When are glycjogenated hepatocytes seen?

A

Diabetics with poor glucose control.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is the commonest and second most common locations for rhabdomyosarcoma?

A
  1. head and neck (50%)

2. GU (30%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

The top three locations of GI carcinoid tumor?

A
  1. Small intestine
  2. Appendix
  3. Rectum
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

IHC profile of carcinoid tumor (and one additional stain in rectal carcinoids)?

A

positive for synaptophysin, chromogranin, and neuron-specific enolase
Rectal carcinoids are positive for PAP, but not PSA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Basophilic stippling can be found in which conditions?

A

lead intoxication, thalassemias, hemoglobinopathies, myelodysplasias, and megaloblastic anemia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

PFA-100 result:

• ADP normal and EPI normal =

A

Normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

PFA-100 result:

• ADP normal and EPI abnormal =

A

aspirin, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

PFA-100 result

• ADP abnormal and EPI abnormal =

A

Bernard Soulier (BS) syndrome, Glanzmann thrombasthenia, von Willebrand disease, and so on.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

In regards to pathophysiology, HSP is considered a systemic form of?

A

IgA nephropathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

HSP symptoms include

A

Purpura (predominantly involving the lower extremities), arthralgias, abdominal pain, and hematuria.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is the finding in skin in patients with HSP?

A

Leukocytoclastic vasculitis with IgA deposition.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Immunohistochemically, clear cell renal cell carcinoma is positive for?

A

epithelial membrane antigen (EMA)+, Pan CK/Cam 5.2+, CK7/20 -, Carbonic Anhydrase 9 (CA-9+, Vimentin+, CD10+, RCC+, Pax-2+, and Pax-8+.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Loss of short arm of chromosome 3 is seen in?

A

Clear cell RCC associated with VHL.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What molecule is the receptor for EBV entry into the cell?

A

CD21

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What are the genes associated with MHC 1

A

HLA-A, -B, -C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What cells have MHC-1 on their surface?

A

All nucleated cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

MHC-1 presents what peptides?

A

Internal self-peptides and viral peptides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Cytotoxic CD8+ T cells recognize which MHC?

A

MHC-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What are the genes associated with MHC 2

A

HLA-DR, -DP, -DQ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What cells have MHC-2 on their surface?

A

APCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

MHC-2 presents what peptides?

A

Exogenous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

CD4+ T cells recognize which MHC?

A

MHC-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

A differentiating characteristic of A. fumigatus is its ability to grow at XX°C.

A

45°C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Cysticercosis is caused by?

A

pork tapeworm, Taenia solium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Virus most commonly implicated in endocervical neoplasia?

A

HPV-18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Virus most commonly implicated in squamous cervical neoplasia?

A

HPV-16

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Fibrous dysplasia does or does not have osteoblast rimming?

A

Does not have

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What is Kasabach-Merritt Syndrome?

A

Angiomatosis resulting in thrombocytopenia and consumptive coagulopathy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What jaw tumor is associated with nevoid basal cell carcinoma syndomre?

A

Odontogenic keratocyst.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

How do Erhheim-Chester disease histiocytes stain in regards to S100 and CD1a?

A

Variable S100 positivity, negative for CD1a.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What infection is associated with pulmonary alveolar proteinosis?

A

Nocardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

The most common cause of lymphocytic myocarditis?

A

Viral myocarditis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Aggregates of large histiocytes with basophilic cytoplasm, vesicular nuclei, and a central bar of chromatin in the myocardium represent a?

A

Aschoff body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What cells make up the Aschoff body?

A

Anitschow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

EM finding associated with anthracycline cardiotoxicity?

A

sarcotubular dilatation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Liver findings in AD and AR PKD?

A

AD: hepatic cysts
AR: congénital hepatic fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Klippel-Trenaunay syndrome is associated with what kidney tumor?

A

Hemangioma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Tuberous sclerosis is characterized by?

A

AML of the kidney, cardiac rhabdomyoma, and adenoma sebaceum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What is the most common germ cell tumor in prepubescent boys?

A

Yolk sac tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

How much blood is usually collected at a donation and what volume constitutes a short filled unit?

A

Normal: 450 +/- 50

Short filled: 300-404

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

A receiving blood bank must complete what testing on blood units?

A

ABO and Rh typing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Anti-B test reagent color

A

Yellow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Anti A test reagent color

A

Blue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

How many antigens must be tested on an antibody panel?

A

at least 18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

How long can infant blood need not be crossmatched?

A

4 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What may happen if LR is transfused in the same line as blood products?

A

Thrombosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What may happen if Dextrose or hypotonic solutions are transfused in the same line as blood products?

A

hemolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Most common cause of community acquired pneumonia?

A

S. pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Common pathogens causing pneumonia in patients with COPD?

A

H. influenzae, M. catarrhalis, Legionella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Most common cause of croup?

A

Parainfluenza virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Most common cause of bronchiolitis in children?

A

RSV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Platelet adhesion is mediated by?

A

GP1b - vWF receptor

GB1a-IIa - collagen receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Platelet aggregation mediated by?

A

GBIIb-IIIa - fibrinogen receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What activates GBIb in vivo and in vitro?

A

In vivo - shear forces

In vitro - ristocetin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What do platelet alpha granules contain?

A

Fibrinogen, PDGF, vWF, P-selectin, PF-4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

What do platelet dense granules contain?

A

ADP, ATP, Ca2+, and 5-HT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

How is the extrinsic coagulation cascade “linked” to the intrinsic cascade?

A

Factor VIIa is capable of activating IX to IXa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

What markers are on the lymphoid stem cell?

A

CD34+, TdT+, HLA-DR+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Pro-B cell immunophenotype?

A

CD34+, TdT+, HLA-DR+

CD19+, CD10+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Pre-B cell immunophontype?

A

CD34-, TdT-, HLA-DR+

CD19+, CD10+, CD20+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

B cell immunophonotype?

A

CD34-, TdT-, HLA-DR+

CD19+, CD10+, CD20+, CD21+, CD22+ surface Ig

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Plasma cell phenotype?

A

CD34-, TdT-, HLA-DR+

CD19-, CD10-, CD20-, CD21-, CD22- cytoplasmic Ig

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Pro-thymocyte immunophyenotype?

A

CD34+. TdT+, CD7+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Immature/common thymocyte immunophenotype?

A

CD34-, TdT+, CD7+

CD1+, CD2+, cCD3+, CD3-, CD5+. CD4+. CD8+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Mature thymocytre/T cell immunophynotype?

A

CD34-, TdT-, CD7+

CD1-, CD2+, CD3+, CD5+. CD4 or CD8+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

What immunoglobulins are on the surface of B cells?

A

IgM and IgD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

What percentage of the peripheral blood lymphocytes are T cells?

A

65%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Normal CD4 to CD8 ratio?

A

2:1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

95% of T cells carry this receptor while the other 5% this receptor?

A

95% - alpha beta

5% - gamma delta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

TCR expressed in association with this CD molecule?

A

CD3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

What is the major and minor normal adult hemoglobins?

A

HbA and HbA2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

What makes up hemoglobin A?

A

alpha2 beta2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

What makes up hemoglobin A2?

A

alpha2 delta2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

What makes up hemoglobin F?

A

alpha2 gamma2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

What is the incidence of HbS trait in african americans?

A

10%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

What is hemoglobin S?

A

Beta chain allele with encodes valine in place of glutamate at position 6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

What does hemoglobin SA electrophoresis look like?

A

35-45% HbS, 50-65% HbA, <3% HbA2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

How long do red cells survive in HbSS?

A

17 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

What does hemoglobin SS electrophoresis look like?

A

> 80% HbS, 1-20% HbF, 1-4% HbA2, 0% HbA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

What is hemoglobin C?

A

Beta chain allele with encodes lysine in place of glutamate at position 6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

What is the second most common abnormal hemoglobin after S and what is its structure?

A

Hemoglobin E - beta26 (glu-lys)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Which hemoglobins run with S on alkaline gel?

A

HbD and HbG and Lepore

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

15% hemoglobin S is questionable for?

A

Hemoglobin Lepore

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

What is Hb Lepore and how does it present clinically?

A

Fusion of delta and beta genes

It presents with thallasemic indices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

What abnormal hemoglobin is characterized by a mutation in the alpha gene which produces an abnormally long transcript?

A

Hb constant springs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

What shifts the oxygen dissociation curve to the left?

A

Alkalosis
Hypothermia
Decreased 2,3 DPG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

What shifts the oxygen dissociation curve to the right?

A

Acidosis
Hyperthermia
increased 2,3-DPG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

What is methemoglobin and how is it treated?

A

Hemoglobin with Fe3+ instead of Fe2+, cannot bind O2

Tx: Methylene blue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

What level of Hi can cause cyanosis?

A

10%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

What level of SHb can cause cyanosis?

A

3-4%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

What bacterial infection is associated with sulfhemoglobin?

A

C. perfringens bacteremia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

What HbCO level is expected in a smoker?

A

2-6%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

Symptoms of carboxyhemoglobin start at this level and become fatal at this level?

A

Symptoms: 10-20%
Fatal: 50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

What is DNA methylation and what is its effect?

A

Methylation affects cysteine moieties location in CpG island which leads to decreased transcription - basis of epigenetic modification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

Histone acetylation has what effect on DNT?

A

increased DNA transcription

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

Most common cause of hospital acquired endocarditis?

A

Enterococcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

Most common genetic abnormalities in CMML?

A

trisomy 8, monosomy 7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

CD34 and BCL-2 staining in solitary fibrous tumor?

A

Positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

What is the two most common genetic alterations in BE?

A
  • inactivation of the p16 INK4A/CDKN

- loss or mutations of p53

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

What is the risk of cancer in patients with BE with and without dysplasia?

A
  • without dysplasia, is approximately 2%.

- high-grade dysplasia ranges from 16% to 59%.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

How is the anion gap calculated?

A

Anion gap = Na+–(Cl– + HCO3–)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

How is the standard deviation index calculated?

A

SDI = (lab result – peer group mean)/peer group standard deviation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

What is accuracy?

A

How close a value is to the true value?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

What is precision?

A

How reproducible is the value?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

What is the immunophenotype of MF?

A

CD2+, CD3+, CD4+, CD5+, and CD8− T-cell infiltrate. Lesions often show an absence of CD7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

MF with CD30+ cells indicates?

A

Poor Prognosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

Immunophenotype of CLL/SLL

A

CD19 positive, CD20 positive (dim), CD5 positive, CD23 positive, CD43 positive/negative, FMC7 negative to dim, and dim surface light chain immunoglobulin expression.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

Howell-Jolly Bodies represent ______ and are seen in patients with _________?

