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Pulse Pedodontics > Deck 1 > Flashcards

Deck 1 Flashcards

0
Q

Keys triad

A

Host, agent and substrate factors interaction is essential for initiation and progress of caries

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1
Q

Critical pH at which demineralisation starts

A

5.2 - 5.5

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2
Q

Tooth factors in Keys triad

A

Composition (surface > subsurface enamel)
Morphology (pits and fissures, hypoplasia)
Position (malalignment)

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3
Q

Window of infectivity

A

S. mutans
19-31 months of age
6-12 years of age

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4
Q

Infected dentin stain

A

Stained by 1% acid red solution in 0.2% propylene glycol

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5
Q

Elements that increase caries experience

A

Trace elements like selenium, cadmium, lead, barium

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6
Q

Lactose content of breast milk

A

7.2%

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7
Q

Lactose content of bovine milk

A

4.5%

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8
Q

Lactose content of Milk powder

A

7%

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9
Q

MDS MD

A

Maternally derived strep mutans disease AKA early childhood caries

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10
Q

What is the main method of transmission of early childhood caries

A

Kissing

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11
Q

Caridex

A

Chemo-mechanical system of caries removal

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12
Q

Caridex solution 1

A

Sodium hypochlorite

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13
Q

Caridex solution 2

A

Glycine
Aminobutyric acid
Sodium chloride
Sodium hydroxide

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14
Q

Types of sugar substitutes

A

Caloric sweeteners

Non-calorie sweeteners

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15
Q

Non-calorie sweeteners

A 
Saccharin
Aspartame (Nutra sweetener)
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16
Q

Caloric sweeteners

A 
Xylitol
Lactitol
Sorbitol
Lycasin
Maltitol
Invert sugar
Coupling sugar
Sorbose
Palatinose
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17
Q

Different morphologies of fissures

A

V, U, I, K types

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18
Q

Different types of fissures

A

Self-cleaning

Caries-susceptible

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19
Q

Types of self-cleaning fissures

A

V, U

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20
Q

Types of caries susceptible fissures

A

I, K

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21
Q

How do you restore self-cleaning fissures

A

Non-invasive techniques

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22
Q

How do you restore caries susceptible fissures

A

Invasive technique

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23
Q

Dental cripple

A

Child who has lost many teeth

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24
Q

Pulp treatment for traumatised primary incisors involving only enamel

A

Observation

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25
Q

Pulp treatment for trauma in primary incisors involving enamel and dentin

A

ca(OH)2 or GIC lining

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26
Q

Pulp treatment for primary incisors with trauma involving enamel, dentin and pulp

A

Enamel+Dentin+Pulp: formocresol pulpotomy; pulpectomy if devital or irreversible pulpitis

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27
Q

Treatment modalities for root fracture in primary incisors

A

Observation, extraction, splinting

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28
Q

Treatment modalities for pulp in avulsion of primary incisors

A

None

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30
Q

Treatment modalities for pulp in displaced primary incisors

A

Observation, extraction

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31
Q

Treatment modalities for pulp in intruded primary incisor

A

If no damage to permanent tooth crypt, wait for it to erupt.

If damage occurs, extraction indicated.

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32
Q

Restoration in traumatised primary incisors involving enamel only

A
  • Smoothen rough edges

- Apply fluoride

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33
Q

Restoration in traumatised primary incisors involving enamel and dentin

A
  • Acid etch composite resin
  • Open faced stainless steel crown
  • Polycarbonate crown
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34
Q

Restoration in traumatised primary incisors involving enamel, dentin and pulp

A
  • Open faced stainless steel crown
  • Composite resin
  • Strip crown
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35
Q

Restoration in traumatised primary incisors involving root fracture

A

Space maintainer if required

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36
Q

Restoration in traumatised primary incisors involving avulsion

A

Space maintainer if required

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37
Q

Restoration in traumatised primary incisors involving displacement

A
  • Immobilization

- Space maintainer if required

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38
Q

Restoration in traumatised primary incisors involving intrusion

A

None

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39
Q

Pulp treatment for trauma in permanent incisor involving enamel

A

Observe

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40
Q

Pulp treatment for trauma in permanent incisor involving enamel and dentin

A

Calcium hydroxide liner

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41
Q

Pulp treatment for trauma in permanent incisor involving enamel, dentin and pulp

A

IF apex is OPEN,

  • DPC
  • Calcium hydroxide pulpotomy
  • Apexification

IF apex is CLOSED

  • DPC
  • Pulpectomy
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42
Q

Pulp treatment for trauma in permanent incisor involving root fracture in cervical one third

A
  • RCT

- Extraction

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43
Q

Pulp treatment for trauma in permanent incisor involving root fracture in middle one third

A

Splint

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44
Q

Pulp treatment for trauma in permanent incisor involving root fracture in apical one third

A

Splint

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45
Q

Pulp treatment for trauma in permanent incisor involving avulsion

A

Reimplant, splint for 10-14 days, observe

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46
Q

Pulp treatment for trauma in permanent incisor involving mild displacement

A

Observe

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47
Q

Pulp treatment for trauma in permanent incisor involving severe displacement

A

Splint

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48
Q

Pulp treatment for trauma in permanent incisor involving mild concussion with mobility

A

Observe

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49
Q

Pulp treatment for trauma in permanent incisor involving severe concussion with mobility

A

Splint

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50
Q

Restoration indicated after trauma in permanent incisor involving enamel

A
  • Smoothen rough edges

- Acid etch composite resin

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51
Q

Pulp treatment for trauma in permanent incisor involving enamel and dentin

A
  • Acid etch composite resin

- To retain the restoration, temporary crowns like acrylic, polycarbonate and open faced SS crowns are used

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52
Q

Pulp treatment for trauma in permanent incisor involving enamel, dentin and pulp (open apex)

A
  • Acid etch composite resin

- To retain the restoration, temporary crowns like acrylic, polycarbonate and open faced SS crowns are used

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53
Q

Restoration indicated after trauma in permanent incisor involving enamel, dentin and pulp (closed apex)

A
  • Acid etch composite
  • Jacket crown
  • Post core crown
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54
Q

Restoration indicated after trauma in permanent incisor involving root fracture

A
  • Gold core with PFM crown
  • Space maintainer
  • Fixed prosthetic appliance
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55
Q

Restoration indicated after trauma in permanent incisor involving avulsion

A

none

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56
Q

Restoration indicated after trauma in permanent incisor involving displacement

A

Immobilisation

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57
Q

Restoration indicated after trauma in permanent incisor involving concussion with mobility

A
  • Relieve from occlusion

- Immobilisation

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58
Q

Classification of anterior tooth fractures is given by –

A

Andresen / WHO

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59
Q

Fractures of enamel (Andresen)

A

873.60

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60
Q

Fracture of enamel and dentin (Andresen)

A

873.61

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61
Q

Pulp exposures (Andresen)

A

873.62

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62
Q

Root fractures (Andresen)

A

873.63

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63
Q

Crown and root fracture (Andresen)

A

873.64

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64
Q

Concussion or luxation (Andresen)

A

873.65

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65
Q

Intrusion or extrusion (Andresen)

A

873.66

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66
Q

Avulsion (Andresen)

A

873.68

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67
Q

Soft tissue injury (Andresen)

A

873.69

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68
Q

Vitality tests

A
  • Heat test with gutta percha
  • Ethyl chloride
  • Ice
  • Electric pulp tester
  • Carbon dioxide snow
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69
Q

When does pulp testing give false readings?

