deck 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Which score can be used in low-risk settings to predict CVD risk (in lieu of Framingham score)?

A

the Harvard NHANES score above score utilizes traditional risk factors (age, sex, smoking, SBP) but exchanges cholesterol for BMI this predictive value of this score is as good as for Framingham risk score

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Does treatment of HTN affect prognosis of diastolic HF?

A

yes it reduces the incidence of: 1. acute pulmonary edema 2. ADHF no studies have shown any improvement in mortality, however

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

According to expert consensus on CT coronary calcium scoring, which patients are appropriate for this study?

A

appropriate patient populations for CT calcium scores have either of the following: 1. intermediate pretest probability 2. low pretest probability but (+) family history

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Patient with dypsnea undergoes cardiac catheterization and the simultaneous RV & LV pressure tracings are recorded (shown below). What is the diagnosis?

A

dx = constrictive pericarditis

hemodynamic dx of constriction:

  1. equalization of ventricular filling pressures
  2. ventricular interdependence during systole (RVSP increases at the expense of LVSP during inspiration)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Pt with chest discomfort has the following CT chest:

What to do next? (2 things)

A
  • this is type I dissection (involves both ascending & descending aorta)
  • therefore next steps are:
  1. receive medical therapy to reduce shear forces (antihypertensives)
  2. referral for immediate surgery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

85M patient is scheduled for angiogram. He has CKD and Cr =2.5 today (his baseline). What to do prior to cath?

A
  • give IV NS 1-3 hour before and up to 6 hours after cath
  • above strategy increases urine output and may protect against contrast-induced nephropathy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A patient with buttock claudication during ambulation has the following exercise ABI values:

What to do next??

A
  • exercise ABI is less than 0.7 in both legs, which is consistent w/ moderate PVD
  • –> give these patients:
  1. supervised exercise program
  2. cilastazol
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

A 44F is a/w acute MI to the CCU. The bed next to her is occupied with a 48M who also was a/w MI. Both patients were revascularized.

Which one has a higher mortality risk?

A

The female has a higher mortality risk

females under age 50 have higher mortality a/w acute MI compared to males

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A young male who is s/p MI 2 weeks ago wants to know if he needs to continue to take his metoprolol. What to tell him?

A

Taking a beta blocker in subacute period post-MI will decrease incidence of death related to VT/VF the above was first shown in the BHAT (beta blocker heart attack trial), 1982

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is relative wall thickness and how do you calculate it?

A

RWT estimates ratio of LV cavity size to LV wall thickness at end diastole -> allows to determine if LVH is eccentric or concentric RWT = 2*PWd/LVEDD Where PWd = post wall thickness @ end diastole LVEDD = LV end diastole dimension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How is LV mass index calculated using echo and what is its significance?

A

LV mass is calculated by obtaining IVS dimension, LV dimension, and PW dimension, all at end diastole. LV mass index (LVI) is obtained by referencing pt’s body surface area LVI > 85 -> LVH in women LVI > 115 -> LVH in men

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which 3 studies are often cited as class I evidence for implantation of ICD as secondary prevention of sudden cardiac death?

A

AVID

CIDS

CASH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Sgarbossa criteria (3)

A
  • Used to diagnose MI in setting of LBBB
  • 2 points: ST change > 5 mm DISCORDANT with qrs complex
  • 3 points: ST depression > 1 mm in V1-V3
  • 5 points: ST change > 1 mm CONCORDANT with qrs complex
  • 3+ points -> 90% specificity for MI
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which was the first trial to show mortality benefit with thrombolytics post-STEMI?

A
  • GISSI
  • Benefit only present when given within 6 hrs of onset of chest pain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Pt with MAP of 43, cardiac output = 6.4, IVC is < 2.1 cm & collapsing on echocardiogram. What is the estimated SVR? Which type of shock is this?