A

DNA, asplenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

AML with in(16) results in this morphology, is associated with this genetic abnormality, and portends a better or worse prognosis?

A

Prominent eosinophils are seen
CBFB-MYH11 fusion protein
Good prognosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

Typical staining of adenoid cystic carcinoma of the breast?

A

ER, PR, Her2 negative

CD117+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

Patients with adenoid cystic carcinoma of the breast have a _______ prognosis?

A

Good

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

Invasive cribriform carcinoma of the breast has a favorable or unfavorable prognosis?

A

Favorable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

The low grade neoplasia pathway in breast pathology is associated with this genetic aberration?

A

loss of 16q

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

Which one of the following is most commonly associated with transfusion-transmitted sepsis after transfusion of red blood cells (RBCs)?

A

Yersinia enterocolitica

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

APC gene mutations are associated with these syndrome?

A

FAP, Gardner Syndrome, Turcot Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

Genetic mutation seen in Putz-Jegher Syndrome?

A

STK11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

How do you calculate a likelihood ratio?

A

Sensitivity/(1-specificity)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

How do you calculate post-test probability?

A

post-test odds = pretest odds × likelihood ratio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

How do you calculate pre-test odds?

A

pretest odds = [pretest probability/(1 – pretest probability)]

or

pretest odds = [disease prevalence/(1 – disease prevalence)]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

According to the Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments of 1988 (CLIA’88), point-of-care testing (POCT) programs must keep their records of all quality control activities for at least ____________.

A

2 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

Hyperleukocytosis has what effect on potassium levels?

A

Pseduohyper or hypokalemia?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

What causes primary hyperparathyroidism in 85% of patients?

A

A single parathyroid adenoma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

Postinfantile giant cell transformation (PIGCT) of the liver is seen in?

A

autoimmune hepatitis, HCV infection with or without HIV confection, drug hepatotoxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

Immunoprofile of HCC?

A 
CK7/20 -
HepPar1 +
polyclonal CEA +
Glypican3 +
HSP70+
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

Typical IHC profile of chromophobe carcinoma?

A

CK7+, CK20-
KIT+
PAX2-
Colloidal iron+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

Typical genetics of chromphobe carcinoma?

A

Loss of multiple chromosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

Flow cytometric diagnosis of PNH relies on identification of decreased levels of these two red cell surface proteins?

A

CD55, CD59

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

grading of endometrioid adenocarincoma?

A

Grade 1: <5% solid
Grade 2: 5-50% solid
Grade 3: >50% solid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

Fusobacterium nucleatum is ________ for indole reactionn and _________ for lipase reaction?

A

Positive for both

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

What is the most frequent translocation in Endometrial stromal sarcoma?

A

t(7;17)(p15;q21) resulting in a JAZF1/SUZ12 fusion product.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

p16 staining in micro glandular hyperplasia?

A

negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

IgA IF pattern in dermatitis herpetiformis?

A

Granular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

Order engraftment time from shortest to longest amounts these HPSC collection techniques: cord-derived, peripheral blood-derived, marrow-derived?

A

peripheral blood
marrow
cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

Order risk of GVHD from greatest to least regarding these HPSC collection techniques: cord-derived, peripheral blood-derived, marrow-derived?

A

Peripheral blood
marrow
cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

Classify these cytogenetic aberrations in CLL/SLL as either good or bad prognostic indicators: del13q, del TP53(17p13), monosomy 13, and deletion ATM (11q22)?

A
  • deletion 13q or monosomy 13 predict a good prognosis.

- TP53 (17p13) and ATM (11q22) deletions individually, or in combination, predict a poor response to treatment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

IHC profile of DSRCT?

A

variable positivity for several keratins, EMA, desmin, NSE, and vimentin and shows consistent nuclear expression of WT1-C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

Fusion partners in DSRCT t(11;22)?

A

EWS and WT-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

Neutrophils are activated mostly by this cytokine?

A

IL-8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

Eosinophilic inflammation is driven by this cytokine?

A

IL-5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

The complement factor acts as an opsonin and leads to phagocytosis of the foreign substance?

A

C3b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

These complement members make up the membrane attack complex?

A

C5-C9 (C5b6789)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

These two complement proteins promote the release of histamine from basophils and are referred to as anaphylatoxins?

A

C3a and C5a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

What is the genetic locus of the MHC?

A

Chromosome 6p

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q 
What is typical in thalassemia regarding:
Hemoglobin and Hematocrit:
RBC Count:
MCV:
Peripheral Smear:
A

Hemoglobin and Hematocrit: low
RBC Count: normal to elevated
MCV: lower than in IDA
Peripheral Smear: microcytosis, target cells, basophilic stippling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

The type of antibody in WAIHA is a ______ typically with broad reactivity against ___________

A

IgG, Rh antigens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
199
Q

The type of antibody in CAD/CAIHA is a ______ typically reactivity against ___________

A

IgM, I antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
200
Q

CAIHA with anti-I or Anti-i can be caused by these viruses?

A

Anti-I: mycoplasma pneumonia

Anti-i: EBV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
201
Q

Peripheral blood neutrophils with phagocytosed RBCs is seen in?

A

Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
202
Q

What is the Donath-Landsteiner Antibody?

A

IgG biphasic hemolysin with anti-P specificity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
203
Q

What are cryoglobulins?

A

Immunoglobulins that precipitate reversibly at low temperatures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
204
Q

What is type 1 cryoglobulinemia?

A

Monoclonal immunoglobulins seen in multiple myeloma of Waldenstroms macroglobulenemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
205
Q

What is type 2 cryoglobulinemia?

A

Monoclonal IgM and polyclonal IgG

IgM has RA activity (anti-IgG)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
206
Q

What is type 3 cryoglobulinemia?

A

Mixture of w polyclonal immunoglobulins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
207
Q

Mutations in this gene are associated with PNH?

A

PIG-A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
208
Q

LAP score in PNA?

A

Low

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
209
Q

Translocation and fusion partners in PNET/Ewing’s sarcoma

A

t(11;22)(q24;q11) - FLI-1 and EWS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
210
Q

translocation in Clear Cell Sarcoma?

A

t(12;22)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
211
Q

translocation in secretory carcinoma of the breast and mammary analog secretary carcinoma of the salivary gland?

A

t(12;15) ETV6-NTRK3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
212
Q

t(11;19) - CRCT1-MAML2 is seen in which head and neck malignancy?

A

Mucoepidermoid carcinoma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
213
Q

Mutations in this protein lead to hereditary hemochromatosis?

A

HFE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
214
Q

Bacteria commonly found with T. vaginalis infection?

A

Leptothrix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
215
Q

Quad screen results expected in trisomy 18?

A

All normal or decreased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
216
Q

What cell is used to culture C. trachoma’s?

A

McCoy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
217
Q

What are Donovan bodies?

A

Bipolar stained rods in macrophages or monocytes in Donovan’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
218
Q

Appearance of V. cholerae on TCBS agar and what does that colony color indicate?

A

Yellow, sucrose fermentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
219
Q

The most common translocation and partners seen in ALCL?

A

t(2;5) - NPM-ALK

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
220
Q

ALK rearrangement in lung adenocarincomas is associated with these fusion gene?

A

ALK/EML4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
221
Q

Expected normal platelet aggregometry response to ristocetin 0.8 mg/mL and 1.2 mg/mL?

A
  1. 8 - little response

1. 2 - aggregation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
222
Q

A poor response to all agonists except ristocetin is indicative of?

A

Glanzmann thrombasthenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
223
Q

A response to everything but ristocetin is indicative of?

A

vWD or Bernard-Soulier Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
224
Q

The majority of immunodeficiencies affect ________ as they are typically inherited in this manner?

A

boys, x-linked

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
225
Q

Recurrent bacterial infections, especially of the upper aerodigestive tract, as well as chronic G. intestinalis infection may indicate?

A

And immunoglobulin or B cell defect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
226
Q

Increased susceptibility to viral or fungal opportunistic infections can be seen with defects in?

A

T cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
227
Q

Defects in this system lead to infection with catalase positive organisms?

A

Phagocyte system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
228
Q

Defects in this portion of the innate immune system leads to infection with encapsulated bacteria?

A

Terminal complement disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
229
Q

Staining profile of PLGA?

A

S100 and EMA - strong and diffuse
CEA - variable
CKIT - weak positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
230
Q

Staining profile of adenoid cystic carcinoma of the salivary gland?

A

S100 - variable
EMA and CEA - luminal cells
CKIT - strongly positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
231
Q

t(8;21) results in this morphology in AML?

A

Myeloblasts with neurtophillic differentiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
232
Q

What are the fusion partners in t(8;21) AML?

A

RUNX1-RUNX1T1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
233
Q

Myelomonocytic or monocytic differentiation in AML may be due to this translocation?

A

t(9;11)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
234
Q

Gliomas may stain with this cytokeratin?

A

AE1/AE3 due to cross reactivity with GFAP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
235
Q

Desmoplastic melanomas stain for these melanoma markers?

A

S100 and SOX10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
236
Q

These coagulation factors of the intrinsic pathway does not result in clinically significant bleeding when deficient?

A

prekallikrein, factor XII, and high-molecular-weight kininogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
237
Q

Immunoreactivity of meningiomas?

A

EMA and vimentin positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
238
Q

T. whippeli gram stain?

A

gram+, classified as an actinomycete

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
239
Q

Where do atypical fibroxanthomas occur and who gets them?

A

atypical fibroxanthomas (AFXs) occur in the dermis of the sun-damaged skin of older individuals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
240
Q

IHC profile of atypical fibroxanthoma?

A

CD34 negative, and express myofibroblastic markers, such as smooth muscle actin (SMA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
241
Q

Number of cells required in a conventional pap?

A

8,000-12,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
242
Q

Number of cells required in a thin-prep pap?

A

5000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
243
Q

Triad observed in toxoplasma lymphadenitis?

A

follicular hyperplasia
clusters of epithelioid histiocytes
infiltration of monocytoid B cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
244
Q

FDA irradiation requirements for blood products?

A

15 Gy to periphery of unit, 25 Gy to center of unit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
245
Q

Group A has this added to its carbohydrate moiety to make it group A.

A

N-acetylgalactosamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
246
Q

Group B has this added to its carbohydrate moiety to make it group B.

A

Galactose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
247
Q

Homocysteine and methymalonic acid levels in B12 and folate deficiency?