A
  • If root formation is incomplete

- If the tooth has a temporary crown or splint

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70
Q

Which teeth should be tested during a vitality test?

A

Teeth in the immediate area as well as the opposing arch

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71
Q

How do you diagnose pulp death with a vitality test?

A

If the injured tooth requires more current than that for a normal tooth to give a response

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72
Q

How do you diagnose pulpal inflammation with a vitality test?

A

If less current is needed to elicit a response from the traumatised tooth

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73
Q

What is the response of a tooth tested immediately after trauma for vitality?

A

IT may be negative as it may be in a state of shock

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74
Q

How long must you wait before retesting a traumatised tooth for vitality?

A

A week to 10 days.

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75
Q

What methods determine vitality based on nerve supply of pulp?

A

Electric and thermal tests

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76
Q

What methods determine vitality based on blood supply of pulp?

A

Laser doppler flow meter and pulse oximeter

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77
Q

Under what circumstances would you get false negative results in pulp vitality tests?

A
  • Presence of calcification

- Presence of pulp stones

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78
Q

Under what circumstances would you get false positive results in pulp vitality tests?

A

In the presence of moist gangrenous pulp remnants

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79
Q

How many radiographs must you take for a full mouth survey in a patient who is 1-3 years old?

A

4 - 2 Anterior IOPAs and 2 Bitewings

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80
Q

How many radiographs must you take for a full mouth survey in a patient who is 3-6 years old?

A

12.

Anterior IOPAs - 6
Posterior IOPAs - 4
Bitewing - 2

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81
Q

How many radiographs must you take for a full mouth survey in a patient who is 6-12 years old?

A

14.

Anterior IOPAs - 8
Posterior IOPAs - 4
Bitewing - 2

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82
Q

How many radiographs must you take for a full mouth survey in a patient who is over 12 years old?

A

20.

Anterior IOPAs - 8
Posterior IOPAs - 8
Bitewing - 4

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83
Q

List of recent techniques of LA

A
  • EMLA
  • Denti patch
  • Jet injections
  • Wand
  • TENS
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84
Q

EMLA

A

Eutectic Mixture of LA

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85
Q

MoA of EMLA

A

Diffuses through intact skin and reduces pain during needle injection through skin

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86
Q

Composition of EMLA

A

(5% cream)

  • 25 micrograms/gram of Lidocaine
  • 25 micrograms/gram of prilocaine
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87
Q

When is EMLA used?

A

It is applied to skin at least 1 hour before injection

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88
Q

When is EMLA contraindicated?

A

Children below 6 years of age

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89
Q

Denti Patch

A

Controlled releasing devices

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90
Q

MoA of Denti Patch

A

Topical agent is incorporated into a matrix, which will adhere to mucosa and allow slow release of anaesthetic drug

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91
Q

List some available denti patch systems

A

Lidocaine transoral delivery system in 10% and 20% concentrations

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92
Q

Jet injections aka…?

A

Needle less anaesthesia

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93
Q

MoA of Jet injections

A

Can penetrate mucous membranes / skin under pressure without causing excessive tissue trauma

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94
Q

Brand names of Jet injections

A
  • Syriget

- Madjet

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95
Q

What is Wand?

A

A computer controlled injection system

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96
Q

Dosage in wand

A

Controlled by computer

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97
Q

TENS

A

Trans-Electronic Nerve Stimulation

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98
Q

MoA of TENS

A

Electronic stimulation of nerve endings is used for anaesthetic effect

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99
Q

When is TENS indicated?

A
  • Needle phobic patients

- Where local anaesthesia is ineffective

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100
Q

Conscious sedation vs GA

A
  • Several visits vs Single sitting
  • Cooperative (anxious) vs Uncooperative
  • Conscious, airway maintained vs Ventilation
  • No premedication and investigations required
  • NPO not required
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101
Q

Pre-cooperative stage

A

Non-cooperative 2 year-olds

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102
Q

Which children are said to have a behaviour problem?

A

Potentially cooperative children. They can be made cooperative by applying behaviour modification techniques

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103
Q

What is pre-appointment behaviour modification?

A

Anything that is said or done to positively influence the child’s behaviour before the child enters a dental operatory.

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104
Q

Euphemism for rubber dam

A

Raincoat

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105
Q

Euphemism for alginate

A

Pudding

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106
Q

Euphemism for sealant

A

Tooth paint

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107
Q

Euphemism for topical fluoride

A

Cavity fighter

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108
Q

Euphemism for suction

A

Vacuum cleaner

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109
Q

Euphemism for study models

A

Statues

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110
Q

Euphemism for high speed

A

Whistle

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111
Q

Euphemism for low speed

A

Motorcycle

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112
Q

What is restraining?

A

A technique of making a negative behaviour child who had previous unpleasant dental experience cooperative by demonstrating a difference such as performing nitrous oxide sedation.

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113
Q

Different types of reinforcement

A
  • Positive reinforcement
  • Negative reinforcement
  • Social reinforcement
  • Material reinforcement
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114
Q

Positive reinforcer

A

One whose contivgent presentation increases the frequency of behaviour

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115
Q

Example of positive reinforcer

A

Gifts

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116
Q

Negative reinforcer

A

One whose contingent withdrawal increases the frequency of behaviour

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117
Q

Example of negative reinforcer

A

Withdrawal of mother

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118
Q

Social reinforcers

A
  • Praise
  • Positive facial expression
  • Shake hand
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119
Q

Material reinforcers

A
  • Toys

- Games

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120
Q

Bio-feedback

A

Use of certain instruments to detect certain physiological processes associated with fear

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121
Q

Cleft Lip

A
  • Failure of fusion between median nasal process and maxillary process
  • Failure of mesodermal migration between the two layered epithelial membrane
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122
Q

Cleft palate

A
  • Failure of fusion of two palatal shelves
  • Rupture of inclusion cyst at the site of fusion
  • Failure of the tongue to drop down
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123
Q

Incidence of CLCP

A

1 in 750 infants (finn)

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124
Q

CL incidence

A

25%

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125
Q

CP incidence

A

25%

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126
Q

CL+P incidence

A

50%

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127
Q

In whom is CL+P seen more often?

