Deck 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Nerve etiology for bloat:

A

N. vagus damage

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1
Q

Vagal indigestion bloat etiology:

A

Nervus vagus damage
Interference with esophageal groove function in vagal indigestion and diaphragmatic hernia may cause chronic ruminal tympany

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2
Q

Clinical picture with n. vagus/ vagal indigestion bloat etiology?

A

Can’t eructate

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2
Q

What is the clinical picture with n. vagus / vagal indigestion bloat etiology?

A

Can’t eructate

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3
Q

Treatment for RAD and LAD?

A

RAD: right displacement, surgical dirrection
LAD: roll the cow, toggle, surgical correction, cull

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3
Q

Treatment for RAD and LAD?

A

RAD: right displacement, surgical correction
LAD: roll the cow, toggle, surgical correction, dull

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4
Q
A
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4
Q

Digital dermatitis is located on front or hind limbs?

A

Hind limbs

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5
Q

Characteristic lesions for digital dermatitis:

A

Strawberry form, circumscribed area above interdigital cleft on plantar side, pain, lameness, hairs at periphery are erected, focal hypertrophy, wet grey

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6
Q

Interdigital dermatitis (SF) characteristic lesion:

A

Heelside junction (cracks, strawberry rot)

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7
Q

Where does most commonly does interdigital dermatitis (SF) occur:

A

On plantar side of pastern (above cleft)

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8
Q

Intertrigo is:

A

Udder cleft dermatitis

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9
Q

Max. height of foot bath for cattle:

A

15 cm

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10
Q

Max. height of foot bath for sheep:

A

6 cm

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11
Q

Concentration of formaline for foot bath:

A

3-5% max

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12
Q

Claw trimming of sheep:

A

Minimum 2x a year

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13
Q

Foot rot is:

A

Phlegmona interdigitalis (infectious pododermatitis) - grade 5 of lameness

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14
Q

Most common bacteria causing foot rot:

A

1st stage: fusobacterium necrophorum
2nd stage: dicelobacter nodosus

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15
Q

Common site for foot rot:

A

Hind limbs

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16
Q

What is the treatment for foot rot?

A

Topical and systemic
Topical: foot bath - iodid or Cu/Zn sol, ATB powder
Systemic: ATB
Hoof trimming and removal of necrotic areas - NO BANDAGE, need O2 to kill anaerobic bacteria
Vaccines
NSAID (flunixin and metamizole)

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17
Q

What is more common in lameness?

A

Supportive damage

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18
Q

If grade 3 lameness, does cow bear weight when standing?

A

Yes

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19
Q

Grade 3 of lameness in a standing cow:

A

Pronounced stage, standing fully, lameness seen while walking

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20
Q

Auscultation of murmurs in pericarditis:

A

Rubbing/splaching sound, bilateral.
Muffled heart sounds; squeaky and rubbing murmur and splashing/tinkling murmur

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21
Q

Type of murmurs in endocarditis - diastolic/systolic/both?

A

Both - can hear in diastole and systole

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22
Q

Site of trauma in traumatic pericarditis:

A

Reticulum (puncture of pericardium by metallic linear body)

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23
Q

Most commonly affected in hardware disease?

A

Reticulum

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24
Q

Per oral rehydration is only for calf that has:

A

strong suckling reflex

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25
Q

Length of dorsal aspect of the claw in functional claw trimming:

A

7.5 cm

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26
Q

Thickness at the front of the claw in functional claw trimming:

A

5-7mm, for every 100 kg over 500 kg at 1 mm to tip. Sjekk

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27
Q

Best time of the year for first calving in heifer?

A

2 years (min 60% eller 90%????? of mature body weight)

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28
Q

General health is affected in:

A

permanent prolapse

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29
Q

Peroneal nerve (fibular nerve) paralysis, what is affected?

A

Hind limb

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30
Q

Syndrome of polio-encephalomalitis in standing cow:

A

Opisthotomus(?), blindness, ataxia

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31
Q

Main reason for polio-encephalomalitis?