A

B12: elevated MMA and Homocysteine
Folate: normal MMA and elevated homocysteine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
248
Q

MEN2B consists of?

A

medullary thyroid carincoma, pheochromocytoma, and multiple ganlglioneuromas.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
249
Q

MEN1 consists of?

A

pancreatic neuroendocrine tumors
pituitary adenomas
parathyroid hyperplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
250
Q

MEN2A consists of?

A

medullary thyroid carincoma, pheochromocytoma, parathyroid hyperplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
251
Q

What syndrome has multiple colon polyps and brain tumors?

A

Turcot syndrome

either associated with FAP or Lynch syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
252
Q

What syndrome is characterized by multiple colon polyps, jaw tumors, and fibromatosiss?

A

Gardner’s syndrome

associated with APC gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
253
Q

The most common malignant sarcoma primary to the heart is?

A

Angiosarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
254
Q

t(x;17) is seen in?

A

ASPS TFE-ASPL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
255
Q

Myelomonocystic leukemia would be positive for these markers?

A

CD11c CD64, CD33 and CD13.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
256
Q

What happens to hepcidin levels when a patient has hemochromatosis.

A

levels are low

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
257
Q

• Microcytosis + normal iron studies + normal hemoglobin fractionation pattern (no variants; hemoglobin A, A2, and F within the reference range) is a presumptive diagnosis of?

A

α-thalassemia trait.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
258
Q

• Microcytosis + normal iron studies + elevated hemoglobin A2 is a presumptive diagnosis of?

A

β-thalassemia trait.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
259
Q

Transient abnormal myelopoeisis observed in trisomy 21 is associated with myeloid proliferation typically of this lineage?

A

Megakaryocytic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
260
Q

Mutations in this gene are seen in patient’s with trisomy 21 with myeloid neoplasms?

A

GATA-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
261
Q

cytokeratins expressed in clear cell rcc?

A

CK8, CK18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
262
Q

Thiamine deficiency can lead to this gross finding in the brain?

A

atrophy of the mammillary bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
263
Q

Serum ceruloplasmin levels and urinary copper levels in Wilson’s disease?

A

Ceruloplasmin - low, urine Ca2+ elevated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
264
Q

Mutations in this gene cause Wilson’s disease?

A

ATP7B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
265
Q

Flow cytometric diagnosis of Glanzmann thrombasthenia is done by identifying loss of either of these markers?

A

GPIIb (CD41) and GPIIIa (CD61)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
266
Q

What are the acrocentric chromosomes?

A

13, 14, 15, 21, and 22

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
267
Q

Tumor marker of ovarian carcinoma?

A

CA-125

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
268
Q

CEA is a tumor marker of?

A

Pancreatic and gastrointestinal cancers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
269
Q

CA-19-9 is a tumor marker of?

A

Pancreatic adenocarinocma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
270
Q

Salivary duct carcinoma resembles this neoplasm and has this immunoprofile?

A 
IDC of the breast
AR+
GCDFP+
HEr2Neu+
PSA (50%)
PR (6%)
ER (1%)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
271
Q

Renal papillary necrosis occurs in these four settings?

A

obstructive pyelonephritis, diabetic nephropathy, sickle cell anemia, and analgesic abuse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
272
Q

Pilomatrixoma is also known as?

A

Malherbe calcifying epithelioma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
273
Q

Most common Rh-positive Weiner haplotype in whites?

A

R1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
274
Q

Most common Rh-positive haplotype in blacks?

A

R0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
275
Q

The most common Rh-negative Rh haplotype?

A

r

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
276
Q

infantile precursor B-cell lymphoblastic leukemia is associated with this gene and translocation.

A

MLL gene on 11q23

t(4;11).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
277
Q

Immunohistochemical staining for YST?

A

YST is positive for α-fetoprotein (AFP) and cytokeratin. CEA, vimentin, and PLAP show variable positivity. EMA, CD30, and CD99 are negative.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
278
Q

What non-GI tumors are seen in Peutz-Jegher Syndrome?

A

Women: adenoma malignum and SCTAT
Men: Sertoli cell tumors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
279
Q

What GI polyp is associated with hypokalemia?

A

villous adenoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
280
Q

Genetic alteration seen in hibernoma?

A

11q13

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
281
Q

Genetic alteration seen in myxoid liposarcoma?

A

t(12;16)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
282
Q

Genetic alteration seen in well-differentiated liposarcoma?

A

Ring chromosome 12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
283
Q

Genetic alteration seen in lipoblastoma?

A

8q11-13

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
284
Q

Genetic alteration seen in spindle/pleomorphic lipoma?

A

16q13

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
285
Q

Microglandular adenosine has myoepithelial cells, true or false?

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
286
Q

Describe myxofibrosarcoma?

A

Grossly MFS is a multinodular neoplasm composed of gelatinous or fibrous nodules. Microscopically the tumor nodules are lined by fibrous septa and are composed of myxoid to fibrous matrix in variable proportions. The myxoid areas contain curvilinear vessels with perivascular tumor cell condensation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
287
Q

Autoantibody seen in primary biliary cirrhosis?

A

Anti-mitochondrial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
288
Q

Enzyme important to the development of HDL?

A

LCAT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
289
Q

HTLV-1 is the causative agent of?

A

ATLL as well as tropical spastic paraparesis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
290
Q

What is the immunophenotype of ATLL?

A

CD2+, CD3+, CD5+, CD7–, CD4+, CD25+, ±FoxP3+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
291
Q

The diagnosis of CLL requires an absolute lymphocyte count of at least ______ for _______ months?

A

5 × 109/L, 3 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
292
Q

vWF levels are 25% higher or lower in patients with type ) blood?

A

lower

293
Q

Which malaria is more common in Asia?

A

P. vivax

294
Q

What is the most common site of extra skeletal plasmacytoma?

A

Upper respiratory tract

295
Q

What is the most sensitive marker of mesothelioma and what is the most sensitive marker of adenocarcinoma?

A

Meso - calretinin

Adeno - BerEp4

296
Q

What is Stewart-Treves Syndrome?

A

Angiosarcoma arising in the breast or axilla following mastectomy with axillary dissection.

297
Q

Where is the most common location for gastric leiomyomas?

A

Cardia

298
Q

Chromogranin or synaptophysin is a better stain for detection of carcinoid tumor?

A

Chromogranin

299
Q

Which variant of rhabdomyosarcoma is associated with a translocation and what is the translocation?

A

Alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma, t(2;13)

300
Q

t(12:22)

A

clear cell sarcoma, EWS-ATF-1 fusion

301
Q

Follicular cervicitis is associated with what infection?

A

C. trachomatis

302
Q

Number of cells required on liquid-based anal pap?

A

2,000-3,000

303
Q

Cardiac fibromas are associated with this syndrome?

A

Ghorlin Syndrom

304
Q

What gene is mutated in Ghorlin’s syndrome?

A

PTC

305
Q

Mucoid intimal edema is a feature of?

A

Thrombotic microangiopathy

306
Q

What is the new name of Wagner’s granulomatosis?

A

Granulomatosis with polyangiitis

307
Q

What is the new name of Churg-Strauss syndrome?

A

Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis

308
Q

What gene is mutated in Ehler’s-Danlose Syndrome?

A

COL3A1

309
Q

What is the best serologic test for Celiac Disease?

A

Anti-tissue transglutaminase

310
Q

What HLA halpotypes are associated wit Celiac Disease?

A

DQ2 (95%) and DQ8 (5%)

311
Q

AFP is primarily elevated in this germ cell tumor?

A

Yolk sac

312
Q

What is an Askin tumor?

A

A Ewing sarcoma/PNET of the thoracopulmonary area.

313
Q

What is Munro microabscess?

A

Collection of neutrophils in the stratum corneum.

314
Q

What or the histology features of psoriasis?

A 
Regular elongation of rete ridges
Parakeratosis
Munro microabscesses
Thinning of the Supra papillary plate
Hypogranulosis
Dilated blood vessels in the papillary tips
315
Q

Histology of rheumatoid nodule and granuloma annulare?

A

RN: irregular nodule usually with fibrin in necrobiotic center.
GA: well delineated areas of disintegrated collagen and mucin surrounded by granulomatous inflammation

316
Q

What is Mafucci Syndrome?

A

Multiple enchondromas and hemagiomas

317
Q

What lymphoma most commonly presents as lymphomatous polyposis?

A

Mantle cell lymphoma

318
Q

At what temperature is cryoprecipate formed when thawing plasma?

A

1-6 C

319
Q

What temperature is cryo stored?

A

-18C

320
Q

This thyroid cancer stains strongly for CK19

A

PTC

321
Q

Lacrimal gland or orbital marginal zone lymphomas are associated with this bacterium?

A

Chlamydia psittaci.

322
Q

PAX-8 is positive or negative in the kidney and positive or negative in the urothelium

A

Kidney: positive
Urothelium: negative

323
Q

What type of schwannoma is associated with Carney Complex?

A

psammomatous melanotic schwannoma

324
Q

How long can pooled and unpooled cryo be stored and ta what temp?

A

Pooled - 4 hours
Unpooled - 6 hours
20-24C after thawing at 37C

325
Q

What is analytical specificity?

A

a laboratory test’s ability to measure a particular analyte in the presence of possible interfering substances.

326
Q

Alveolar soft part sarcoma metastasizes to this location with greater frequency compared to other sarcomas?

A

Brain

327
Q

Extra-mammary Paget’s disease is positive for?

A

Low molecular weight keratin, CEA, and EMA.

328
Q

What subtypes of Hodgkin Lymphoma has the best and worst prognoses?

A

Best: Nodular lymphocyte predominant
Worst: Lymphocyte deplete

329
Q

The duffy antigen is the receptor for this microorganism?

A

P. vivax

330
Q

People of African descent have this duffy phenotype?

A

a-, b-

331
Q

What are the acceptable platelet transfusion triggers:

  • Stable non-bleeding patient
  • Bleeding patient, or about to undergo surgical procedure
  • Intracerebral, intraocular, and pulmonary bleeding
A
  • 10
  • 50
  • 100
332
Q

One does of platelets is expected to raise the platelet count by?

A

30-60 K

333
Q

A pure mutinous tumor of the breast is classified as such when >XX% is mutinous?

A

90%

334
Q

IHC profile of seminoma?

A

Keratin - to weak

OCT3/4, CKIT, PLAP, and PAS +

335
Q

What is a pulmonary sequestration?

A

Portions of lung that reviews an aberrant blood supply from branches o the aorta rather than the pulmonary artery.

336
Q

What are two other names for de Quervain’s thyroiditis?