A

Males

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128
Q

In whom is CP seen more often?

A

Females

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129
Q

Which is more common, Unilateral or bilateral CL?

A

Unilateral - left sided preponderance.

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130
Q

Etiology of CLP

A
  • Genetic factors (monogenic)
  • Environmental factors
  • Gene-environment interactions (polygenic)
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131
Q

Protocol for dental care of CLP at birth

A
  • Feeding plate

- Pre-surgical orthopaedics

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132
Q

Protocol for dental care of CLP at 3-5 months

A
  • Alignment of primary teeth
  • Palatal expansion with simple fixed appliance like W-arch and Arnold expander
  • Cleft lip repair
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133
Q

Protocol for dental care of CLP at 12 months

A
  • Pedodontic review
  • Cleft Palate repair
  • Speech pathologists first assessment
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134
Q

Protocol for dental care of CLP at 2-8 years

A
  • Pedodontic review
  • Orthodontic consultation
  • Preventive measures
  • Restorative care
  • Review by ENT, plastic surgeons
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135
Q

Protocol for dental care of CLP at 8-15 years

A
  • Suitability about bone grafting
  • Orthodontic treatment
  • Speech pathologist review
  • Review by plastic surgeon
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136
Q

Rule of 10 in CL repair

A

Hb - 10 gm%
Age - 10 weeks
Weight - 10 lbs
TLC - < 10,000/cu.mm

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137
Q

Types of CL repair

A

Millard’s rotation advancement flap

Tennison-Randall triangular flap

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138
Q

When should CP be repaired for best results?

A

Between the ages of 1 and 1.5 years.

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139
Q

Types of CP repair

A

Langenback repair

Veu Wardill Killner V-Y push back palatoplasty

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140
Q

What are the different criteria based on which drug dosage can be calculated?

A
  • Age
  • Body Weight
  • British National Formulae
  • Body Surface Area
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141
Q

Youngs formula for Calculating drug dosage

A

[Child’s age/(age+12)] * Adult dose

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142
Q

Cushing’s formula for calculating drug dosage

A

(Child’s age/24) * Adult dose

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143
Q

Cowling’s formula for calculating drug dosage

A

(Age to the next birthday/24) * Adult dose

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144
Q

Clark’s rule for calculating drug dosage

A

[Child weight (lbs)/150] * Adult dose

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145
Q

Augsberges rule for calculating drug dosage

A

0.7 * Weight in lbs = % of adult dose

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146
Q

British National Formulae

A

2 weeks of age - 12.5% Adult dose
1 year of age - 25% Adult dose
7 years of age - 50% Adult dose
12 years of age - 75% Adult dose

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147
Q

Forbes Rule

A

Child dose = [BSA (sq.m) of child/BSA in adult of same sex] * Adult dose

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148
Q

Standard BSA for males

A

1.7 sq. metres

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149
Q

Pedodontic triangle

A

Child, dentist and parents

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150
Q

What is the apex of the pedodontic triangle?

A

Child

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151
Q

Sizes of intraoral films

A

Size 0
Size 1
Size 2

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152
Q

Uses of Size 0 Intraoral film

A
  • Bitewings

- IOPAs in small children

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153
Q

Uses of Size 1 Intraoral film

A

Anterior teeth in adults

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154
Q

Uses of Size 2 Intraoral film

A
  • Anterior occlusal radiograph
  • IOPA in mixed/permanent dentition
  • Bitewing in mixed/permanent dentition
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155
Q

Uses of 57 x 76 mm films

A

Occlusal films for visualizing the entire maxillary or mandibular arches

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156
Q

Uses of 1.5 x 7 inch films

A
  • TMJ

- Lateral oblique

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157
Q

Uses of 8 x 10 inch films

A
  • Lateral cephalograms
  • Paranasal sinus view
    etc
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158
Q

Uses of 6 x 12 inch films

A

OPG

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159
Q

Fontanelles present at birth

A
  • Anterior fontanelle
  • Posterior fontanelle
  • Sphenoid or anterolateral fontanelle
  • Posterolateral or mastoid fontanelle
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160
Q

Anterolateral fontanelle, aka

A

Sphenoid fontanelle

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161
Q

Posterolateral fontanelle, aka

A

Mastoid fontanelle

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162
Q

Anterior fontanelle location

A

Between two parietal bones and the frontal bone

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163
Q

When does the anterior fontanelle close?

A

18 - 24 months after birth

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164
Q

Where is the posterior fontanelle located?

A

Between the two parietal bones and the occipital bone

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165
Q

When does the posterior fontanelle close?

A

2 months after birth

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166
Q

Where is the Sphenoid fontanelle located?

A

Between the frontal, parietal, temporal and sphenoid bones

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167
Q

When does the sphenoid fontanelle close?

A

3 months after birth.

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168
Q

Where is the posterolateral fontanelle locted?

A

Between the parietal, occipital and temporal bones

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169
Q

When does the mastoid fontanelle close?

A

Between 1 - 12 months after birth.

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170
Q

Buccal pad of fat, aka

A
  • Corpus adiposum

- Bichat’s fat pad

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171
Q

What is the function of the buccal pad of fat in the child?

A

It is the child’s reserve of energy.

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172
Q

Syndromes associated with natal and neonatal teeth

A
  • Chondroectodermal dysplasia
  • Hallermann-Streiff syndrome and pachyonchia congenita
  • Ellisvan Creveland and Rigafede syndrome
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173
Q

Psychodynamic theories of child psychology

A
  • Psychosexual / Psychoanalytical theory (Freud)
  • Psychosocial / Developmental tasks theory (Erik Erickson)
  • Cognitive theory (Piaget)
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174
Q

Behavioural theories of child psychology

A
  • Cognitive theory of needs (Massler)
  • Social learning theory (Bandura)
  • Classical conditioning (Pavlov)
  • Operant conditioning (Skinner)
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175
Q

The three parts of Psychosexual theory

A
  • Id
  • Ego
  • Superego
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176
Q

What is the id?