A

SVR = 80*(MAP - RAP)/CO -> SVR = 500 normal SVR = 1000-1500 (roughly);

thus this is distributive shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

A young pt in the CCU is hypoxic and short of breath. You place a swann-ganz catheter to help determine hemodynamic status. You obtain the following values: PAP = 58/38, wedge pressure = 13, CO = 4.2. What is the most likely etiology of this patient’s dyspnea? (2 possible diagnoses)

A
  • calculate PVR to help determine if dyspnea is due to left heart failure, intrinsic pulmonary disease, or both
  • PVR = (MPAP - wedge)/CO where MPAP = mean pulmonary arterial pressure = 2/3*38 + 1/3*58 = 46 -> PVR = ~8
  • (normal PVR is less than 4 wood) -> pt likely has primary pHTN or PE
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

2 situations in which you should consider using IVUS technology during cath?

A
    1. assist in guiding angioplasty (especially in Lt main & LAD lesions)
    1. check how well prior stent has been deployed within coronary artery (rule out underexpansion)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Pt with exertional chest pain is found to have a flow-limiting lesion in the left main artery. IVUS is performed revealing minimal luminal area (MLA) of 5.5. What to do next?

A
  • place a stent in the left main artery
  • left main artery MLA < 6 on IVUS is an indication for stenting, regardless of whether or not symptoms are present (improves 1 year mortality)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Pt with chest pain is found with minimum luminal area in proximal LAD = 4.2 cm2. Angiography estimates the lesion as 35% occlusion. What to do next?

A
  • do NOT stent the artery IVUS indications for stenting in pt with LAD dz (either of the following):
    1. MLA < 4.0 cm2 + symptomatic
    1. MLA < 3.0 cm2 and no symptoms
20
Q

Pt p/w exertional CP, found with TnT 2.8, CK 305, CK-MB 30. EKG with ST depressions in inferior leads. He is placed on heparin gtt & dual antiplatelet load but continues to have chest pain. What should you do next? (name 3 trials that help guide your management)

A

send for PCI

NSTEMI with continued chest pain despite optimal medical therapy -> send for cardiac cath (TIMI-18, TACTICS, FRISC II)

21
Q

TIMI flow scheme for cath (4)

A

TIMI 0: complete obstruction TIMI 1: (+) flow beyond obstruction with incomplete filling TIMI 2: (+) flow and (+) complete filling, sluggish TIMI 3: normal filling

22
Q

Name 4 “triggers” of acute MI.

A
    1. Sexual activity
    1. Earthquakes
    1. Anger
    1. Generalized stress
23
Q

You are preparing to give tPA to a pt with acute STEMI. You order aspirin 325 for the pt. The intern asks you why you are giving aspirin in addition to the thrombolytic. What do you tell him & which trial should you cite?

A
  • With regard to acute STEMI: mortality benefit of asa & tPA are similar as monotherapy, additive when given together
  • The trial is ISIS-2
24
Q

Pt has h/o ICM (EF 38%) a/w several runs of NSVT. He had a heart attack 2 months ago. o/e he is NOT in heart failure. What to do next?

A
  • Take for EPS study to see if VT is inducible.
  • If VT is inducible, then pt should receive ICD
  • GLs: EF < 40%, (+) NSVT, 40+ days post-MI -> send for EPS study +/- ICD (MUSTT trial)
  • *note that you do not have to be in heart failure to meet criteria for EPS based on MUSST trial
25
Q

55M with h/o NICM (EF35%) is admitted w/ PNA. Prior to his present illness, he had no baseline DOE & could walk up to his apt on 5th floor with minimal dyspnea. The private medicine doctor calls cardiology for ICD eval. What to do next?

A
  • do not implant him because he has at most class I HF
  • (guidelines require NICM patients to have class II or III HF to be considered for ICD)
  • GLs: NICM, EF
26
Q

64F with h/o MI 3 mos ago presents to clinic. She reports no new symptoms & is able to play badminton with her friend without getting short of breath. Echo today shows EF 29% with segmental LV dysfunction. What to do next?

A
  • refer her for ICD implantation (guidelines allow for defibrillator implantation in ICM patients w/ minimal HF sx)
  • GLs: ICM, EF ICD implantation (MADIT-II & DINAMIT)
27
Q

48M h/o large AWMI 6 weeks ago is found w/ EF 33% on echo. He used to enjoy power-walking; now he is unable to do so due to DOE. What to do next?