A
  • Granulomatous thyroiditis

- giant cell thyroiditis

337
Q

Pattern of thyroid hormone changes seen in de Quervain’s thyroiditis?

A

Hyperthyroidism followed by a return to the euthyroid state.

338
Q

Acid and gastrin levels in patients with autoimmune atrophic gastritis.

A

Hypochlorhidria and elevated gastrin.

339
Q

Type of adenocarcinoma in patients with H. pylori gastritis?

A

intestinal type

340
Q

MLH1 loss is due to ________ and results in decreased expression of these proteins by IHC?

A

Hypermethylation, decreased MLH1 and PMS2

341
Q

Intermediate trophoblasts stain strongly with?

A

HPL

342
Q

How does medullary thyroid carcinoma metastasize?

A

Veins and lymphatics

343
Q

What is the Regan isoenzyme?

A

Placental ALP produced by a malignancy

344
Q

In regards to ALP isoenzymes, liver ______, and bone _______?

A

Liver lasts and bone burns

345
Q

How can the MCV be calculated?

A

HCT/RBC

346
Q

Breast tumor marker?

A

CA-15.3

347
Q

What antigens are diminished by enzyme treatment with ficin or papain?

A

Duffy, M, and N, Lutheran, Chido, Rodgers

348
Q

How is plasma volume calculated?

A

Plasma volume is calculated as (1 – hematocrit) × 0.7 dL/kg × body mass (kg)

349
Q

How does one dose cryoglobulin?

A

: Dose (units) = [post-fibrinogen (mg/dL) – pre-fibrinogen (mg/dL) × plasma volume]/250 mg/unit.

350
Q

Pulmonary malakoplakia can be caused by this organism?

Urinary tract?

A

Pulm - Rhodococcus equi

UT - E. coli

351
Q

Granulocyte yields below this level are considered ineffective when transfused into a neutropenic patient?

A

1 x 10^10

352
Q

What temperature are granulocytes stored and what is their expiration?

A

20-24C, 24 hours

353
Q

Temp that RBCs should be stored?

A

1-10C

354
Q

What renal tumor is associated with polycythemia

A

Metanephric adenoma

355
Q

Staining of nephrogenic adenoma?

A

PAX2 and PAX8+
Most negative for PSA
Can be positive for racemase

356
Q

The preferred cardiac biomarker is __________, followed by ____________ if the preferred marker is unavailable.

A

Troponin T, CK-MB

357
Q

How do you calculate the reticulocyte index and reticulocyte production index?

A

Reticulocyte index = reticulocytes × HCT/normal HCT

Reticulocyte production index = (reticulocytes × HCT)/(normal HCT × correction factor).

358
Q

What is the most common cranial neoplasm in tuberous sclerosis?

A

SEGA

359
Q

Translocation seen in follicular lymphoma?

A

t(14;18)

360
Q

CD34, bel-2, and CD10 staining in trichoepitheliomas vs basal cell carcinoma.

A
  • Focal positive CD34 staining of the fibroblastic stroma has been seen in trichoepitheliomas, whereas it is negative in basal cell carcinoma.
  • Staining of the outermost epithelial layer for bcl-2 has been seen in trichoepithelioma. In contrast, the tumor islands of basal cell carcinoma usually stain diffusely.
  • Immunohistochemistry for CD10 stains the stromal cells but not the epithelial cells in trichoepithelioma, whereas it stains the epithelial cells in basal cell carcinoma.
361
Q

The most common CNS lymphoma is ?

CNS lymphomas are radiosensitive, true or false?

A
  • DLBCL

- Radiosensitive

362
Q

Members of this mycobacterial group stain for these non-bacterial stains?

A

Members of Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC), but not M. tuberculosis, may stain positively for desmin, actin, and cytokeratin.

363
Q

What is the carney complex?

A

abnormal skin pigmentation, cutaneous and cardiac myxomas, and abnormalities of the endocrine system (adrenal, pituitary, thyroid).

364
Q

How do myxomas stain?

A

Myxoma cells stain positively for endothelial markers CD34 and CD31 and are variably positive for S-100. Calretinin has been reported positive in 74% to 100% of cases and can be useful to distinguish this lesion from a myxoid thrombus. Tumor cells are negative for cytokeratin, but heterologous glands show positivity.

365
Q

CK7 staining in:

  • Conventional clear cell RCC
  • Chromophobe RCC
  • Papillary RCC
A

Conventional RCC: negative

Chromophore and papillary: positive

366
Q

What lineage does each of the markers indicate?

  • Anti-CD18
  • Anti-CD33
  • Anti-CD61
  • Anti-CD71
A
  • Anti-CD18 monocytic
  • Anti-CD33 myeloid
  • Anti-CD61 megakaryocytic
  • Anti-CD71 erythroid lineage
367
Q

Is CD31 or CD34 more specific and sensitive for vascular tumors?

A

CD31

368
Q

Translocation seen in DFSP?

A

t(17;22) translocation or ring chromosomes that contain this fusion - COL1A1–PDGFB

369
Q

Infantile fibrosarcoma and the related cellular congenital mesoblastic nephrona carry which fusion?

A

ETV6–NTRK3

370
Q

What is the most common enzyme deficiency of the glycolytic pathway?

A

Pyruvate kinase deficiency.

371
Q

Grade 2 carcinoids (atypical carcinoids) are defined by?

A

2-10 mitoses/10 HPF

372
Q

What is the Azzopardi effect and where is it seen?

A

Smudged densely basophilic nucleic acid accretions adjacent to tumoral blood vessels in small cell carcinomas.

373
Q

Describe the EGFR mutation in NSCLC?

A

Exon 20 mutations are associated with resistance
Exon 18-24 leads to constitutive activation
Exon 19 and 21 are associated with sensitivity to EGFR inhibitors

374
Q

Urease, indole, and ornithine decarboxylase in P. mirabilis and P. vulgaris?

A

• P. mirabilis and P. vulgaris are both urea positive. Only P. vulgaris is indole positive, and only P. mirabilis is ornithine decarboxylase (ODC) positive.

375
Q

Slide and tube coagulase tests for S. aureus and S. lugdunensis?

A

S. aureus - slide and tube positive

S. lugdunensis - slide positive or negative and tube negative

376
Q 
Indicate shelf life of RBCs:
ACD/CPD/CD2D
CDPA-1
AS
Irradiated units
A

ACD/CPD/CD2D: 21
CDPA-1: 35
AS: 42
Irradiated units: 28 days or original outdate, whichever is sooner

377
Q

How soon after autologous donation can the patient have surgery?

A

3 days

378
Q

T-PLL is characterized by this molecular event?

A

in(14) - involving oncogenes TCL1A and TCL1B

379
Q

SDH mutations, including germline mutations, are associated with these 3 neoplasms?

A

pheochromocytomas, paragangliomas and GIST.

380
Q

Organophosphate poisoning:

  • parasympathetic or sympathetic response?
  • Due to inactivation of?
  • Antidote?``
A

Parasympathetic response
Inactivation of acetylcholinesterase
Atropine

381
Q

What are the zones of the SPEP from left to right?

A

The zones in the SPEP from left to right are: Pre-albumin (contains retinol binding protein and transthyretin) Albumin (contains albumin), Alpha-1 (contains alpha-1-antitrypsin, thyroid-binding globulin, HDL, prothrombin, transcortin and alpha-1 acid glycoprotein (orosomucoid)), Alpha-2 (contains alpha-2-macroglobulin, ceruloplasmin and haptoglobin), beta (contains transferrin, LDL, hemopexin, fibrinogen, C3 and IgA) and the gamma zone (contains immunoglobulins and CRP).

382
Q

The sequence of alkaline gel for hemoglobin electrophoresis is:

A

+(Anode) A F S C (Cathode)-

383
Q

How should FFP be thawed for use?

A

Water bath at 30-37 C or FDA approved microwave

384
Q

What hepatitis virus is a DNA virus?

A

Hepatitis B

385
Q

What is Carney’s triad and what gene is hypermethylated?

A

Pulmonary hamartomas, GIST, and paragangliomas

SDHD

386
Q

How does abciximab work?

A

Monoclonal antibody against GpIIb/IIIa

387
Q

Xp11 translocation renal cell carcinomas are associated with this IHC stain?

A

TFE3

388
Q

t(6;11) renal cell carcinoma is associated with this gene and how do you look for these gene?

A

TFEB, FISH

389
Q

HLRCC is associated with mutations in this gene?

A

fumarate hydrotase

390
Q

What causes Gaucher’s disease?

A

Glucocerebrocidase deficiency

391
Q

What is the most common worm infection in the US? What about tapeworm?

A

Hymenolepis nana (“dwarf tapeworm”) is the most common tapeworm infection in the U.S. (the most common worm infection in the U.S. is Enterobius vermicularis).

392
Q

Which malaria has a banana shipped gametocyte?

A

“FA”lciparum - “FAt banana”

393
Q

What is the characteristic features of chondroblastoma?

A

chicken-wire calcifications

394
Q

What are the types of vWD?

A

Type 1: quantitative deficiency
Type 2: qualitative deficiency
-2A: inability to form large and intermediate multimers, only short multimers present
-2B: increased affinity of vWF for Gp1b, +/- thrombocytopenia - loss of large monomers
-2M: decreased ability of vWF to bind Gp1b
-2N: vWF cannot hold onto FVIII

Type 3: absence of vWF

Platelet type: increased affinity of Gp1b for vWF, similar to type 2B

395
Q

Staining of a plasmacytoma?

A

By IHC, plasmacytoma, is positive for CD138, CD38, CD79a, and kappa or lambda light chain restricted. It may stain for EMA, CD117, or CD56.

396
Q

What SPEP pattern is seen in nephrotic syndrome?

A

Nephrotic syndrome shows hypoproteinemia everywhere except the alpha-2 region, which is increased.

397
Q

Which rRNA is used for rapid identification of fungi?

A

26S

398
Q

Which blood group systems display dosage?

A

Rh, MNS, Kidd, Duffy, and Lutheran blood group systems

399
Q

> 90% of non-erythroid cells are myeloblasts, > 3% are positive for MPO or Sudan Black B, < 10% are granulocytes, and myeloblasts are positive for one or more myeloid related antigen including CD13, CD33 or CD117

A

AML without differentiation

400
Q

Granulocyte transfusion should be given when neutrophils are ??

A

500/uL

401
Q

Which candida organism(s) are most resistant to fluconazole?

A

Candida glabrata, Candida krusei

402
Q

Which candida organism is most resistant to amphotericin B?