A

Thiamine deficiency (B1)

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32
Q

Which type of BPV most commonly cause papilloma (skin warts)?

A

BPV 1/2

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33
Q

How long is course of ringworm?

A

3 months

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34
Q

Non-contagious bacteria for mastitis:

A

Streptococcus uberis

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35
Q

Which mastitis is not contagious?

A

Str. uberis
Pseudomonas spp.
Candida spp.
Coliform bac.

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36
Q

Which mastitis is congaious?

A

Str. agalactia, str. dysgalactia, st. aureus, mycoplasma bovis

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37
Q

What is the most common cause of endometritis?

A

Pieces of retrained placenta

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38
Q

Partial prolapse is seen in?

A

Lying cow

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39
Q

Most common bacteria in endocarditis?

A

Pyogenes (Truperla pyogenes/ Arcanobacter pyogenes, rarely Str and St)
Tx: PCN/Ampicilline 3 weeks + Furosemide

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40
Q

Most common bacteria endometritis?

A

Fusobacterium necrophorum

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41
Q

Treatment for urticaria with dyspnoe:

A

NSAID/SAID (FLumidin, Dexamethasone, Methylprednisolone)
Antihistamine
Epinephrine (vasoconstriction)
Furosemide (if pulmonary oedema)
Tracostomy in severe cases

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42
Q

Treatment for urticaria without dyspnoe:

A

NSAID/SAID (Flumidine, Dexamethasone, Methylprednisolone)
Antihistamine

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43
Q

Tbc in milk:

A

max 100 000

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44
Q

Scc in milk:

A

max 400 000

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45
Q

Udder - mastitis etiology:

A

Genetic, nutritional, bad management

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46
Q

Clenbuterol in C-section:

A

Tokolysis - also called anti-contraction medications or labor representants, used to suppress premature labor

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47
Q

Nervous disease we are able to treat?

A

Listeriosis

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48
Q

Reasons for laminitis:

A

Higher concentration of histamine in blood

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49
Q

Second stage of parturition:

A

Appearance of membranes (water bag) at the vulva
3-6 hours heifers, 2-4 cows
Intense contractions

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50
Q

When is expulsion of calf?

A

2nd stage

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51
Q

3rd stage of parturition:

A

expulsion of fetal membranes 8-12 hours

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52
Q

What is happening in the first phase of parturition?

A

Calf rotates
Dilation of the cervix
May take days to complete
Cervix softens
Pelvic ligaments relax
Clear mucus ‘‘string’’ hang from the vagina
Cow’s appetite decrease
Uterine contractions begin
2-3 hours in cows and longer in heifers

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53
Q

What happens in the last 6-8 weeks of the pregnancy:

A

Migration of immune cells to udder to form colostrum
Movement of nutrients into uterus to form strong healthy calf

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54
Q

Maternal signal to deliver:

A

Increase in estrogens

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55
Q

What is the abortion:

A

Premature expulsion of the fetus (between day 45 and day 265 of pregnancy)

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56
Q

Early embryonic death:

A

less than 2 months (usually absorbed)

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57
Q

Rate of abortion in normal herd:

A

1-2% (also 2-5% is ok)

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58
Q

When to do further diagnosis?

A

When over 3% or a high number of animals abort over a short period of time

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59
Q

Typical bacteria responsible for abortion:

A

Brucella
Leptospira
Listeria
Campylobacter

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60
Q

Typical virus responsible for abortions?

A

BVD (bovine viral diarrhoea)

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61
Q

Reasons for thrombosis of vena cava caudalis?

A

Septicaemia
Rupture of artery in lung
Rupture of abscesses near hilus of liver
Thromboemboli transverse the right heart
Bacteria

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62
Q

Do we administer NSAIDs when we have udder haematoma?

A

no NSAIDs - will cause bleeding

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63
Q

Best time for treatment against warbles:

A

fall

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64
Q

Hormones during pregnancy and their changing of delivery?

A

Progesterone - decrease
Estrogen - increase (prepare uterus for delivery)
Fetal cortisole - start delivery

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65
Q

Most common bacteria in diarrhoeic syndrome of calves?