A
  • refer for ICD implantation (pt with ICM, at least class II HF, EF < 35%)
  • GLs: ICM w/ EF < 35%, class II/III HF, s/p MI 40 days ago -> ICD implantation (SCD-HeFT & DINAMIT)
28
Q

29M p/w unexplained syncope. EPS study shows significant VT. What to do next?

A
  • implant him w/ ICD
  • GLs: syncope, significant VT/VF on EPS -> implant ICD (CIDS)
29
Q

what are the 4 requirements that must be present for pt to have class I indication for CRT (biV pacing)?

A
  • SLEW*
  • Sinus rhythm LBBB morphology
  • EF < 35%
  • Width of QRS > 150 ms
  • *patients must also have class II, III, or amb class IV HF symptoms AND 40+ vs. 90+ days of OMT post-MI (not revascularized vs. revascularized)
30
Q

Pt has radial catheterization and post-procedure develops Rt arm pain. O/e the Rt forearm is swollen to the elbow joint. Radial wrist band has already been removed. What to do next?

A
  • Dx = grade III hematoma (forearm with muscular involvement)
  • Reapply the wrist band over arteriotomy and wrap the arm with gauze (covered by ace or compression tape)
31
Q

Label the important structures in the following IVUS image

A

yellow line = lumen

green portion = plaque burden

blue line = external elastic membrane

32
Q

Most important indication for repairing ASD?

A

echocardiographic evidence of RH enlargement (RA or RV)

note that presence of symptoms does NOT affect decision to repair ASD

33
Q

What is the only type of Rt-sided heart sound that gets softer on inspiration?

A

pulmonic systolic ejection click of PS

34
Q

What are the 4 components of a complete endocardial cushion defect?

A
  1. ASD primum
  2. VSD
  3. Cleft MV
  4. TV abnormality
35
Q

What is the most common major complication of diagnostic cardiac cath?

A

major vascular complications* occurs in 1% of patients undergoing diagnostic angiogram

*defined as bleeding requiring transfusion, pseudoaneurysm, thrombosis

36
Q

best view for visualizing LMCA?

A

LAO caudal

37
Q

in general, which views are best for visualizing LAD & Cx, respectively?

A

LAD: cranial views Cx: caudal views

38
Q

Best view for visualizing PDA?

A

LAO cranial

39
Q

best view to visualize mid-distal LAD?

A

left lateral view (image intensifier rotated 90 degrees, parallel to floor

40
Q

In which patient population can you reliably substitute femoral sheath pressure for aortic pressure when determining aortic valve area by LHC? Why?

A
41
Q

55M h/o PPM for CHB has new systolic and diastolic murmur at left lower sternal border. Most likely diagnosis?

A
42
Q

Give the quantitative criteria for diagnosis of SEVERE TR. (4)

A

ERO = 0.40+ cm2

regurgitant volume = 0.45+ cc

vena contracta width = 6.5+ mm

PISA radius = 0.9+ cm

*note that above is similar to the “4, 5, 6, 7” rule for MR, but values are slightly lower for TR because it is a lower-pressure system AND no regurgitant fraction parameters are available for TR

43
Q

Which type of ASD is commonly associated with Ebstein’s anomaly?

A
44
Q

Pt with history of partial AVSD (atrio-ventricular septal defect) s/p repair at age 1. Which murmur will you hear on exam?

A

You should hear apical holosystolic murmur from MR

partial AVSD is associated with cleft MV** that usually isn’t repaired surgically –> should hear MR murmur

**cleft MV is essentially a bisected anterior leaflet

45
Q

35M h/o TOF surgically repaired in childhood presents for outpatient follow-up. What is the significance of the EKG shown below?

A

QRS width in EKG is > 210 ms which correlates with adverse outcome

**TOF s/p surgical repair with BBB (QRS > 210 ms) –> correlates with adverse outcome

46
Q

Criteria for ST segment depression of significance during stress test? (2)

A
  • **Depressions must be either:
    1. Greater than 1 mm when flat/downsloping
    1. Greater than 1.5 mm when upsloping
  • **compared to pq segment