A

Candida lusitaniae

403
Q

Staining differences in endometrial and endocervical adenocarincoma?

A

Endometrioid adenocarcinoma: vimentin, ER and PR; endocervical carcinoma: p16, p53, CEA

404
Q

What are the most common mutations in PTC?

A

BRAF, RAS, RET/PTC - mutually exclusive

405
Q

What is the most common mutation in FTC?

A

RET or PAX8/PPARy

406
Q

What happens to blood glucose in POC devices with high and low HCT?

A

High HCT - underestimates glucose

Low HCT - overestimates glucose

407
Q

What is a potential consequence of long term administration of low molecular weight heparin?

A

Osteoporosis

408
Q

Large colony variants of Streptococcus groups C and G were reclassified as? The small colony variants (≤0.5 mm) of groups C and G have been placed in the ______ group.

A

S. dysgalactiae subsp. equisimilis (SDSE).

S. anginosus

409
Q

20% of cases of familial ALS are associated with mutations in?

A

SOD1

410
Q

The largest protozoan and the only ciliate that infects humans?

A

Balantidium coli

411
Q

A band that migrates between CK MB and CK MM?

A

MacroCK, seen in asymptomatic elderly women

412
Q

A band that migrates to the right of CK MM?

A

mitochondrial CK seen in metastatic disease

413
Q

Which aspirgillis is a carcinogen for HCC?

A

A. flavus

414
Q

Benign epididymal tumor in patients with VHL?

A

papillary cystadenoma

415
Q

Describe lichen planus?

A

Lichen planus: thickened layers of the epidermis with apoptosis and Civatte bodies in the basal layer. Sawtooth rete ridges. Band of lymphocytes.

416
Q

Which esterase is specific for granulocytes?

A

Chloracetate esterase

417
Q

Middlebrook agar shows what when growing mycobacteria?

A

Chording

418
Q

A breast sentinel node isolated tumor cell is defined as?

A

malignant cells present no more than 0.2 mm and less than 200 cells.

419
Q

A breast sentinel node micro metastasis is defined as?

A

tumor cell deposit >0.2 mm and/or >200 cells, but <2 mm.

420
Q

Epithelial cells in micro glandular adenosine are strongly positive for?

A

S100

421
Q

Invasive apocrine carcinoma of the breast IHC profile?

A

ER, PR, Her2 negative

AR+, GCDFP+

422
Q

What is the criteria to call a phyllodes tumor malignant?

A

stroll overgrowth, >10/10 mits/10 HPF, infiltrative borders, marked stroll atypia, and increased stroll cellularity.

423
Q

Which cytokine is thought to drive castleman’s disease?

A

IL-6

424
Q

What is the one single best test for iron deficiency anemia?

A

Serum ferritin

425
Q

LD and serum bilirubin in B12 or folate deficiency?

A

High LD, mild to moderate elevation in bilirubin

426
Q

Fanconi’s anemia is considered this type of syndrome and is caused mostly by these 3 genes?

A

Chromosomal breakage syndrome

FANCA, FANCC, FANCG

427
Q

Pure red cell aplasia is also known as?

A

Blackman Diamond Syndrome

428
Q

A high density or over expression of the I antigen on red cells is associated with these 2 anemias?

A

Congenital dyserythropoietic anemia and Blackman Diamond Syndrome

429
Q

What is the WHO definition of anemia?

A 
Men 13
Women 12 (11 if pregnant)
430
Q

Increased indirect bilirubin is associated with intra or extravascular hemolysis?

A

Extravascular

431
Q

In addition to clinical signs and symptoms, these changes in cTnI are associated with myocardial necrosis?

A

If cTnI initially abnormal - >20% change at 3 or 6 hours

If cTnI initially normal - >50% change at 3 or 6 hours

432
Q

What are the negative acute phase reactants?

A

Prealbumim
Albumin
Transferritin

433
Q

In patients receiving chemotherapy, what may herald the onset of neutropenia?

A

Monocytopenia

434
Q

A double spike of albumin denotes?

A

Bisalbuminemia, no clinical consequence.

435
Q

Balanitis xerotica obliteratans is also know as?

A

Lichen sclerosis

436
Q

Which malaria causes cerebral malaria?

A

P. falicparum

437
Q

Carney’s Complex?

A

endocrine neoplasia, atrial myxomas, skin pigmentation and psammomatous melanotic schwannoma.

438
Q

What are the two most frequent types of ectopic epithelium encountered in Meckel’s diverticulum?

A
  1. Gastric

2. Pancreatic

439
Q

What is the target of HPV viral proteins E6 and E7?

A

E6: p53 and telomerase
E7: RB - leads to p16 overexpression

440
Q

Which Candida is associated with neonatal and pediatric invasive infections?

A

C. parapsilosis

441
Q

which meningiomas are grade II?

A

Chordoid and clear cell

442
Q

Which meningiomas are grade III?

A

Rhabdoid and papillary

443
Q

cryptococcus on bird seed agar is this color?

A

Brown

444
Q

IHC profile of chordomas?

A

S100+, EMA+, CK+

445
Q

Tangier’s disease shows absence of?

A

HDL

446
Q

Hemoglobin H

A

(-,-), (-,alpha)

447
Q

The most common clonal molecular alteration in PMF is?

A

Janus kinase 2 V617F (JAK2 V617F)

448
Q

Decomposition will produce this pattern of Na, Cl, and K in vitreous humor?

A

Decreased Na and Cl, increased K

449
Q

Loeffler’s agar shows organisms with metachromatic granules.

A

C. diphtheria

450
Q

For hemoglobin electrophoresis, the correct sequence on alkaline gel is _________, and the correct sequence on acid gel is _____________?

A

+(Anode) A F S C (Cathode) -

+(Anode) C S A F (Cathode)-

451
Q

What cytokine stimulates marrow fibrosis?

A

TGF-beta1

452
Q

Rh-null phenotype results in this red cell deformity?

A

Stomatocytosis

453
Q

Which malaria’s have Schuffner’s dots?

A

P. ovalae and P. vivax

454
Q

he most common antibodies involved in hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn are?

A

anti-D, anti-K, anti-Fya, anti-C and anti-c.

455
Q

Does anti-K cause HDFN?

A

No, but surpasses fetal erythropoiesis.

456
Q

CLL/PLL is defined as?

A

11-55% prolymphocytes

457
Q

Most common cytogenetic abnormality in CLL/SLL?

A

trisomy 12

458
Q

Where do mantle cell lymphomas typically arise?

A

Waldeyer’s run and GI tract

459
Q

Tranlocation in mantle cell lymphoma?

A

t(11;14)

460
Q

Follicular lymphoma is made up of these two types of cells?

A

centrocytes (small cleaved cells)

centroblasts (large noncleaved cells)

461
Q

How is FL graded and what are the grades?

A
  • proportion of centroblasts found in 10 random 40X fields
Grade 1: 0-5
Grade 2: 5-15
Grade 3: >15
     -3A: some residual centrocytes
     -3B: no residual centrocytes
462
Q

MALTomas are this type of lymphoma?

A

MZL

463
Q

In additional to typical B cell markers, Hairy Cell Leukemia is positive for?

A

CD11c, CD25, CD103, annexin A1, and cyclinD1

464
Q

CD5 and CD23 in PLL?

A

both negative

465
Q

Lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma IHC:

A 
CD19/20 +
CD38 +
sIg bright
cIg positive
negative to weak CD5, CD23, CD10
466
Q

Translocation in lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma?

A

t(9;14)

467
Q

Glomus cells are _____ for SMA, and ______ for CD31?`

A

positive, negative

468
Q

The spindle cells of PASH are positive for?

A

SMA and vimentin

469
Q

Hans classification of DLBCL?GC

A

CD10+ (30% of cells) - GCB type
CD10-, BCL-6-, ABC
CD10-, BCL-6+, MUM1+, ABC
CD10-, BCL-6+, MUM1-, GCB

470
Q

BCL6 and BCL2 in primary DLBCL of the CNS?

A

BCL6+

BCL2-

471
Q

Name some of the specific subtypes of DLBCL?

A 
Primary CNS lymphoma
TCHRBCL
Primary mediastinal (thyme) large B cell lymphoma
ALK+ large B cell lymphoma
Plasmablastic lymphoma
Intravascular large B cell lymphoma
PEL
Leg type primary cutaneous DLBCL
EBV+ DLBCL of the elderly
Lymphomatous granulomatosis
DLBCL associated with chronic inflammation
472
Q

EBV+ PTLD usually occurs in this timeframe post-transplant?

A

the 1st year

473
Q

What organ transplants are most susceptible to PTLD?

A

heart-lung and liver-bowel

474
Q

The hallmark of CSF protein electrophoreses is?

A

pre-albumin band

475
Q

Glomerular proteinuria pattern on UPEP?

A

strong albumin, alpha1 and beta bands

476
Q

Tubular proteinuria pattern on UPEP?

A

weak albumin, strong alpha1 and beta bands

477
Q

What must the platelet count be in order to diagnose ET?

A

A platelet count greater than 450 × 109/L

478
Q

What markers can be used to predict the course of IPMN?

A

MUC2

479
Q

Antibodies against these are seen in pemphigus vulgaris?

A

desmoglein III and I

480
Q

Coffin-lid crystals in urine are?

A

Triple phosphate crystals

481
Q

Hand deformities in trisomy 13 and trisomy 18?

A

13 - polydactyly

18 - overlap

482
Q

Translocation seen in MALTomas?

A

t(11;18)

483
Q

What is the normal lifespan of a native and transfused platelet?

A

native: 8-12 days
transfused: 3-4 days

484
Q

What mycobacteria are Runyon group 1 (photochromogens)?

A

M. kanasii, M. simiae, M. marinum and M. asiaticum

485
Q

Mycobacterium ? is a photochromogen at 24 degrees and a scotochromogen at 37 degrees.

A

Mycobacterium szulgai is a photochromogen at 24 degrees and a scotochromogen at 37 degrees.

486
Q

In addition to standard B cell markers, BL is positive for?

A

CD10, bcl-6, and C-myc

487
Q

Difference between LBL and ALL?

A

lesions involving tissue and sparing bone marrow and PB = LBL
>25% marrow or >20% blasts in PB = ALL

488
Q

SPEP with beta-gamma bridging and decreased albumin indicates?

A

Liver cirrhosis

489
Q

What is Evan’s Syndrome?

A

ITP and AIHA

490
Q

Hyperglycemia will cause this to happen to sodium?

A

Physiologic shift out of the cell, causing true hyperglycemia

491
Q

How does one correct sodium for hyperglycemia?