A

E. coli

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66
Q

Most common virus in diarrhoeic syndrome of calves?

A

Rotavirus and coronavirus

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67
Q

Crytosporidium in diarrhoeic syndrome causes:

A

subclinical disease

68
Q

Maximum fluid for severe dehydration in diarrhoeic syndrome?

69
Q

Minimum fluid for diarrhoeic syndrome:

70
Q

In fluid therapy, can it be mixed with milk?

71
Q

Maximum amount of bicarbonate which can be given in diarrhoeic syndrome?

72
Q

Where do you perform fluid therapy for diarrhoeic syndrome?

73
Q

When do you use ATB in diarrhoeic syndrome?

A

Severe sickness, recumbency
Secondary infection
Sepsis
Causal therapy

74
Q

What happens to value of blood urea in diarrhoeic syndrome?

75
Q

When can you give per os rehydration to calf?

A

when suckling reflex is present

76
Q

Lab findings in diarrhoeic syndrome?

A

metabolic acidosis

77
Q

Treatment for diarrhoeic syndrome?

A

Symptomatic

78
Q

How many types of BVDV are internationally recognised?

79
Q

When do we treat all animals for BRD?

A

When 10% of calves have been treated for more than 3 consecutive days and 25% of calves require treatment in a single day

80
Q

Prophylaxis definition, when?

A

Measure taken to maintain health, prevent disease and protect against infection
Given when atb are administered to a herd at risk of disease outbreak

81
Q

Metaphylaxis definition, when?

A

When anti-microbials are administered to clinically healthy animals belonging to same group of animals with clinical signs. Infections treated before clinical appearance.

82
Q

3 common bacteria of BRD:

A

M. haemolytica
P. multocida
H. somni

83
Q

Main predisposing factors to BRD:

A

Age
Health status
Immunity
Nutritional status
Stress
Environment
Epidemiological factors
Dehydration

84
Q

Why must treatment be prompt in BRD?

A

Prevent chronically affected, deaths etc.

85
Q

Predisposing factors of lung anatomy to BRD development?

A

Small lungs
Large volume of dead space
Increased resistance
Thick, poorly elastic pleura

86
Q

3 goals of BRD treatment:

A

Inhibit bacterial growth
Modulate inflammatory response
Alter mechanical and functional disorders
Rapid alleviation of symptoms
Aid tepair of damages lung
Prevent further damage to lung tissue
Improve lung function
Improve immune
Stimulate feed intake
Regulate body temp

87
Q

When do teratogenes cause the most severe effect?

A

Before implantation, first few weeks, more than 20 days

88
Q

Topical treatment for endometritis is about?

A

structure of ATB, status of endometrial wall, applied topically are irritants

89
Q

Common bacteria in first stage pregnancy:

90
Q

What methods do we use to determine endometritis?

A

External exam, rectal palpation, vaginoscopy, USG, histology, cytology, bacteriology - different combinations

91
Q

What does interferon tau release from foetus do in pregnancy?

A

signals mother is pregnant, prevents luteolysis

92
Q

What layers are affected by acute puerperal metritis?

A

Endometrium, endometrium to stratum spongiosum, myometrium

93
Q

Treatment of cysts:

A

Follicular - GnRH

94
Q

Where is the most common location of traumatic reticuloperitonitis?

95
Q

What does Hoflund syndrome cause?

A

Abomasal displacement

96
Q

Leptin, IL-1 are increased in:

A

positive energy balance

97
Q

Treatment of esophageal obstruction:

A

Gastric tube, endoscopy etc.

98
Q

Treatment of abomasal displacement?

A

rumenotomy?

99
Q

Rumination activity in Hoflund syndrome?

100
Q

Diagnosis of abomasal displacement:

A

Double auscultation

101
Q

Predisposition for abomasal displacement:

102
Q

Tympany caused by inability to:

A

Swallow, eructate, increased salivation

103
Q

Intertrigo is?