A

Id is the most primitive part of personality from which the other two systems develop.

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177
Q

What principle does the id operate on?

A

It operates on the pleasure principle and attempts to obtain pleasure.

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178
Q

When does the Ego develop?

A

Ego develops from Id in the 2nd to 6th month of life.

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179
Q

How is the Ego different from Id?

A

It brings the understanding that impulses cannot always be gratified immediately.

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180
Q

What is the Superego?

A

The superego represents the internalized representation of the values and morals of the society as taught to the child by the parents and other elders. It strives for perfection.

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181
Q

Oedipus complex

A

The desire in young boys to have sexual relations with the mother.

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182
Q

Electra complex

A

The development of attraction in young girls towards their father

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183
Q

What are the principles involved in Pavlov’s classical conditioning?

A
  • Generalization
  • Extinction
  • Discrimination
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184
Q

What are the stages that childhood is divided into, according to Mahler’s theory?

A
  • Normal autistic phase
  • Normal symbiotic phase
  • Separation individualization phase
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185
Q

What is the age of the child during which he undergoes the normal autistic phase?

A

0 - 1 years old.

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186
Q

What is the age of the child during which he undergoes the normal symbiotic phase?

A

4 weeks to 4 years old

187
Q

What is the age of the child during which he undergoes the separation individualisation phase?

A

5 - 36 months

188
Q

What is operant conditioning?

A

Individual response is changed as a result of reinforcement or extinction of previous responses, diminishing the frequency of satisfactory outcomes.

189
Q

What is the principle of operant conditioning?

A

The consequence of behaviour itself acts as stimulus and affects the future behaviour.

190
Q

What are the four basic types of operant conditioning described by Skinner?

A
  • Positive reinforcement
  • Negative reinforcement
  • Omission
  • Punishment
191
Q

How did Piaget formulate his Cognitive theory?

A

Piaget formulated his theory from direct observation of children by asking them about their thinking.

192
Q

What is Cognitive theory about?

A

Piaget’s theory is about how children and adolescents think and acquire knowledge.

193
Q

What does the Cognitive theory say?

A

The environment does not shape child behaviour but the child and adult actively seek to understand the environment.

194
Q

What is the self-actualization theory?

A

The need to understand the totality of a person

195
Q

What does Massler mean by “Hierarchy of needs”?

A

Needs are arranged in a hierarchy, and as one general type of need is satisfied, another higher order will emerge. Basic needs -> Biological needs -> Psychological needs.

196
Q

What is the psychosocial theory also known as?

A

Developmental tasks theory

197
Q

How many stages did Erickson describe in his theory?

A

8 stages of the life cycle which are turning points / periods.

198
Q

What aspect of children did Erickson concentrate on when devising his theory?

A

Erickson concentrated on a child’s development covering the entire span of the life cycle from infancy to childhood through to old age.

199
Q

Which is the most complete, clinically useful and theoretically sophisticated form of behaviour therapy, and why?

A

Bandura’s Social Learning theory, because it provides more explanatory concepts and encompasses a broader range of phenomena.

200
Q

4 types of crying

A
  • Obstinate cry
  • Frightened cry
  • Hurt cry
  • Compensatory cry
201
Q

Types of crying are given by _____

A

Elsbach

202
Q

What is characteristic of an Obstinate cry?

A

A loud, high-pitched, siren-like wail.

203
Q

What accompanies an Obstinate cry?

A

Temper tantrum with accompanying kicking, biting etc.

204
Q

What does the obstinate cry represent?

A

The child’s external response to anxiety.

205
Q

What are the characteristic features of a frightened cry?

A

A torrent of tears with convulsive breath catching sobs.

206
Q

What is the reason behind the frightened cry?

A

A frightened child is not crying to have his way, but his fear has overcome his reasoning.

207
Q

What are the characteristic features of a hurt cry?

A
  • Small whimper
  • Single tear filling from the corner of the eye and running down the child’s cheek
  • No sound or resistance to the treatment procedure.
208
Q

What is the reason for a hurt cry?

A

It is a simple reaction to the stimulus of pain. (Tears may be the only manifestation.)

209
Q

What is the compensatory cry?

A

It is not a cry at all. It is a sound that the child makes with the drill. When the drill stops, the cry stops.

210
Q

How does the compensatory cry manifest itself?

A

There are no tears, no sobs, just a constant whining noise.

211
Q

Fear vs anxiety

A

Fear is a reaction to known danger while anxiety is a reaction to unknown danger.

212
Q

What are the different types of fear?

A
  • Innate fear
  • Subjective fear
  • Objective fear
213
Q

What is innate fear?

A
  • It is the fear that results without stimuli or previous experience.
214
Q

What is subjective fear?

A

Fear transmitted to individuals from family experiences, peers (friends/media)

215
Q

What is innate fear dependent on?

A

It is dependent on vulnerability of the individual.

216
Q

What is objective fear?

A

Fear due to previous experience, events, objects.

217
Q

What are the different types of mother behaviour?

A
  • Overprotective dominant
  • Overindulgent
  • Underafffectionate
  • Rejecting
  • Authoritarian
218
Q

How does the child of an overprotective dominant mother behave?

A

The child is shy, submissive and anxious.

219
Q

How does the child of an overindulgent mother behave?

A

The child is aggressive, demanding and throws temper tantrums.

220
Q

How does the child of an under-affectionate mother behave?

A

The child is usually well-behaved, but may be unable to cooperate, shy and may cry easily.

221
Q

How does the child of a rejecting mother behave?

A

The child is aggressive, overactive and disobedient.

222
Q

How does the child of an authoritarian mother behave?

A

The child is evasive and dawdling.

223
Q

Classify behaviour management

A
  • Pharmacological approach

- Non-pharmacological approach

224
Q

What is non-pharmacological approach also known as?

A

psychological approach

225
Q

What are the different types of non-pharmacological approaches to behaviour management?

A
  1. Communication
  2. Behaviour modification (shaping)
  3. Behaviour management
226
Q

Techniques of behaviour modification (shaping)

A
  • desensitisation
  • modelling
  • contingency management
227
Q

Techniques of behaviour management

A
  • audio analgesia
  • biofeedback
  • voice control
  • hypnosis
  • humour
  • coping
  • relaxation
  • implosion therapy
  • aversive conditioning
228
Q

Pharmacological methods of behaviour management

A
  • premedication
  • conscious sedation
  • general anaesthesia
229
Q

What are the two types of communication?

A
  • verbal

- non-verbal

230
Q

At what age of children is verbal communication best suited?