A

[1.6(serum glucose - 100)]/100

492
Q

What is the significance of Ito cells?

A
  • store vitamin A

- can differentiate into myofibroblasts and create fibrosis

493
Q

Stem cells in the liver are located in the?

A

Canal of herring, leads to bile ductule proliferation.

494
Q

Periportal pathologies are?

A

chronic hepatitis, chronic cholestatis (bile ductular reaction)

495
Q

Steatohepatitis is seen in this zone?

A

zone III, centrilobular

496
Q

Two places one sees ground glass hepatocytes?

A

HepB and polypharmacy

497
Q

Portal lymphoid follicles +/- micro vesicular steatosis are seen in?

A

Chronic HepC

498
Q

How do you stage 
chronic hepatitis?

A

Stage: amount of fibrosis:

1: Increased portal fibrosis
2: Fibrosis extends out away from portal tract
3: Bridging fibrosis between portal tracts or from portal tract to central vein
4: Cirrhosis

499
Q

How do you grade 
chronic hepatitis?

A

Grade: look at 2 factors:
1: Degree of interface activity
2: Degree of lobular activity
Increased grade means increased risk of developing fibrosis

500
Q

supernumerary nipples is also known as?

A

Polythelia

501
Q

What are the breast myoepithelial markers?

A

p63, myosin heavy chain, calponin, HMWK (C5/6/14)

502
Q

What are the breast luminal markers?

A

LMWK (CK7,8,18)

503
Q

What antibodies are present in autoimmune hepatitis types 1, 2 and 3?
 Are they IgG or IgM?

A

Increased IgG
Type 1: +ANA or anti-SMA abs (young adult F>M)
Type 2: Anti-LKM abs (liver kidney microsome)
Often seen in kids
Type 3: anti-SLA ab (Soluble liver antigen)

504
Q

Duct ectasia is also know as?

A

Periductal mastitis

505
Q

Amnion nodosum is seen with?

A

Oligohydramnios

506
Q

p62 and ubiquitin stain?

A

Mallory Bodies

507
Q

Idiopathic granulomatous mastitis can be associated with this microorganism?

A

Corynebacterium

508
Q

Where is folate absorbed?

A

Proximal jejunum

509
Q

Ringed sideroblasts form when iron deposits in this organelle?

A

Mitochondria

510
Q

What tumors are known to make EPO?

A

hemangioblastoma, RCC, uterine leiomyoma, HCC

511
Q

60:40:20:15:5

A

Total body water : Intracellular : Extracellular : Interstitial : Plasma

512
Q

Normal A1c
Abnormal A1c
A1c diagnostic of DM

A

Normal A1c <5.7
Abnormal A1c 5.7-6.4
A1c diagnostic of DM 6.5 or above

513
Q

Granulomatous cholangitis?

A

Primary biliary cholangitis (cirrhosis)

514
Q

What is the Tenny-Parker effect?

A

Increased syncytial knots and terminal villous hypoplasia

515
Q

Bile lakes are almost pathognomonic for?

A

Large duct obstruction

516
Q

loss of interlobular bile ducts and foam cell arteriopathy indicate?

A

Chronic rejection

517
Q

LGL leukemia IHC profile?

A

CD2, CD3, CD8, CD16, CD57+

518
Q

LGL leukemia IHC profile?

A

CD2, CD3, CD8, CD16, CD57+ (will be CD3 and CD8 negative if NK type)

519
Q

Long standing celiac disease can give rise to this lymphoma?

A

Enteropathy associated T cell lymphoma

520
Q

EATL IHC?

A

CD3+, CD30+, CD4/8-

521
Q

What is fetal papyraceous?

A

Incorporation of dead twin into placenta

522
Q

What presents with purport fulminans and DIC?

A

homozygous protein C deficiency

523
Q

If peripheral access is not feasible, which central line is preferred in regards to less infection risk?

A

IJ/subclavian over femoral

524
Q

How do you calculate INR?

A

INR = (PT/PTGeoMean)^ISI

525
Q

Normal BUN:Cr and BUN:Cr in pre-renal azotemia?

A

Normal: 10:1

Pre-renal: >20:1, sign of hypoperfusion

526
Q

What is the purpose of the amniotic fluid bilirubin (Delta OD450)?

A

Determine the amount of fetal hemolysis

527
Q

What is a potential normal site of HCG secretion in the perimenopausal woman?

A

pituitary gland

528
Q

The alpha chain of b-HCG is the same as these hormones?

A

TSH, FSH, LH

529
Q

What are the HACEK bugs?

A 
Haemophilus
Aggregatibacter
Cardiobacterium
Eikenella
Kingella
530
Q

Besides the HACEK group, what intracellular bugs can cause culture negative endocarditis?

A

Rickettsia, Q-fever, Whipple’s disease

531
Q

What is Marantic Endocarditis

A

Nonbacterial thrombotic endocarditis seen in hyper coagulable states

532
Q

What is Libman-Sacks endocarditis and where are the vegetations found?

A

Seen in lupus erythmatosus

Vegetation’s on both sides of vavles

533
Q

What are the large vessel vasculitides?

A

Giant cell arteritis

Takayasu’s arteritis

534
Q

What are the medium vessel vasculitides?

A 
Polyarteritis nodosa
Kawasaki disease
Thromboangiitis obliterates (Buerger disease)
535
Q

What are the small vessel vasculitities?

A

HSP (IgA)
SLE (IgG)
cryoglobulinermia (IgG and IgM)
Goodpasture’s disease
Wegner’s granulomatosis (granulomatosis with polyangiitis)
Churg Strauss Disease (eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis)
Microscopic polyangitis

536
Q

HCG in pregnancy:

  • First detectable:
  • Doubles roughly every ? hours until ? weeks?
  • Remains detectable for ? after delivery?
A
  • First detectable: 6-8 days following conception
  • Doubles roughly every 48 hours until 10 weeks
  • Remains detectable for 2 after delivery?
537
Q

Fetal fibronectin has a good _______ predictive value in regards to predicting preterm birth?

A

The absence of fetal fibronectin in cervicovaginal fluids has a high negative predictive value of preterm birth

538
Q

Dilated sinusoids and hepatic atrophy are indicative of?

A

Budd Chiari Syndrome (outflow obstruction)

539
Q

Where does the iron accumulate in the liver in Hereditary hemochromatosis?

A

Periportal hepatocytes first, with progression towards the central vein

540
Q

Glycjogenated nuclei in the liver are associated with?

A

Wilson’s disease

541
Q

Name two copper stains?

A

Rhodanin and Victoria Blue

542
Q

What causes bread and butter pericarditis?

A

ARF
Uremia
Myocardial infarction

543
Q

What is the most common congenital heart defect?

A

VSD, 90% close by 1 year

544
Q

Cardiac rhabdomyoma prognosis, immunostain?

A

Most will spontaneously regress in the 1st year of life

HMB45+, desmin+

545
Q

Tetralogy of Fallot

A

VSD
Overriding aorta
Sub pulmonary fibrosis
Right ventricular hypertrophy

546
Q

EM findings of Amyloidosis?

A

10 nm non-branching fibrils

547
Q

Histology of bile duct hamartoma/von Meyenburg complex?

A

Irregular shaped, dilated glands in a fibrous stroma.

Contains mucin or bile

548
Q

How do you diagnose somatic malignancy in a testicular germ cell tumor?

A

Must take up at least one 4x field.

549
Q

What is thought to be a possible precursor to NLPHL?

A

Progressive transformation of germinal centers

550
Q

The most common subtype of CHL?

A

Nodular sclerosis

551
Q

What is the definition of a ringed sideroblast?

A

At least 5 siderosomes that surround at least a third of the nucleus

552
Q

Isolated loss of Y, 5q-, or 20q- in MDS, prognosis?

A

Favorable prognosis

553
Q

3 or more anomalies or chromosome 7 anomalies in MDS, prognosis?

A

Unfavorable prognosis

554
Q

JMML may be associated with this syndrome?

A

NF1

555
Q

CML:

  • p210
  • p230
  • p190
A
  • p210: normal
  • p230: associated with thrombocytosis and neutrophils
  • p190: associated with marked monocytosis and Ph+ ALL
556
Q

Which IgG subclass does not cross the placenta?

A

IgG2

557
Q 
IF Patterns, antigens detected and disease associations:
Speckled:
Homogenous:
Nucleolar:
Centromere:
A 
Speckled:
     - SSA, SSB, Smith, U1-RNP, PCNA, Scl-70
     - SLE, MCTD, Sjogren, scleroderma
Homogenous:
     - DNA, histone, dsDNA, ssDNA
     - SLE, drug-induced SLE, RA
Nucleolar:
     - RNA polymerase 1, u3RNP, PM-scl
     - scleroderma, polymyositis
Centromere:
     - CENP-A, B, C
    - Scleroderma (with CREST), Raynouds
558
Q

Renal tumor seen in Burt-Hogg-Dube syndrome?

A

Chromophobe

559
Q

What makes up the MELD score?

A

Bilirubin, INR, Creatinine

560
Q

What is Lhermitte-Duclos?

A

A rare cerebellar tumor associated with Cowden Syndrome.

561
Q

The most common dermatophyte?

A

T. rubrum

562
Q

Serous cystadenoma of the pancreas is associated with this syndrome?

A

VHL

563
Q

What defines microinvasion in DCIS?

A

<1mm or up to 3 foci of <1mm

treated clinically like DCIS

564
Q

What are the most common mutations in endometrial endometrioid adenocarcinoma?

A

PTEN and MSI

565
Q

Winter’s formula?

A

PCO2 = 1.5([HCO3-]) + 8 ???

566
Q

Malaria associated with fever every 72 hours? 24 hours?

A

72: P. malariae
24: P. knowlesi

567
Q

What are the 4 types of AML?

A

AML with recurrent genetic translocation
AML following therapy
AML myelodysplasia related changes
AML, NOS

568
Q

What are the AMLs with recurrent genetic translocations?

A

t(8;21) - abundant gray-blue cyto with Auer rods and large granules (RUNX1)
inv(16) - increased abnormal eos (MYH11/CBFB)
t(15;17) -
t(9;11) - monoblastic differentiation (MLL)
t(6;9) - with basophilia (DEK/NUP214)
t(1;22) - megakaryocytic (RMB15/MKL1)
inv(3) - Thrombocytosis, giant agranular platelets (RPN1/EV11)

569
Q

Formula to calculate MCV?

A

MCV = Hct x 10/RBC

570
Q

Formula to calculate MCHC?