A

Inflammation of body folds - could be bacterial, viral, fungal

104
Q

Most commonly affected in hardware disease?

A

Reticulum and pericardium - traumatic reticulopericarditis

105
Q

Peroneal nerve, what is affected?

A

Animal stands on dorsal area of claw, claw is bent over like in n. ulnaris

106
Q

Polioencephalomalacia in standing cow:

A

Opistotonus, star gazing, usually blind, shuffling gate, depression, muscle tremors and salivation, ataxia, disorientation, circling movements, mydriasis, stabism

107
Q

Polioencephalomalacia etiology?

A

Degenerative lesion of grey matter.
Thiamine deficiency
Sulphur toxicity
Lead poisoning (no opistotonus just blindness)
Osmolarity
Aberrations (salt and water imbalances, hypoxia)

108
Q

Which type of BPV most commonly causes papilloma?

A

Type I and type II cause cauliflower warts on head, neck, genitals and legs

109
Q

Synergy effects of microbes?

A

F. necrophorum - leukotoxin
Bacteroides melaninogenicus + B. fragilis produce substantivion that avoid phagocytosis by leukocytes
A. pyogenes produces growth for F. necrophorum

110
Q

Most common bacteria in endocarditis:

A

Acranobacterium pyogenes, Trupurella pyogenes and rarely steph and staph

111
Q

Listeriosis treatment:

A

Penicillin i.m. and tetracyclines iv/sc, 7-21 days

112
Q

Tetanus treatment:

A

Clean wound, tetanus antitoxin, penicillin, acepromazine, supportive treatment

113
Q

Thrombolic meningoencephalitis treatment:

A

Penicillin, supportive, corticosteroids, dexamethasone, NSAID

114
Q

Reasons for laminitis:

A

Inflammation of lamina corium due to increased histamine in the blood leading to pain
Predisposing factors: parturition, puerperal metritis, displaced abomasum, lactic acidosis, secondary endotoxaemia and mechanical factors

115
Q

Impending parturition:

A

Increased size of vulva
Softening and sinking of the area between the tail and the pin bones and increased udder size

116
Q

Reason for thrombosis in vena cava caudalis:

A

Rupture of artery in lung
Rupture of abscesses near hilus of liver
Thromboemboli transverse the right heart
Bacteria

117
Q

Rate of abortion in normal herd:

118
Q

Rehydration fluid volume per day:

A

3x2L = 6 L per day

119
Q

Predominant site of diarrhoea syndrome in calves?

A

Small intestine

120
Q

Creatinine in diarrhoea:

A

Light diarrhoea = 95 µmol/L (norm = <106)
Severe diarrhoea = increased creatinine (224 µmol/L)

121
Q

3 common pathogens of BRD:

A

Mannheimia haemolytica, P. multocida, Histophilus somni

122
Q

Main predisposing factors to BRD:

A

Age
Nutrotional condition
Immune background
Stress
Environment
Epidemiological factors
Dehydration

123
Q

What must be prompt in BRD?

A

Prevent chronically affected animals and deaths
Prevent extensive/irreversible lung damage
Better response to treatment

124
Q

Mineral levels in acute gas tympany:

A

Decreased calcium and magnesium

125
Q

Different kinds of bloat:

A

Frothy bloat
Free gas bloat
Fluid and gas bloat

126
Q

Tympany cause inability to:

127
Q

Hypersalivation in tympany:

A

Oesophageal obstruction

128
Q

Diagnosis of frothy bloat:

A

gastric tube, usg, auscultation

129
Q

In which syndromes can paradoxal aciduria be seen?

A

Abomasal displacement, Hoflund syndrome, TRP

130
Q

Pathogenesis in Pasteurellosis:

A

Ciliary epithelium

131
Q

Follicular cyst is:

A

Thin walled, lutenized, estrogen production

132
Q

Fertilization ability of oocytes is normally?