A

in young children over 3 years of age

231
Q

How should the voice be during verbal communication?

A

Voice should be constant and gentle. The tone of voice should express empathy and firmness.

232
Q

How is non-verbal communication done?

A

It is by body language.

  • Smiling
  • Eye contact
  • Touching the child
  • Giving a hug
233
Q

What is desensitization?

A

The technique involves teaching the patient how to induce a state of deep muscle relaxation and describing imaginary scenes relevant to his fear.

234
Q

Indications of desensitization

A
  • Child’s initial visit
  • At subsequent appointments when introducing dental procedures which are new to the patient.
  • When treating referral patients
235
Q

In which children is Tell-Show-Do effective?

A

Children over 3 years of age.

236
Q

How is the TSD technique used?

A

First, the dentist tells the child what is going to be done in simple words.

Second, the dentist demonstrates the exact procedure to the child

Finally, the dentist performs the procedure exactly as it was described and demonstrated.

237
Q

how is modelling done?

A

The child patient is allowed to observe one or more individuals, who demonstrate a positive behaviour in a particular situation.

238
Q

What is contingency management?

A

The presentation or withdrawal of reinforces (either positive or negative).

239
Q

What is a positive reinforcer?

A

A reinforcer whose contingent presentation increases the frequency of a behaviour.

240
Q

What is a negative reinforcer?

A

A reinforcer whose contingent withdrawal increases the frequency of a behaviour.

241
Q

What is audio analgesia also known as?

A

White noise.

242
Q

How does audio analgesia work?

A

An auditory stimulus such as pleasant music has been used to reduce stress and also to reduce the reaction to pain.

243
Q

What is biofeedback used for?

A

The use of certain instruments to detect certain physiological processes (such as BP) associated with fear.

244
Q

When is biofeedback used?

A

It is useful in anxiety and stress-related disorders, where the subject is taught to control the signals.

245
Q

How does humour work?

A

Humour helps to elevate the mood of the child which then helps the child to relax.

246
Q

What is coping?

A

Coping is the mechanism by which the child copes up with the dentist’s treatment by establishing a close or trusting relationship with the doctor or the nurse.

247
Q

What is voice control?

A

The modification of intensity and pitch of one’s own voice in an attempt to dominate the interaction between the dentist and the child.

248
Q

How is voice control used by a dentist?

A

The dentist may speak in a loud voice in order to gain a child’s attention. Once he gains the child’s attention, he may speak softer, adjusting his voice to the activity of the child.

249
Q

When is voice control used?

A

It is used in conjunction with some form of physical restraints and HOME technique.

250
Q

What is Implosion therapy?

A

It comprises of HOME, voice control and physical restraints.

251
Q

What is aversive conditioning?

A

It is a safe and effective method of managing Frankel’s extremely negative behaviour.

252
Q

What are the two common methods used in aversive conditioning?

A
  • HOME

- Physical restraint.

253
Q

Who introduced HOME?

A

Evangeline Jordan

254
Q

When is HOME indicated?

A

In a healthy 3-6 year old child, who can understand simple verbal commands.

255
Q

When is HOME contraindicated?

A

In children under 3 years of age and in physically or mentally handicapped children.

256
Q

What are the routes of administration in pharmacological management of a child patient?

A
  • Inhalation
  • Oral
  • Intramuscular
  • Intravenous
257
Q

What are the drugs administered by inhalation in a child patient being pharmacologically managed?

A

Nitrous Oxide (N2O)

258
Q

What are the drugs administered orally in a child patient being pharmacologically managed?

A
  • Hydroxyzine
  • Chloralhydrate
  • Promethazine
  • Diazepam
  • Triazolam
  • Chlorpromazine
259
Q

What are the drugs administered intramuscularly in a child patient being pharmacologically managed?

A
  • Ketamine

- Midazolam

260
Q

What are the drugs administered intravenously in a child patient being pharmacologically managed?

A

Midazolam

261
Q

Diffusion hypoxia

A

When nitrous oxide is removed it escapes into the alveoli with such rapidity that oxygen present becomes diluted, thus the CO2 - O2 exchange is disrupted and a period of hypoxia is created.

262
Q

How is diffusion hypoxia avoided?

A

The patient is maintained on 100% oxygen for 5-10 minutes.

263
Q

What are the precautions to be taken when administering promethazine to a child?

A

Use with caution in children with

  • Sleep apnea
  • a family history of Sudden Infant Death Syndrome
264
Q

Which drug is contraindicated in a family with a history of SIDS?

A

Promethazine

265
Q

What is the “lytic cocktail”?

A

A combination of Chlorpromazine, meperidine and promethazine used in conscious sedation

266
Q

When is chlorpromazine contraindicated?

A

When the patient is on CNS depressants, as it has its own CNS depressant action

267
Q

What are the side-effects of using diazepam?

A
  • Thrombophlebitis
  • Ataxia
  • prolonged CNS effects
268
Q

What is the side-effect of Midazolam?

A

It causes respiratory depression.

269
Q

Of diazepam and midazolam, which one is better and why?

A

Midazolam, because it is twice as potent as diazepam, and has minimal possibility of thrombophlebitis.

270
Q

What side effect could barbiturates have?

A

They may paradoxically cause hyper-excitability in children instead of sedation.

271
Q

What is Chloral hydrate?

A

An extremely well known and widely used drug for conscious sedation.

272
Q

Ephebodontics

A

Dentistry for adolescents

273
Q

Occult Caries

A

Carious lesions that are hidden, i.e., not clinically diagnosed, but detected only on radiographs.

274
Q

Mechanism of formation of fluoride bombs

A

Increased fluoride exposure –> remineralisation of enamel (continued cavitation in dentin) –> masked lesions by intact enamel surface

275
Q

Caries tetrology

A

4 factors -
Keyes triad – tooth, microflora and local substrate
PLUS fourth factor – time.

276
Q

Cariogram

A

A method of illustrating the interaction of factors contributing to the development of caries

277
Q

Who introduced the cariogram?

A

Brathall et al

278
Q

What is a cariogram?

A

A pie circle diagram divided into five sectors, in five colours.

279
Q

FOTI

A

Fiber Optic Trans-Illumination

280
Q

Principle of FOTI

A

There is a different index of light transmission for decayed and sound teeth

281
Q

What is the difference in index of light transmission between decayed and sound tooth structure?

A

Decayed tooth structure has a lower index of light transmission.

282
Q

How does an area of decay show up in FOTI?

A

A darkened shadow

283
Q

Where is the use of FOTI effective?

A

In the anterior region.