A

MCHC = (Hgb/Hct)100

571
Q

A high MCHC may indicate?

A

spherocytosis, cold agglutinin, or lipemia specimen

572
Q

PAS reliably stains positive in this leukemia?

A

Acute erythroid leukemia

573
Q

What hepatitis B antibody indicates permanent immunity?1

A

Anti-HBs

574
Q

How do you t ell the difference between T. sodium and T. saginata?

A

The eggs of Taenia solium (pork) and Taenia saginata (beef) look the same with radial striations and a thick shell. These two are best distinguished by the lateral striations/ uterine branches per side. Taenia solium has < 13, Taenia saginata has > 13. Mnemonic: 13 is an unlucky number, and getting a tapeworm is unlucky. The pig (solium) tapeworm has less than 13 lateral uterine branches (pigs are smaller than cows), and the beef (saginata) tapeworm has more than 13 lateral uterine branches (cows are bigger than pigs).

575
Q

Features of Medullary Carcinoma of the Breast?

A
  • BRCA1 associated
  • Syncytial growth in 75% of the tumor
  • no glands
  • Lymphoplasmacytic infiltrate at periphery or admixed
  • nuclear pleomorphism
  • complete circumscribed
  • better prognosis, triple negative
576
Q

Invasive micro papillary carcinoma is associated with?

A

Lymph node mets

577
Q

Grading tubules and mits in breast cancer?

A

1 - >75%, <5
2 - 10-75%, 5-10
3 - <10%, >10

578
Q

When is a breast cancer determined to be HER2 positive by IHC, FISH?

A

Positive IHC (3+) = strong membranous staining in >30% of cells at 10X

Positive FISH = HER2/CEP17 >2 or HER2/CEP17 <2 but copy number >6

579
Q

YUPA

A

YUPA: Yellow Urate Parallel to the Axis.

580
Q

What substance(s) neutralize P1?

A

Hydatid cyst fluid and pigeon eggs

581
Q

What substance(s) neutralize I?

A

Breast milk

582
Q

Stain helpful in diagnose of FNH?

A

Map-like/geographic glutamine synthetase

583
Q

Dolichos bifloris binds to?

A

A1

584
Q

Alex europaeus bind to?

A

H

585
Q

What is Caroli disease and Caroli syndrome?

A

AR conditions associated with ARPCKD
Caroli disease: intrahepatic dilation of bile ducts
Caroli syndrome: above associated with congenital hepatic fibrosis

586
Q

How to calculate number of units needed to test to find antigen negative blood?

A

1/(antigen negative units in percent) X 100

587
Q

What are 3 potential causes of a D+ patient with an apparent anti-D upon typing?

A
  1. WAIHA
  2. Anti-LW
  3. Partial D
588
Q

Described the different grades of cellular rejection in the heart?

A

Grade 1R: interstitial and/or perivascular infiltrate with up to one focus of myocyte damage
Grade 2R: 2+ foci of myocyte damage
Grade 3R: Diffuse inflammation, multiple foci of myocyte damage , hemorrhage, edema, and vasculitis

589
Q

What pattern is represented by all cells in panel and auto control positive at AHG only?

A

Warm autoantibodies (IgG)

590
Q

What pattern is represented by all cells in panel except auto control positive at AHG only (weak 1-2+)?

A

HTLA (chido or rodgers)

591
Q

What pattern is represented by all cells in panel and auto control positive at IS only?

A

Cold autoantibody (IgM)

592
Q

DAT with anti-IgG or anti-IgG and anti-C3 indicates?

A

Warm autoantibody (IgG)

593
Q

DAT anti-C3 only?

A

Cold autoantibody (IgM)

594
Q

Where are exophytic and inverted papillomas found in the nasal cavity?

A

Exophtic: septum
Inverted: lateral walls and sinuses

595
Q

Where are angiofibromas typically located?

A

posterior nasal cavity

596
Q

What is the most common salivary gland tumor in children?

A

MEC

597
Q

Which salivary gland tumor typically arises only in the minor salivary glands?

A

PLGA

598
Q

What is a syringoma?

A

Syringoma has groups of ducts lined by two layers of epithelium.

599
Q

In which type of HIT is it ok to give platelets?

A

HIT type 1

600
Q

How do you classify thymomas?

A

Thymoma classification: A: spindled cells, B1 -> B3 epithelioid cells with decreasing amount of lymphocytes. AB: spindle and epithelioid cells. C: carcinoma.

601
Q 
What types of epithelium are usually associated with the following:
MUC1
MUC2
MUC5AC
MUC6
A

MUC1: Pancreatobiliary
MUC2: Intestinal
MUC5AC: Gastric
MUC6: pyloric

602
Q

What are the 4 types of hepatic adenomas?

A

HNF-1a - steaktotoc, loss of LFABP
Inflammatory/Telaniectatic - serum amyloid A/CRP
Beta-catenin mutated - nuclear beta catenin, increased risk of HCC
Unclassified

603
Q

Stain helpful in diagnose of FNH?

A

Map-like/geographic glutamine synthetase

604
Q

What condition is commonly associated with temporal arteritis?

A

Polymyalgia rheumatica

605
Q

Polyarteritis is associated with this in about 30% of cases?

A

HepB infection

606
Q

What is Caroli disease and Caroli syndrome?

A

AR conditions associated with ARPCKD
Caroli disease: intrahepatic dilation of bile ducts
Caroli syndrome: above associated with congenital hepatic fibrosis

607
Q

What is Alagille Syndrome?

A

AD paucity of bile ducts with mutations in Jagged 1

608
Q

Describe the QUILTY A and QUILTY B lesions?

A

QUILTY A: collection of lymphocytes confined to the endocardium with preserved CD21 framework
QUILTY B: As in type A, but with extension in to underlying myocardium

609
Q

Described the different grades of cellular rejection in the heart?

A

Grade 1R: interstitial and/or perivascular infiltrate with up to one focus of myocyte damage
Grade 2R: 2+ foci of myocyte damage
Grade 3R: Diffuse inflammation, multiple foci of myocyte damage , hemorrhage, edema, and vasculitis

610
Q

Cystic medial degeneration (cystic medial necrosis) is associated with?

A

Marfan’s syndrome

611
Q

How does one grade pancreatic NETs?

A

NET 1: <2 mits/10HPF, <2% Ki67
NET 2: 2-20 mits/10HPF, 3-20% Ki67
NET3: >20 mits/10HPF, >20% Ki67

612
Q

VMA, urinary metanephrines and catecholamines are seen in?

A

Paraganglioma and pheochromocytoma

613
Q

VMA and HVA are seen in?

A

Neuroblastoma

614
Q

When does one expect to see a trough in the cortisol level? When in the peak?

A

Trough - midnight

Peak - 8 AM

615
Q

What is the purpose of the low and high does dexamethasone suppression tests?

A

Low - does the pt have cushings syndrome

High - does the pt have cushings disease

616
Q

Solid pseudo papillary tumor is always negative for?

A

Chromogranin and ER

617
Q

What 3 conditions will cause the urine dipstick to turn positive for blood?

A

Hematuria, hemoglobinuria, and myoglobinuria

618
Q

The urine dipstick is most sensitive to this ketone?

A

acetoacetic acid

619
Q

What are potential false positives for urine leukocyte esterase?

A

Trichomonads and eosinophils

620
Q

What urine crystal form envelopes?

A

Calcium oxalate

621
Q

The majority of kidney stones are made of this crystal?

A

Calcium oxlate

622
Q

How many red cells are allowed in a unit of granulocytes?

A

<2 mL

623
Q

Glomus tumor is positive for?

A

Desmin and SMA

624
Q

EMA and desmin in bening and malignant mesothelium?

A

Benign: EMA-, desmin+
Malignant: EMA+, desmin-

625
Q

Focal nodular hyperplasia is characterized by these 3 findings?

A

Nodular architecture
Abnormal vasculature
Bile Duct Proliferation

626
Q

Arginine hydrolysis and positive Voges-Proskaur tests ate seen in?

A

S. anginosus group

627
Q

In the ideal gaussian distribution how much of the population falls within 1 SD, 2 SD, or 3 SD?

A

1 SD: 68.2%
2 SD: 95.5%
3 SD: 99.7%

628
Q

What is the hallmark genetic event in the botryoid variant of Embryonal Rhabdomyosarcoma?

A

LOH 11p15.5

629
Q

What stains will highlight MG bodies of malakoplakia?

A

PAS, von Kossa, Prussian blue

630
Q

Atypical fibroxanthoma immunostain?

A

CD10, CD117 and CD68; CD163 is less sensitive but may also be positive.

631
Q

What is another name for Warthin’s Tumor?

A

Papillary cystadenoma lymphomatosum

632
Q

FISH in urothelial carcinoma detects?

A

Aneuploidy of 3, 7, 17, or loss of 9p21

633
Q

Blood groups in caucasians from highest to lowest prevalence?

A

0 > A > B > AB

634
Q

Which subtype of basal cell carcinoma is most likely to metastasize?

A

Basosquamous

635
Q

What is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in adults and children?

A

Adults: FSGS
Children: Minimal change disease

636
Q

Which enteric are H2S producers?

A

Salmonella, Citrobacter and Proteus

637
Q

What is the relative risk of invasive carcinoma in:

  • Cystic/Benign epithelial hyperplasia?
  • Atypical hyperplasia?
  • DCIS or LCIS?
A
  • 1.5-2X
  • 4-5X
  • 8-10X
638
Q

What medical treatment can be used to treat infantile hamangiomas?

A

Propranolol

639
Q

How does the MecA gene confer resistance?

A

PBP2A protein, a low affinity penicillin binding protein

640
Q

How is LCH classified?

A

It is classified as unifocal (“eosinophilic granuloma”), multifocal unisystem (Hand-Schuller-Christian disease), multifocal multisystem (Letterer-Siwe disease, poor prognosis), and pulmonary Langerhans cell histiocytosis (strong association with smoking).

641
Q

IHC staining differential of Urothelial carcinoma, reactive atypia, and normal

A

Carcinoma: full thickness CK20, absent or basal CD44, strong and diffuse p53
Reactive/normal: CK20 in umbrella cells only, paranasal or slightly increased CD44, and p53 negative

642
Q

What is the normal urothelial thickness?

A

5-7 layer

643
Q

Which variants of urothelial carcinoma are the most aggressive?

A

Nested and micropapillary

644
Q

Is verrucous carcinoma of the bladder HPV associated?

A

No, p53+

645
Q

IHC of inflammatory pseudo tumor?