133
Q

Embryonic death is the loss of embryo at:

A

1-2 months of gestation (1st 42 days)

134
Q

Embryo is most resistant to the action of teratogens:

A

in first few weeks

135
Q

Ovarian cysts are:

A

Dynamic structures larger than 2.5 cm, persisting at least 20 days on ovary

136
Q

Interferon produced in embryo stimulates:

A

production of proteins from endometrial glands

137
Q

Acute puerperal metritis is:

A

Inflammation of uterine myometrium and perimetrium

138
Q

Treatment of cysts:

A

FOllicular - GnRH
Luteal - PGF2^a
Puerperal cyst - > 20 d post partum

139
Q

Etiology of endometritis during early postpartum period are also involved bacteria:

140
Q

Infusion of non-antibiotic, antiseptic solutions into the uterus after parturition:

A

Irritates the mucosa of endometrium

141
Q

Follicular growth during pregnancy:

A

Continues - diameter of dominant follicles decreases, because LH pulsativity is decreased during late pregnancy

142
Q

Extreme LH pulses and lack of LH release is associated with:

A

Development of functional ovarian disorders

143
Q

Blood concentrations of IGF-1, insulin and leptin are:

A

Higher in cows with positive energy balance

144
Q

Antiluteolytic strategy includes also:

A

Increased rate of growth of CL
Luteal phase progesterone
Antiluteolytic stimulation by germeline unit
Decreased luteolytic response by maternal unit

145
Q

Which of ‘these’ agents cause abortion:

A

Aspergillus fumigatus

146
Q

Phase of parturition with opening of cervix and swollen vulva:

147
Q

Phase of parturition with passage of fetus through the pelvic canal:

148
Q

Expulsion of placenta is phase:

149
Q

What happens to the pin bone?

A

Loosing of ligaments

150
Q

What happens if there is no good preparation for delivery?

A

Abnormal or problematic delivery

151
Q

What hormones does fetus produce for parturition?

152
Q

One shot/ intensive rehydration is given:

A

IV: vena auricularis, jugularis, NaCHO3 5 ml/kg

153
Q

Site of infection in Pasteurellosis:

A

Ciliary epithelium

154
Q

Metaphylaxis is given:

A

after aggression begins

155
Q

3 common viruses of BRD:

A

BHV-1, BRSV, PI-3, BVDV 1 and 2, bovine corona virus, adenovirus, IBR, aspergillus

156
Q

Diagnosis of frothy bloat:

A

gastric tube
ultrasound
auscultation

157
Q

Embryo is most resistant to the action of teratogenes:

A

before implantation

158
Q

Diarrhoea in calves cause:

A

hypoglycemia

159
Q

What layers are affected by acute puerperal metritis:

A

Endometrium to stratum spongiosum, myometrium

160
Q

What happens as the fetus approach full term?

A

Progesterone decline, estrogen increase

161
Q

Metaphylaxis definition:

A

In control or treatment of diseased animals

162
Q

Diagnosis of abomasal displacement:

A

Double auscultation
Blowing, liver percussion, puncture, rectal exam, sonography

163
Q

In which syndromes can paradoxic aciduria be seen?

A

Abomasal displacement
Hoflund syndrome
Traumatic reticuloperonitis

164
Q

Diagnosis of endometritis in cows:

A

in pyometra: Presence of persistent corpus luteum on the ovary
D: rectal palpation of uterus
USG

165
Q

Therapy of endometritis:

A

Prostaglandin F2a

166
Q

What is more common in lameness?

A

suspensory

167
Q

Which mastitis is not contagious?

A

STr. uberis

168
Q

Typical bacteria for footrot:

A

Dichelobacter nodosus

169
Q

Bacteria for endocarditis.

A

Truperla pyogenes

170
Q

Treatment for urticaria with dyspnoea:

A

epinephrine
dexamethasone
prednisolone

171
Q

Clenbuterol in C-section cause:

172
Q

Leptin, IL-1 are increased in:

A

positive energy balance

173
Q

Determining different kinds of bloat/etiology of bloat?

A

Frothy bloat - ruminal drinking in calves
Free gas bloat - hypocalcaemia
FLuid and gas bloat - DA