284
Q

DIAGNOdent

A

A method of caries detection

285
Q

What principle is DIAGNOdent based on?

A

The principle of fluorescence.

286
Q

What is the range of the DIAGNOdent system?

A

-9 to 99 (-9 = healthiest)

287
Q

When is the use of DIAGNOdent most beneficial?

A

Early, precavitation stage of caries detection.

288
Q

Dyes used in caries detection

A
  • Calcein
  • Zygo ZL-22
  • Fuschin
  • Acid red system
  • Alpha - Aminoacridine
289
Q

Dyes used in detection of enamel caries

A
  • Calcein
  • Zygo ZL-22
  • Fuschin
290
Q

Dyes used in detection of dentinal caries

A
  • Acid red system

- Alpha aminoacridine

291
Q

What is the base resin in most sealants?

A

BIS-GMA

292
Q

Which were the first pit-and-fissure sealants to be introduced?

A

Cyanoacrylates

293
Q

Who developed the rubber dam?

A

Barnum

294
Q

What are the different materials in which rubber dam sheets are available?

A
  • Latex

- Non-latex

295
Q

What are the different sizes in which rubber dam sheets are available?

A
  • 5”x5” (latex only)

- 6”x6” (latex and non-latex)

296
Q

Where is rubber dam placed normally in primary dentition?

A

Over c, d, e.

297
Q

KCP

A

Kinetic Cavity Preparation

298
Q

Kinetic Cavity Preparation

A

Used fine particles of powder fired at high speed in a controlled manner instead of traditional high and low speed drills

299
Q

Advantages of KCP

A
  • No vibrations or pain sensation

- No need for anaesthesia in most cases

300
Q

Who developed GIC?

A

Wilson and Kent

301
Q

ART

A

Atraumatic Restorative Treatment

302
Q

What is ART?

A

The placement of restorative material such as GIC in large occlusal cavity.

303
Q

What is the principle behind ART?

A

Once the bacterial involvement is eliminated and further ingress prevented, it is possible for tooth structure to heal.

304
Q

Who introduced stainless steel crowns?

A

Humphrey

305
Q

Composition of Stainless steel crowns

A

Chromium - 17 - 19%
Nickel - 10-13%
Iron - 67%
Other elements - 4%

306
Q

Composition of Nickel-base crown

A

Nickel - 72%
Chromium - 14%
Iron - 6-10%
Other elements - 4-8%

307
Q

Indications of stainless steel crowns

A
  • excessive decay in primary or young permanent teeth
  • Teeth with developmental or hypoplastic defects
  • After pulp therapy
  • As preventive restorations in patients who are highly susceptible to caries
  • As an abutment for a space maintainer or prosthetic appliance
  • As temporary restoration of a fractured tooth
  • Bruxism
  • In cases of single tooth cross bite by using reverse stainless steel crown.
308
Q

Occlusal reduction for SScrown

A

1.5-2 mm

309
Q

Primal reduction for SScrown

A

1-1.5 mm

310
Q

Buccolingual reduction for SScrown

A

Very minimal or no reduction

311
Q

Finish line for SScrown

A

Feather edge finish line

312
Q

Finish margin for SScrown

A

Subgingival – 1 mm below gingival crest

313
Q

What is the most commonly used filling material for primary teeth?

A

ZnOE paste

314
Q

Disadvantages of ZOE paste

A
  • Underfilling

- Difference between its rate of resorption and that of tooth root

315
Q

KRI paste

A

Iodoform paste

316
Q

Advantages of KRI paste

A
  • Long-lasting bactericidal potential

- Since it doesn’t set into a hard mass, it can be removed if re-treatment is required.

317
Q

Vitapex

A

A combination of calcium hydroxide and iodoform mixture.

318
Q

Advantages of Vitapex

A
  • Easy to apply
  • Resorbs at a slightly faster rate than does the root
  • No toxic effects on permanent tooth bud
319
Q

Which is considered the nearly ideal tooth filling material?

A

Vitapex (Calcium hydroxide - iodoform mixture)

320
Q

Use of gutta percha in primary teeth

A

Contraindicated since it is not resorbable.

321
Q

Commonly used root canal materials for primary teeth

A
  • Vitapex
  • Maisto paste
  • KRI Paste
  • Walkhoff paste
322
Q

Composition of Maisto paste

A
  • Zinc oxide
  • Iodoform
  • Thymol
  • Chlorphenol camphor
  • Lanolin
323
Q

KRI paste

A
  • Iodoform
  • Camphor
  • Parachlorophenol
  • Menthol
324
Q

Walkhoff paste

A
  • Parachlorophenol
  • Camphor
  • Menthol
325
Q

Fixed space regainers

A
  • Hotz lingual arch

- Lip bumper

326
Q

Uses of fixed space regainers

A

To move the molar distally

327
Q

IQ calculation

A

(Mental age/Chronological age) * 100

328
Q

IQ > 140

A

Very superior

329
Q

IQ 120 - 139

A

Superior

330
Q

IQ 110 - 119

A

High average

331
Q

IQ 90 - 109

A

Average

332
Q

IQ 80 - 89

A

Low average

333
Q

IQ 70 - 79

A

Borderline impaired

334
Q

IQ < 69

A

Mentally retarded

335
Q

Functions of Gerber space maintainer

A

Moves posterior tooth distally and anterior tooth mesially.

336
Q

Functions of Lip bumper or lip plumber

A

Bilateral distal movement of first permanent molars

337
Q

Indications of Hotz lingual arch

A

Used only when lower first molar alone drifted mesially but canines and premolars have not shifted distally.

338
Q

Rhinomanometry

A

Used to detect extent of mouth breathing

339
Q

Rhinomanometry aka

A

Inductive plethysmography

340
Q

Which universal clamp is used to stabilise the rubber dam during the mixed dentition period?

A

5.5 #206

341
Q

Prevalence of gingivitis in children

A

99%

342
Q

Unique characteristics of attached gingiva in children

A
  • Interdental clefts

- Retrocuspid papilla

343
Q

Interdental clefts

A

Normal anatomic features found in the interradicular zones underlying the saddle areas.

344
Q

Retrocuspid papilla location

A

1mm below the free gingiva on attached gingiva lingual to the mandibular canine

345
Q

Incidence of retrocuspid papilla

A
  • 85% children

- decreases with age

346
Q

Probing depth of clinically normal gingival sulcus in humans

A

2-3 mm

347
Q

Difference in sulcus depth between primary teeth and permanent teeth

A
  • Comparitively greater in primary teeth

- mean = 1.4 - 2.1 mm

348
Q

Most prevalent type of gingival change in childhood

A

Chronic marginal gingivitis

349
Q

Epulis

A

Pink, pedunculated, submucosal mass usually arising from the anterior maxillary alveolar ridge.

350
Q

How does epulis present?

A

With feeding difficulties

351
Q

How common are breathing problems with epulis?

A

Rare

352
Q

In whom is epulis more common?

A

Males

353
Q

What is the treatment of epulis?

A

Local excision

354
Q

What is the difference between the periodontal ligament of deciduous teeth and that of permanent dentition?

A

PDL of deciduous teeth is wider.

355
Q

Chieloscopy

A

A procedure used in identification of suspects by the use of lip prints

356
Q

Where are space maintainers contraindicated?

A

Crowded occlusions

357
Q

Verruca vulgaris

A

Exophytic paopillomatous lesion indistinguishable clinically from oral squamous cell papillomas

358
Q

Verruca vulgaris aka

A

Common wart

359
Q

Eruption cyst

A

Blood filled cyst most commonly seen in primary second molar or first permanent molar regions

360
Q

When is the eruption sequestrum seen?

A

In children at the time of eruption of the first permanent molar

361
Q

Which primary teeth are most often observed to be ankylosed?

A

Mandibular primary molars

362
Q

Rampant caries

A

Applied to a caries rate of 10 or more lesions per year.

363
Q

Which type of sugar causes the most rampant multisurface cavitation in vitro?

A

Sucrose

rather than glocose, fructose, sorbital, starch etc

364
Q

When should the parents start cleaning the child’s mouth?

A

When the first tooth erupts

365
Q

Folacin

A

Folic acid

366
Q

What is folic acid essential for?

A

Formation and maturation of both red and white cells

367
Q

What are caloric sugar substitutes?

A

Those that are not fermented by plaque flora

368
Q

Which one is sweeter, saccharin or sucrose?

A

Saccharin is 100 times sweeter than sucrose

369
Q

Aspartame, aka

A

nutra sweet

370
Q

Composition of aspartame

A
  • Aminoacids
  • Aspartic acid
  • Phenylalanine
371
Q

Which one is sweeter, aspartame or sucrose?

A

Aspartame, 200x sweeter

372
Q

Which one is sweeter, Aspartame or saccharin?

A

Aspartame, 2x sweeter.

373
Q

What is the first choice for a clamp in first permanent molar?

A

Ivory No. 7, can be used for both maxillary and mandibular teeth.

374
Q

Hypnodontics

A

Use of hypnosis in dentistry

375
Q

Who coined the term hypnodontics?

A

Richardson

376
Q

Phobia of pain, known as..?

A

Algophobia

377
Q

Cystic fibrosis

A

Multi-system disease involving most of the exocrine glands.

378
Q

Characteristic features of cystic fibrosis

A
  • High viscous secretion causing duct obstruction
  • Airway infection and maldigestion caused by pancreatic insufficiency
  • Chronic respiratory and GI disease
379
Q

Why do patients with cystic fibrosis have chronic respiratory and GI disease?

A

Defective gland secretions –> Abnormal water and electrolyte transport across epithelial cells –> question.

380
Q

What is the colour of the teeth of most children with cystic fibrosis?

A

Dark

381
Q

What is the reason for the discolouration of the teeth of children with cystic fibrosis?

A
  • the disease
  • therapeutic agents (tetracyclines)
  • both
382
Q

Calcium hydroxide introduced by…

A

Herman

383
Q

Calcium hydroxide introduced in…

A

1930

384
Q

How long should Calcium hydroxide be retained in IPC?

A

For 6-8 weeks.

385
Q

Calcium hydroxide pulpotomy in children

A

Not advised because of the chance of internal resorption occurring.

386
Q

Greatest chances of pulp exposure during restorative procedures

A

Mesiobuccal pulp horn of

  • permanent maxillary first molar
  • primary 1st molars

Mesiolingual pulp horn of permanent mandibular 1st molar

387
Q

Smallest primary tooth

A

Lower central incisor

388
Q

Smallest primary molar

A

Maxillary first molar

389
Q

Molar tubercle of Zucker candle is present in

A

Primary maxillary first molar

390
Q

Molar tubercle of Zuckercandle

A

Well-developed cervical ridge in upper first molar

391
Q

Primary molar that resembles permanent premolars

A

Primary maxillary first molar

392
Q

Primary maxillary second molar resembles

A

Permanent maxillary first molar

393
Q

Primary mandibular second molar resembles

A

Permanent mandibular first molar

394
Q

Primary molar wich does not resemble any permanent tooth

A

Primary mandibular first molar

395
Q

Long and sharp mesiolingual cusp is an outstanding feature of..

A

Deciduous first mandibular molar

396
Q

Fifth cusp or cusp of Carabelli is present in

A

Primary maxillary second molar

397
Q

Primary molar in which anatomy of pulp contraindicates and MOD preparation

A

Mandibular first molar

398
Q

Breast feeding should be stopped when the child is _____ years old

A

1.5

399
Q

Cervical mesiobuccal ridge is a feature of

A

Mandibular primary first molar

400
Q

Primary tooth most susceptible to caries

A

Mandibular second molar

401
Q

Teeth least commonly involved in nursing bottle caries

A

Mandibular incisors

402
Q

Teeth more involved in nursing bottle caries

A

Maxillary incisors

403
Q

Treatment of submerged tooth

A

If permanent tooth bud present-
Surgical extraction of involved tooth, only after the patient has crossed the normal exfoliation time.

If permanent tooth bud is not present-
Fixed prosthesis planned, only after the curve of Spee is established.

404
Q

What aspect of the saliva makes the tooth resistant to caries?

A

Presence of higher amounts of proline-rich proteins

405
Q

Which type of milk has the highest risk of nursing caries – Bovine, milk products or human milk?

A

Human – 7.4% lactose content.

406
Q

Which is more important – the number of sugar intakes or the amount?

A

Number.

407
Q

How much time is required to evaluate the success of apexification procedures?

A

3 years

408
Q

How much time is required to evaluate the success of apexogenesis procedures?

A

9-12 months to 18 months.

409
Q

First reported child abuse case

A

1871 - Mary Allen

410
Q

Battered Child Syndrome

A

Type of physical abuse reported by Henry Kenpe in 1962

411
Q

Clinical features of Battered Child Syndrome

A
  • Fractures of long bones
  • Subdural hematoma
  • Failure to thrive
  • Soft tissue swellings
  • Skin bruising
  • Retinal hemorrhages
412
Q

Munchausen’s Syndrome features

A
  • Parentally induced
  • Bleeding from various sites
  • Recurrent sepsis due to injection of contaminated solutions
  • Chronic diarrhea due to administration of laxatives
  • Recurrent fever
  • Skin rashes
413
Q

Child abuse vs Child neglect

A 
Abuse = Acute
Neglect = Chronic
414
Q

What is the difference between the time of onset of action of water and fat soluble drugs in adults and children?

A

Children have a higher body fat and water content, hence these drugs take a longer amount of time to act.

415
Q

Safe dose of LA with adrenaline

A

7mg/kg body weight

416
Q

Safe dose of LA without adrenaline

A

4.5 mg/kg body weight

417
Q

STD

A

Safely Tolerated Dose

418
Q

STD of fluorides

A

8 - 16 mg/kg body weight

419
Q

CLD

A

Certainly lethal dose

420
Q

CLD of fluoride

A

32 - 64 mg/kg

421
Q

Basket-Crown technique

A

In stainless steel crowns a window is prepared on the labial side for improvement in esthetics.

422
Q

Reverse stainless steel crown technique

A
  • Used to correct cross bite

- Lingual portion of the crown acts as an inclined plane

423
Q

Factors that change design of cavity in deciduous teeth

A
  • Overall size of tooth
  • Thickness of enamel and dentin
  • Large pulp horn
  • Buccal bulge and cervical constriction
  • Wider contacts
  • Wider dentinal tubules
424
Q

How is sensitivity prevented in restoration?

A
  • Using coolants during cavity preparation
  • Slow speed of instrument
  • Biocompatible restorative material with suitable base
425
Q

Estman Pattern bur

A

Aerotor burs with a metallic stopper at 1.5 mm from the tip

426
Q

Difference between normal and pedo size burs

A

Normal length of bur: 19mm

Pedo size bur: 16mm

427
Q

Which pedo bur serves the purpose of round and straight fissure bur?

A

Pear-shaped bur no. 330

428
Q

Which pedo bur serves the purpose of the inverted cone bur?

A

Inverted cone bur no 34

429
Q

What are the main factors which change the design of class 2 cavity in pedo patients

A
  • Direction of enamel rods

- Cervical constriction in proximal area influences proximal box preparation

430
Q

What is the maximum depth in class 2 cavity in deciduous t eeth

A

2.5 mm

431
Q

Where should the gingival wall be placed in a pedo patient?

A

Due to cervical constriction gingival wall should not be too gingival as it will be too close to the pulp chambers.

432
Q

What is the maximum depth of the gingival floor in a pedo class 2 cavity?

A

1 mm

433
Q

How does the width of the proximal box change in deciduous teeth?

A

It is more, so that the margins are located in self-cleansing areas.

434
Q

Ideal width of isthmus

A

1/3 of intercuspal distance

435
Q

Minimum width of isthmus

A

1.5 mm

436
Q

How wide should the gingival floor of the box be?

A

1mm

437
Q

On which surfaces can retention grooves be made in a pediatric class 2 preparation?

A
  • Buccoaxial wall
  • Linguoaxial wall
  • Never pulpal wall
438
Q

Mechanism of Chemico-mechanical caries removal

A

Chemicals are used to soften the demineralised dentin by hydrolysing the partially degraded collagen fibres

439
Q

What is the final reaction product of Caridex solutions?

A

N-monochloro amino butyric acid

440
Q

What is the function of N-monochloro amino butyric acid?

A

It softens the dentin

441
Q

Polycarbonate crowns

A

Tooth coloured esthetic crowns for “anterior deciduous teeth”

442
Q

What is the polycarbonate crown made up of?

A

A thermoplastic resin, made up of aromatic linear polyesters of carbonic acid

443
Q

Mink and Bennet technique

A

A technique for modification of Stainless steel crowns according to tooth size

444
Q

Medicaments for devitalisation in pulpotomy

A
  • Formocresol

- Mummifying paste

445
Q

Medicaments for preservation in pulpotomy

A
  • Calcium hydroxide, Ferric Sulphate
  • Glutaraldehyde
  • Electrocautery
446
Q

Medicaments for regeneration in pulpotomy

A
  • Bone morphogenic protein

- Tricalcium phosphate

447
Q

Sweet-Pulpotomy

A

Another name for formocresol pulpotomy

448
Q

How many visits does it take for formocresol pulpotomy?

A

4

449
Q

Original Buckley’s formula

A

COntains equal parts formaldehyde and cresol

450
Q

Concentration of Buckley’s formocresol used today

A

1/5, i.e., 20% formocresol

451
Q

Current Buckley’s formula

A
  • Cresol - 35%
  • Formaldehyde - 19%
  • Water and glycerin - 15%
452
Q

How is formocresol pulpotomy done?

A

A pellet of cotton is slightly dampened with 1:5 concentration of Buckley’s formula and placed in contact with the pulp stumps. It is allows to act for 5 minutes

453
Q

Chain reaction in formocresol pulpotomy

A
  • Formocresol bonds with aminoacids of pulp and makes it nonvital
  • It also inactivates the enzymes of the pulp (like hyaluronidase)
  • Results in fixation of pulp
  • Pulp becomes inert and resistant to all enqumatic reactions
454
Q

What chemicals does formocresol react with in the pulp?

A
  • Amino acids

- Enzymes

455
Q

What is the result of formocresol pulpotomy

A

Pulp becomes inert and resistant to all enzymatic reactions.

456
Q

Zones after formocresol application

A
  • Zone of fixation
  • Zone of atrophy
  • Zone of inflammation
  • Zone of vital pulp
457
Q

Precautions with formocresol

A

SInce it is caustic, care must be taken to avoid contact with gingival tissues

458
Q

Who introduced mummifying paste?

A

Hobson

459
Q

Composition of mummifying paste

A
  • Paraformaldehyde
  • Lignocaine
  • Propylene glycol
  • Carbowax
  • Caramine
460
Q

Filling materials and medicaments for pulpectomy

A
  • ZnOE
  • Calcium hydroxide
  • Iodoform paste
  • Vitapex
  • Poly-antibiotic paste
461
Q

Reasons for using ZnOE in pulpectomy.

A

It is resorbable and easily available.

462
Q

Reasons for use of iodoform paste in pulpectomy

A

It doesn’t set.

463
Q

Media for preserving avulsed tooth

A

Balanced Hank’s solution (AKA trade name Save-a-tooth solution)

464
Q

Balanced Hank’s solution

A

Isotonic salt solution

Pulse Pedodontics (2 decks)

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