A

CK+, actin+, vimentin+, 2/3rds ALK+

646
Q

Most common Rh+ genotypes in whites and blacks?

A

Whites: R1/R1 or R1/r
Blacks: R0/R0 or R0/r

647
Q

What is the rate of sensitization if Rh+ blood is transfused into a Rh- individual?

A

20-30%

648
Q

Anti-E should prompt a search for?

A

Anti-c

649
Q

Anti-G looks like?

A

Antobides to both D and C

650
Q

What is the risk for carcinoma in simple hyperplasia, complex hyperplasia, and CAH?

A

1%, 3%, or 30%

651
Q

What percentage of patient with CAH have carcinoma?

A

25-50%

652
Q

> 5 mits/HPF gets one to uterine leiomyosarcoma in these variants?

A

Epihtelioid and myxoid

653
Q

What does GAVE stand for in stomach pathology?

A

Gastric astral vascular ectasia

654
Q

In the small bowel, how many lymphocytes should be present?

A

1 for every 5 enterocytes

655
Q

Most sensitive and specific antibodies in celiac disease?

A

Sensitive celia needs tissues and every measly thing has to be in a specific order

656
Q

How are trophoblastic tumors categorized?

A

All are CK18/HLAG+

if p63 negative/hPL++
Ki67 <1%: exaggerated placental site
Ki67 >1%: PSTT

if p63++/hPL +/-
Ki67 <10%: PSN
Ki67 >10%: Epitheliod trophoblastic tumor

if p63+ or hCG+: choriocarcioma

657
Q

What can be used to monitor glycemic control in patients with hemolytic disorders?

A

In hemolytic conditions, fructosamine (glycated albumin) is more useful for the monitoring of longer term glycemic control than HbA1c.

658
Q

Molecular findings in HLH?

A

PRF1, UNC13D, or STX11

659
Q

What genetic events are usually present in serrated adenomas?

A

BRAF mutations (80%) and MSI.

660
Q

How often must you verify cesium-137 and cobalt-60 irradiation?

A

cesium-137 - 12 months

cobalt-60 - 6 months

661
Q

How is renal cell carcinoma graded?

A
  1. small round nuclei without nucleoli
  2. irregular nuclear contours, inconspicuous nucleoli
  3. nucleoli visible at 10x
  4. large hyper chromatic, pleomorphic nuclei, single or multiple nucleoli
662
Q

Low and high grade serous mutations?

A

LG: KRAS (50%), BRAF (50%)
HG: p53

663
Q

Gyn clear cell carcinoma mutation?

A

ARID1A, PIK3CA, PTEN

664
Q

Mutation in granulosa cell tumors?

A

FOXL2

665
Q

All sex cord stromal tumors are positive for these 2 stains?

A

Calretinin and inhibiin

666
Q

INI-1 negative tumor?

A 
Rhabdoid tumor of the kidney
ATRT
Medullary carcinoma of the kidney
Epithelioid sarcoma
Malignant myoeuithlioma
Epithelioid MPNST
MERT
667
Q

Size cutoff for AAH, AID, and invasive adenocarcinoma?

A

AAH <5 mm

AIS <3 cm

668
Q

In lung cancer, EGFR and ALK testing should be done on these tumor?

A

All NSCLC with adenocarcinoma component

669
Q

What characterizes NF2?

A 
Multiple
Inherited
Schwannomas
Meningiomas
Ependymomas
670
Q

When is the pseudo glandular phase of lung development and what develops?

A

Development of the large airways to the terminal bronchioles

6-16 weeks

671
Q

When is the acinar/canalicular phase of lung development?

A

16-26 weeks (this phase must be completed in order for any chance of extrauterine lung function

672
Q

When is the saccular phase of lung development

A

26-36 week

673
Q

when is the alveolar phase of lung development?

A

36 weeks to 10 years

674
Q

What is Legg-Calve-Perthes disease?

A

idiopathic hip avascular necrosis in children

675
Q

USP6 rearrangement is seen in?

A

ABC
Nodular fasciitis
cellular fibromas of the tendon sheath

676
Q

Osteofibrous dysplasia is also know as?

A

Ossifying fibroma

677
Q

Osteofibrous displasia may progress to?

A

Adamantinoma

678
Q

Sharpey fibers may be seen in?

A

Fibrous dysplasia

679
Q

MDM2 mutations are seen in these bone tumors?

A

Parosteal osteosarcoma

Well-differentiated intramedullary osteosarcoma

680
Q

What two conditions lead to cholesterol lung effusions?

A

Rheumatoid arthritis and MTB infection

681
Q

Which type of hodgkin lymphoma is more common in women?

A

Classic nodular sclerossi

682
Q

Describe the CPAMS?

A

Type 0: Tracheal bronchial, fatal
Type 1: Bronchial/bronchiolar (1 large cyst with smaller surrounding cysts)
Type 2: bronchiolar (back to back bronchial)
Type 3: bronchiolar/alveolar
Type 4: alveolar large cyst in periphery of lobe

683
Q

Which sarcomas commonly metastasize to lymph nodes?

A

Epithelial sarcoma
Alveolar rhabdo
Clear cell sarcoma

684
Q

What three features are seen in atypical polypoid adenomyoma?

A

fascicles of smooth muscle
atypical epithelial glands
squamous metaplasia

685
Q

In what tumors does one see the ETV6-NTRK3 translocation

A

cellular congenital mesoblastic nephroma
Secretory carcinomas (breast and salivary gland)
Leukemia (AML)

686
Q

INI-1 and BRG-1 are also known as?

A

INI-1: SMARCB1

BRG-1: SMARCA4

687
Q

What is the most common HPV seen in veruccus vulgarism?

A

HPV 2 and 4

688
Q

What HPVs are seen in plantar warts?

A

HPV 1, 2, 4, 63

689
Q

What can cause a false positive PPD?

A

BCG vaccine

Other non-tuberculous mycobacteria

690
Q

EIA for galactomanin is used to diagnose?

A

Aspergillum species infection

691
Q

IHC difference between classic and spermatohytic seminoma?

A

Classic: PLAP, OCT3/4, and CD117 +
Spermatohytic: PLAP, OCT3/4 negative, CD117 weak

692
Q

Who makes up the Runyon IV (fast growing) mycobacteria?

A 
M. fortuitous
M. abcesses
M mucogenicum
M. thermoresitbile 
M. chelonae
693
Q

KIA/TIA slants: K/K (red/red)?

A

not enteric, maybe pseudomonas

694
Q

KIA/TIA slants: K/A (red/yellow)?

A

lactose non-fermenter

695
Q

KIA/TIA slants: A/A (yellow/yellow)?

A

glucose and lactose fermenter

696
Q

What 3 haemophylis species requires X and V?

A

H. influenze
H. haemolyticus
H. aegyptius

697
Q

What are some of the more common reasons to see arterial thromboses?

A

Atiphospholipid syndrome
Prothrombin 20210
HIT

698
Q

What causes Yaws?

A

T. pallidum sps. perteneum

699
Q

What causes Bejel?

A

T. pallidum sps. endemicum

700
Q

What bacteria makeup MTB complex?

A 
MTB
M. kansasii
M. africanum
M. Microti
M. bovis
M. canetti
701
Q

Which microfilariae are sheathed?

A

Whucheria
Brugia
Loa loa

702
Q

What is the most common combination in testicular mixed germ cell tumor?

A

Embryonal and teratoma

703
Q

Which testicular germ cell tumor is the most likely to be bilateral?

A

Spermatohytic tumor

704
Q

MyoD1 staining in ASPS?

A

cytoplasmic

705
Q

3 entities that may be seen on the crown of an unerupted tooth?

A

Dentigerous cyst
OKC
cystic ameloblastoma

706
Q

What is considered a micro satellite high or low tumor?

A

High - 2 foci of instability

Low - 1 focus of instability

707
Q

Describe the emphysema of AAT?

A

panacidar, predominantly basal

708
Q

Poorly differentiated thyroid carcinoma by the Turin Criteria?

A 
Solid of trabecular growth
Absence of PTC nuclei
Presence of at least one of the following;
     convoluted nuclei (raisinoid)
     Mits > or equal to 3/10 HPF
     Necrosis
709
Q

Low power normal skin pathologies?

A

Tina
Urticaria
Viral exanthem
Amyloidosis

710
Q

What are the findings in Sweets syndrome?

A

Papillary dermal edema

Dense dermal infiltrate of neutrophils

711
Q

What conditions show a vacuolar interface dermatitis?

A 
Drug
Dermatomyositis
Erythema multiform
Lichen anything
Lupus
GVHD
712
Q

Lichen planus cannot have?

A

Parakeratosis or eos

713
Q

What is the “red, white. and blue” of lichen sclerosis?

A

Red: compact epidermis
White: pale dermis
Blue: perivascualr lymphoid infiltrate

714
Q

What is a trichilemmoma and when is it seen?

A

Smooth lobule of glycjogenated cells hanging from the epidermis
Cowmen’s syndrome

715
Q

What is the most common type of melanoma?

A

Superficial spteading

716
Q

What melanoma has the worst prognosis?

A

Nodular

717
Q

Lobular panniculitis is most indicative of?

A

Lupus panniculitis

718
Q

The rash of lyme disease is known as?

A

Erythema migrans

719
Q

Protein encoded by SMARCA4

A

BRG1

720
Q

Protein encoded by SMARCB1

A

INI1

721
Q

How is pulmonary adenocarcinoma defined?

A

Epithelial malignancy with glandular differentiation with mucin production or pneumocyte maker expression

722
Q

What are the histologic patterns of conventional pulmonary adenocarcinoma?

A 
Acinar 
Papillary
Micropapillary
Lepidic
Solid
723
Q

What are the recognized variants of pulmonary adenocarcinoma?

A

Invasive mucinous
Colloid
Fetal
Enteric

724
Q

Define minimally invasive pulmonary adenocarcinoma

A

Tumor 3 cm or less (lepidic) with 5 cm or less invasive component

725
Q

What is the size cutoff for atypical adenomatous hyperplasia?

A

5 mm or less

726
Q

How is pulmonary adenocarcinoma in situ defined?

A

Lepdic tumor 3 cm or less is size

727
Q

Pulmonary squamous cell carcinoma is defined as?

A

Epithelial tumor with keratinization, intracellular bridges, or an undifferentiated neoplasm with squamous markers

728
Q

Which pulmonary carcinoma driver mutations are typically seen in nonsmokers? Smoker?

A

Non-smoker: ALK or EGFR

Smokers: KRAS

Pathology Board Exam (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions