December 2020 Flashcards

1
Q

What antibiotic has been used to treat GPA?

A

TMP-SMX!

Only for upper respiratory disease

INTERESTING!

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2
Q

Does ALL GPA require treatment?

A

No! In non-major organs, the benefit of treatment must be weighed against that of treatment

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3
Q

What are the 2 assays used to test for ANCA?

A

Indirect immunofluorescence assay and ELISA

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4
Q

Framework Question:

What is the difference between the Indirect immunofluorescence assay and ELISA in regards to ANCA testing? Their relationship with one another?

A

Of these two techniques, the immunofluorescence assay is more sensitive, and the ELISA is more specific.

IFA looks at the presence of a pattern of immunofluorescence while the ELISA is looking for Ab to specific antigens, specifically Proteinase 3 (PR3) and Myeloperoxisdase (MPO)

The optimal approach to clinical testing for ANCA is therefore to perform both immunofluorescence, if available, and ELISA to detect antibodies against the vasculitis-specific target antigens

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5
Q

What is an “immunofluorescence assay”? What is an “ELISA”?

A

Visual technique: tests are based upon visual interpretation of the immunofluorescence pattern. Immunoflourescent antibody binds to antigen of interest and under microscopy is visualized (can be direct or indirect)

ELISA: Instead of immnunofluorescent antibodies binding to antigens of interest, enzyme-linked antibodies bind to antigens of interest. Then a substrate specific to the enzyme is introduced, causing the enzyme to change color (can be direct or indirect)

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6
Q

What is the difference between “direct” and “indirect” immunofluorescence?

A

“Direct” and “Indirect” refer to the fluorescent antibody, that is, the antibody that is attached to the fluorochrome, the part the lights up under the microscope

Hence:

Direct immunofluorescence is when the flurorescent antibody binds directly to the antigen of interest

Indirect immunofluorescence is when the an monoclonal Ab (WITHOUT the fluorochrome), binds directly to the antigen of interest. Then, the fluorescent antibody binds to that antibody. Hence, the fluorescent antibody is indirectly binding to the antigen of interest

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7
Q

What is the difference between how the fluorescence is produced in immunofluorescence assay vs ELISA?

A

In immunofluorescence assays, there are monoclonal antibodies that are attached to fluorochromes, together called fluorescent antibodies. The purpose is to attach to antigens of interest. Now, when light at a certain wavelength is directed over the sample, these fluorochromes will fluoresce.

In ELISA, enzymes that are linked to antibodies are the ones that fluouresce. These enzymes are exposed to substrates, that once bound to the enzymes, will cause conformational change and fluorescence.

TLDR: IFA has Ab + Fluorochromes; ELISA has Ab + enzymes. Light causes fluorescence in the former. Substrate causes fluorescence in the latter

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8
Q

What is the difference between “direct” and “indirect” ELISA?

A
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9
Q

What is the expected findings of C ANCA vs P ANCA in IFA?

A

C ANCA shows cytoplasmic staining, hence C

P ANCA shows perinuclear staining, hence staining in the nucleus

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10
Q

What is C ANCA and P ANCA usually associated with in regards to specific Antigens?

A

C ANCA is usually associated with antibodies against PR3

P ANCA is usually associated with antibodies against MPO

Need a mnemonic: CPR3 (sounds like robot), PMPO (Pimpo!)

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11
Q

What is the #1 part of the body affected in GPA?

A

95% upper respiratory tract (which includes nasal, sinues, ears, throat)

Clinical tip: if not present, questionable that disease is GPA

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12
Q

What are the 3 characteristic parts of the body affected in GPA?

A

Upper tract 95%
Lower tract 90%
Kidneys 75%

TIP: G picmonic affecting the upper resp tract, lower tract and kidneys

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13
Q

What is the natural history of renal disease in GPA if left untreated?

A

Once clinically apparent renal impairment is present, RAPIDLY PROGRESSIVE RENAL FAILURE ensues without treatment

Clinical tip: reason why diagnosis of GPA is urgent if the clinical picture is suggestive, since time without treatment is time for the development of RPGN

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14
Q

Main cause of mortality from GPA?

A

Renal disease!

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15
Q

Does all GPA require treatment?

A

No

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16
Q

What type of vessels are affected in ANCA-associated vasculitis?

A

ALL of them are small vessel vasculitis

GPA – small vessels only
MPA – small and medium size
EGPA – small and medium size

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17
Q

What is the #1 organ involved in MPA?

AKA what is the #1 organ involved in MPA, that if not affected, is questionable if MPA is present?

A

Kidneys

Clinical tip: the lack of renal involvement suggests another diagnosis other than MPA

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18
Q

What are the most common organs involved in MPA?

A

renal (80%-100%)

musculoskeletal (56%-76%) - myalgia

neurologic (37%-72%) - mononeuritis multiplex

cutaneous (30%-60%) - palpable púrpura

pulmonary (25%-55%) - pulmonary hemorrhage

gastrointestinal (21%-58%)

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19
Q

What is the #1 organ involved in EGPA?

AKA what is the #1 organ involved in EGPA, that if not affected, is questionable if EGPA is present?

A

Lungs (lower tract) – as presented as asthma

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20
Q

What are the most commons organs involved in EGPA? (>50%)

A

Lungs (100%) – Asthma
Peripheral neuropathy: Mononeuritis multiplex (78%)
Sinus (70%): Allergic rhinitis or sinus polyposis
Skin (50%): palpable purpura, subcutaneous nodule

Clinical tip: if patient doesn’t have a history of asthma and allergic rhinitis, they don’t have EGPA

Dynamed

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21
Q

What lab finding is present in almost all patients with EGPA?

A

Eosinophilia

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22
Q

TIP: “GEM” mnemonic demonstrates the ONE main organ that is most commonly involved in ANCA associated vasculitis

A

G (GPA): Upper airway tract
E (EGPA): Lungs
M (MPA): Kidneys

Clinical tip: if these are NOT present, the disease is likely not present

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23
Q

What is the cause of the combination of pharyngitis and elevated liver enzymes?

A

CMV

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24
Q

Diagnosis of acute CMV infection?

A

IgM elevated and IgG elevated fourfold increase

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25
Q

What is the most common presentation of symptomatic CMV infection?

A

Heterophile-negative infectious mononucleosis

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26
Q

How does the infectious mononucleosis of CMV differ from that of EBV?

A

Prolonged fever, mild pharyngitis, hepatitis

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27
Q

Differential diagnosis of diffuse alveolar hemorrhage

A
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28
Q

List of pulmonary renal syndromes (top causes) and most devastating and treatable ones

A
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29
Q

What is considered “pulmonary renal” syndrome?

A

Concurrent alveolar hemorrhage and glomerulonephritis

Dyna med has one section under diffuse alveolar hemorrhage

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30
Q

Framework Question:

What is the layman definition of vasculitis?

A

Group of diseases characterized clinicopathologically by inflammation of AND damage to blood vessels. Inflammation leads to compromise which causes ischemia to the organs/tissues supplied by the involved vessels

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31
Q

Framework Question:

What are the 3 main players in the pathogenesis of vasculitis?

A
  • Immune complex formation
  • ANCA Antibodies
  • Pathogenic T lymphocyte response
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32
Q

How may immune complexes play a role in the pathogenesis of vasculitis?

A

Excess antigen leads to an excess of antigen-antibody complexes

Vasoactive amines such as histamine causes permeability of vessels

Immune complexes then are able to deposit in the vessel walls

Activate the complement system, especially C5a, which is chemotactic

Neutrophils invade the cell walls, phagocytose the immune complexes, release intracytoplasmic enzymes that damage the vessel walls

Compromise vessel

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33
Q

How may ANCA play a role in the pathogenesis of vasculitis?

A

Tip: there is evidence for and against the idea that they play a role in the pathophysiology

Evidence for: ANCA primed neutrophils will adhere to and kill endothelial cells in vitro

Evidence against:
- GPA does exist even in the absence of PR3 Ab
- GPA activity does NOT correlate with PR3 levels
PR3 levels can remain high for YEARS even in remission

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34
Q

How may pathogenic T cell response play a role in the pathogenesis of vasculitis?

A

Review: Helper T Cells (CD4) interact with antigen presenting cells via HLA 2 (2x4 = 8)

Vascular endothelial cells can present HLA II molecules when activated by cytokines. They, like antigen presenting macrophages, can interact with CD4 T cells and cause an immune response at the level of the vessels

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35
Q

What diseases are associated with ANCA?

A

TIP: the diseases with acronyms, mostly SMALL vessel vasculitis

GPA
EGPA
MPA

Tip: though ANCA stands for anti neutrophilic cytoplasmic ANTIBODIES, the renal disease associated with ANCA vasculitides are “pauci” immune, that is, there are NO antibody depositions

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36
Q

What antibodies are C-ANCAs most commonly associated with? P-ANCA?

A

C- ANCA -> PR3
-TIP: CPR3

P-ANCA -> MPO
-TIP: PMPO

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37
Q

First line treatment for pericarditis?

A

NSAID and Colchicine if no contraindications

800mg TID and Colchicin 0.5 to 0.6 mg BID

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38
Q

The presence of what clinical features should prompt consideration of an underlying vasculitis?

A
Glomerulonephritis 
Palpable purpura
Pulmonary infiltrates – so common!
Chronic inflammatory sinusitis
Unexplained ischemic events
Microscopic hematuria
Mononeuritis multiplex
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39
Q

IgA presentation

A

1: persistent microscopic hematuria

Other presentation:

Progressive kidney disease
Glomerulonephritis
Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis
Nephrotic syndrome

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40
Q

What is it so crucial to distinguish between vasculitis and infection?

A

There is a lot of overlap

The treatment for vasculitis is immunosuppression which could be devastating in the setting of infection or life-saving in a patient rapidly deteriorating

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41
Q

What size vessels are generally involved in ANCA associated vasculitis?

A

Small vessels!

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42
Q

What are the 3 main parts of the body classically involved in GPA?

A

Upper tract 95%
Lower tract 90%
Kidneys 75%

TIP: G picmonic affecting the upper resp tract, lower tract and kidneys

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43
Q

What are the characteristic histopathologic findings consistent with GPA? Vs. EGPA vs MPA?

A

GPA: Necrotizing vasculitis with granuloma formation
EGPA: Necrotizing vasculitis with granuloma formation with infiltrating eosinophils
- TIP: It’s in the name! Granuloma
MPA: Necrotizing vasculitis W/O granulomas.
- TIP: absence of granulomas is what distinguishes MPA from the other 2

TIP: grandmas are almost dead, hence granulomas are also necrotizing

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44
Q

What is the spectrum of lung findings of GPA?

A

Multiple, bilateral, nodular cavitary infiltrates

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45
Q

What pattern of immune complexes are expected in a renal biopsy of a patient suspected of having GPA?

A

Pauci immune!

Don’t get confused. Though ANCA is an antibody we use to diagnoses ANCA vasculitis, there are actually NO immune complexes deposited in the kidneys

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46
Q

What are the types of renal involvement for GPA?

A

FSGS, but can progress to RPGN

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47
Q

What are the organ systems affected at least >50% of the time in GPA (including the top 3 organs)?

A

Upper respiratory tract (95%)
Lower respiratory tract (90%)
Renal ( 75%)

Joints (70%)
Eyes (50%)
Fever (50%)
Skin (46%)

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48
Q

What is the #1 part of the body affected in GPA? And its manifestations?

A

Upper airway tract (95%)

Sinusitis
Sinus drainage/purulence
Hearing loss
Subglottic stenosis 
Ear pain 
Oral lesions
Otitis media
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49
Q

Strange presentations

Proptosis

A

Think GPA due to retroorbital mass

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50
Q

What ANCA Ab is associated with GPA?

A

90% of patients with GPA have PR3-ANCA

Very high specificity

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51
Q

What is the relationship between GPA and VTE?

A

Higher risk of VTE

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52
Q

What is the definitive diagnosis of GPA? Highest yield biopsy?

A

Biopsy

Pulmonary tissue offers the highest diagnostic yield

Tip: Definitive diagnosis of all vasculitides is biopsies

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53
Q

Diagnostic Feedback:

Normal UA in the setting of acutely declining renal function does NOT rule out glomerulonephritis as RPGN may not yield hematuria/proteinuria, etc.

A

Biopsy!

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54
Q

What are the 2 treatments available for Hypertriglyceridemia induced pancreatitis?

A

Insulin drip or apheresis

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55
Q

What is the goal TG level prior to discontinuing insulin drip for patient with TG induced pancreatitis?

A

500

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56
Q

How does insulin treat hypertriglycidemia in TG induced pancreatitis?

A

Insulin lowers triglyceride levels, but the goal of insulin therapy in severe acute pancreatitis associated with severe hypertriglyceridemia is to reverse the stress-associated release of fatty acids from adipocytes, to promote intracellular triglyceride generation within adipocytes, and to promote fatty acid metabolism in insulin sensitive cells, often in the setting of diabetes and peripheral insulin resistance

TIP: insulin promotes TG formation IN tissue and OUT of the blood

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57
Q

What is the role of ANCA in monitoring disease activity in GPA?

A

No role

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58
Q

What are the 2 phases of treatment for GPA?

A

Induction of remission

Maintenance of remissioin

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59
Q

What are the 2 main treatments for induction of remission in GPA?

A

Induction of remission

Maintenance of remissioin

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60
Q

What are the 2 main treatments for induction of remission in GPA?

A

Cyclophosphamide + steroids

OR

Rituximab + steroids

Both are just as good

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61
Q

What are the 2 main treatments for induction of remission in GPA?

A

Cyclophosphamide + steroids

OR

Rituximab + steroids

Both are just as good

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62
Q

Dosing of Cyclophosphamide in induction of remission in GPA?

A

2 mg/kg/day – need to adjust for renal insufficiency

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63
Q

Of the 2 regimens for induction of remission of GPA, which is preferred in cases of imminent life-threatening disease such as RPGN, or pulmonary hemorrhage requiring mechanical ventilation?

A

Cyclophosphamide/Steroids

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64
Q

What are the options of medications for maintenance of remission for GPA?

A

Steroids + either the following:

Methotrexate
Azathioprine
Rituximab
MMF

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65
Q

Is treatment for GPA lifelong?

A

No

Therapy is usually given 2 years after remission, then consideration of tapering is considered

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66
Q

Does ALL GPA require treatment?

A

No! In non-major organs, the benefit of treatment must be weighed against that of treatment

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67
Q

What is the most common presentation of Microscopic polyangiitis?

A

dyspnea
cough
hemoptysis

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68
Q

In the pediatric population, what is more effective for fever control and pain management – acetaminophen vs Ibuprofen?

A

Systematic Review and Meta-analysis
Oct 2020
Jama Open Network Pediatrics

Conclusion: Ibuprofen

-19 studies, 11 randomized/8 non-randomized
-240,000 participants
-

Conclusion: In this study, use of ibuprofen vs acetaminophen for the treatment of fever or pain in children younger than 2 years was associated with reduced temperature and less pain within the first 24 hours of treatment, with equivalent safety.

Tan E, Braithwaite I, McKinlay CJD, et al.Comparison of Acetaminophen (Paracetamol) With Ibuprofen for Treatment of Fever or Pain in Children Younger Than 2 Years: A Systematic Review and Meta-analysis.JAMA Netw Open. 2020 Oct 1;3(10):e2022398. doi: 10.1001/jamanetworkopen.2020.22398.

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69
Q

Does early coronary angiography vs none at all following cardiac arrest without STEMI lead to survival benefit?

A

Circulation Nov 2020
RCT: The PEARL study

  • Primary endpoint: composite of efficacy and safety measures, including efficacy measures of survival to discharge, favorable neurologic status at discharge (Cerebral Performance Category score =2), echocardiographic measures of left ventricular ejection fraction >50%, and a normal regional wall motion score of 16 within 24 hours of admission
  • 2nd endpoint: presence of culprit lesion
  • Patient: >18, out of hospital arrest, no STEMI
  • Results:
  • premature termination of trial. 49/99 patients with early angiography.
  • No difference in composite or simply survival
  • 47% of patients with culprit lesion
  • Conclusion: Understudied study showed no difference in outcomes for early coronary angiography

Kern KB, Radsel P, Jentzer JC, et al.Randomized Pilot Clinical Trial of Early Coronary Angiography Versus No Early Coronary Angiography After Cardiac Arrest Without ST-Segment Elevation: The PEARL Study.Circulation. 2020 Nov 24;142(21):2002-2012. doi: 10.1161/CIRCULATIONAHA.120.049569. Epub 2020 Sep 28.

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70
Q

Where is alcohol predominantly absorbed?

A

Proximal small intestine

But small amounts can also be absorbed in the mouth, esophagus, stomach, and large intestines as well

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71
Q

What factors can increase the rate of alcohol absorption?

A
  • rapid gastric emptying, which can be induced by concurrent consumption of carbonated beverages
  • the ingestion ofalcoholin the absence of other calorie sources such as proteins, fat, or carbohydrates.
  • A final factor that can increase absorption is to drinkalcoholthat is diluted to a modest concentration (~20% or less). AKA lower concentration has higher absorption rate compared to higher
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72
Q

What are atypical presentations of angina that women have when presenting with coronary heart disease?

A

Nausea, indigestion and upper back pain

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73
Q

What is the difference between the characteristics in men and women with coronary heart disease?

A

Women present 10-15 years later
Women have more co-morbidities than men
Women present with atypical features

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74
Q

What is the difference in the treatment of men vs women for CAD?

A

Women are still referred less often by physicians for diagnostic and therapeutic cardiovascular procedures, and there are more false-positive and false-negative diagnostic tests in women. Women are also less likely than men to receive angioplasty, thrombolysis, coronary artery bypass grafting, aspirin, and β-blockers. Despite this, the 5- and 10-year survival rates following coronary artery bypass grafting are the same between the sexes.

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75
Q

What category of bacteria are often implicated in all lung abscesses?

A

Anaerobic bacteria

It is widely thought that colonization of the gingival crevices by anaerobic bacteria or microaerophilic streptococci (especially in patients with gingivitis and periodontal disease), combined with a risk of aspiration, is important in the development of lung abscesses.

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76
Q

Preceding event for most causes of primary lung abscesses?

A

Aspiration

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77
Q

Aspiration pneumonia (and abscesses) usually affects what part of the lungs?

A

Because most cases of lung abscess occur in the context of RECLINING aspiration, the dependent lobes of the lung are most vulnerable. The dependent lobes include the superior segment of the lower lobes and the posterior segment of the upper lobes, with the right lung more commonly involved than the left lung. The middle lobe and the lingula are the most ventral lobes and are therefore nondependent in the supine position.

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78
Q

What is the relationship between aspiration pneumonia and primary lung abscess?

A

The most common cause of primary lung abscess is aspiration

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79
Q

2nd most common cancer in women worldwide?

A

Cervical cancer

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80
Q

What are the 2 HPV types that cause most cervical cancers?

A

HPV-16 and -18 are the types most frequently associated with high-grade dysplasia and targeted by both U.S. FDA–approved vaccines

Interesting: More than 60 types of HPV are known, with approximately 20 types having the ability to generate high-grade dysplasia and malignancy

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81
Q

What is a cofactor as opposed to a risk factor?

A

Cofactor(epidemiology) is a condition that exacerbates the effects of another condition;

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82
Q

What are risk factors for not only HPV, but also high grade dysplasia?

A

Risk factors for HPV infection and, in particular, dysplasia include a high number of sexual partners, early age of first intercourse, and history of venereal disease

TIP: all about sexual exposure, hence more partners, earlier age and STD’s because STD’s imply sexual encounters

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Perfectly
83
Q

Staging of Cervical cancer?

Stage 0:
Stage 1:
Stage 2: 
Stage 3: 
Stage 4:
A

Stage 0: In situ
Stage 1: Only cervix
Stage 2: Outside cervix but NOT in lower third vagina and NOT in pelvis
Stage 3: Outside cervix but only lower third vagina or in pelvic wall
Stage 4: Pelvic organs or metastasis

84
Q

What is the difference between CK and Troponin rise and duration in the setting of ACS?

A

CK: 4-8 hours rise, 48-72 hours duration

Trop: 4-8 hours rise, 7-10 days duration

85
Q

What is the cause of pseudothrombocytopenia? How to confirm?

A

Blood collected in tubes with EDTA, the anticoagulant in the test tubes, (purple top) will clump. EDTA is ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid. It will decrease the Ca content of blood, leading to agglutination of the platelets to IgG.

Obtaining a blood smear will show platelet clumps. Secondly, you can obtain blood sample in a green or blue top which will reveal normal blood count

86
Q

How many migraine episodes/month would you consider preventative migraine medication?

A

4 attacks, or 1x/week

87
Q

Patient with migraines has increasing episodes disrupting her life. Upon initiating a preventative medication, you advise her about the generally efficacy of preventative medication as well as when to expect treatment effect?

A

The efficacy in decreasing migraine attacks is 50%–75%.

However, the treatment effect is delayed 2–12 weeks.

88
Q

What is the presentation of Pancoast tumors?

A

Arm and shoulder pain
Brachial plexus neuropathy
Horner syndrome

Explanation:
Apically located, the tumor extends to involve the 8th cervical and first and second thoracic nerve, and as it grows involves the sympathetic ganglia

89
Q

What is the cause of most Pancoast tumors?

A

Non-small cell lung cancer

90
Q

What is the best screening lab to evaluate a patient with acromegaly?

A

IGF 1 since GH is highly pulsatile so random levels are not reliable

91
Q

Framework Question:

What is the mechanism by which Acetaminophen causes liver injury?

A

At normal dosing, the hepatocytes are NOT injured, but at high doses, the metabolite NAPQI (N-acetyl-p-benzoquinone imine), will overwhelm the gluthathione stores that are needed to convert NAPQI to a nontoxic metabolite

Clinical tip: direct toxic effect to hepatocytes comes from the drug itself or a toxic metabolite of the drug

92
Q

Framework Question:

What is an idiosyncratic reaction to a drug?

A

Idiosyncratic reactions are infrequent and unpredictable

There is no dose dependency, and the timing of hepatic injury has little association with the duration of drug treatment.

93
Q

Top cause of thiamine deficiency in developed country?

A

The most common causes ofthiaminedeficiency in developed countries are alcoholism and chronic illnesses such as cancer.

94
Q

How does alcohol use lead to thiamine deficiency?

A

Alcoholinterferes with the absorption ofthiamineas well as the synthesis of thiamin pyrophosphate.

In addition,alcoholincreases the excretion ofthiaminein the urine.

Moreover, most chronic alcoholics have low dietary intake ofthiamine.

95
Q

What distinguishes Wernicke from Wernicke-Korsakoff?

A

When there is additional loss of memory with confabulatory psychosis, the syndrome is called Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome

96
Q

What is thiamine replacement for Wernicke’s encephalopathy?

A

Thiamineshould be repleted intravenously at a dose of 200 mg IV three times daily until there is no further improvement in acute symptoms, and then long-term oralthiamineat a dose of 10 mg daily should be continued until recovery is complete.

97
Q

Relationship between Beriberi and Wernicke’s encephalopathy?

A

Both are different presentations of thiamine deficiency.

Beriberi is divided into either “wet” or “dry” depending on the presence of high output heart failure and cardiomegaly

Alcoholic patients also demonstrate central nervous system effects. Acutely, this can consist of horizontal nystagmus, ophthalmoplegia, cerebellar ataxia, and mental impairment. This constellation of findings is called Wernicke encephalopathy.

98
Q

What lymphoid malignancy is associated with HCV?

A

Lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma

99
Q

What lymphoid malignancy is associated with HHV8?

A

Primary effusion lymphoma and multicentric castleman disease

100
Q

What is the natural progression of symptoms in Measles?

A

Incubation period 7-14 days

Fever is first symptom – high 104
Koplik spots follow – grains of sand on red base
Rash – maculopapular starting at hairline and spreads down body

101
Q

When is measles infectious?

A

4 days prior to sx to 4 days after rash

hence, after 4 days of rash, not infectious

102
Q

Difficult diagnosis:

What are key features of measles presentation

A

“Fever/rash” presentations should always prompt diagnosis

Koplik spots are pathognomonic

Clinical Tip: highly misdiagnosed

103
Q

What is a pathognomic presentation of measles? Describe it?

A

Koplik spots are pathognomonic

These are 1- to 3-mm whitish, grayish, or bluish elevations with an erythematous base, typically seen on the buccal mucosa opposite the molar teeth, though they can spread to cover the buccal and labial mucosa as well as the hard and soft palate.

104
Q

What causes the mortality in measles?

A

Neurologic and pulmonary complications

CNS:

  • PME: primary measles encephalitis
  • SSPE: subacute sclerosing panencephalitis which is fatal
  • MIBE: measles inclusion body encephalitis
  • ADEM: acute disseminated encephalomyelitis

Pulm:

  • bronchopneumonia,
  • laryngotracheobronchitis (croup)
105
Q

Recommended time for MMR vaccine? (Measles)

A

12-15 mos then 4-6 years

106
Q

What Vitamin deficiency, if present, leads to high mortality of measles?

A

Vitamin A

Tip: Malnutrition is also a risk factor, they go hand in hand

107
Q

What is the recommended treatment of of Measles infection?

A

A meta-analysis has concluded that there is clear evidence that two megadoses of vitamin A canlower the risk of deathin children HOSPITALIZED with measles, particularly those under the age of TWO.

108
Q

Which vasculitis syndromes are associated with immune complex deposition?

A

Henoch-Schönlein purpura
Cryoglobulinemic vasculitis associated with hepatitis C, Serum sickness
Cutaneous vasculitic syndromes
Polyarteritis nodosa–like vasculitis associated with hepatitis B

109
Q

What is the gas content of the small intestine and how are they produced?

A

Nitrogen, Oxygen are from aerophagia

Hydrogen, CO2 and methane are produced by small intestine bacteria

110
Q

In patients presenting with vertigo and nystagmus, what type of nystagmus is indicative of a central cause?

A

Downbeat nystagmus is a pure vertical nystagmus associated with cerebellar disease.

Gaze-evoked nystagmus - cerebellar disease.

Rebound nystagmus is a type of primary position nystagmus provoked by eccentric gaze - cerebellar or brainstem disease.

Pure torsional nystagmus - central sign.

Conjugate horizontal jerk nystagmus may be seen in either peripheral or central causes of vertigo

Unidirectional horizontal nystagmus usually indicates peripheral lesion

111
Q

How to describe the direction of nystagmus?

A

The direction of nystagmus described the direction of the FAST phase

112
Q

What is gaze evoked nystagmus? Compared to end-gaze nystagmus? Compared to unidirectional horizontal nystagmus?

A

Nystagmus in an eccentric gaze with the fast phase beating in gaze direction (such as right beating in a right-looking gaze, left beating in the left-looking gaze, hence the “direction” changes (remember direction is determined by the fast phase)

Gaze evoked and end-gaze nystagmus are synonymous

Unidirectional horizontal means there is only one direction, so won’t change direction when gazing the opposite direction

113
Q

What is the pathophysiology of achalasia?

A

Increasing evidence suggests that the ultimate cause of ganglion cell degeneration in achalasia is an autoimmune process attributable to a latent infection with human HSV-1 combined with genetic susceptibility.

114
Q

What is the dose and schedule for steroid therapy in sepsis?

A

Hydrocortisoneshould be considered at a dose of 50 mg every 6 hours in patients with septic shock on vasopressors. If clinical improvement occurs with use ofhydrocortisoneover 24–48 hours, then a course of therapy for 5–7 days is indicated

115
Q

According to the 2001 SCCM definition what is the difference between:

SIRS
Sepsis
Severe sepsis
Septic shock

A

SIRS: 2/4 SIRS

Sepsis: 2/4SIRS + suspected or documented infection

Severe sepsis: sepsis w/ end organ damage

  • BP
  • Lactic acid
  • Urine output
  • Lung injury: PaO2/FiO2 < 250 without PNA or PaO2/FiO2 <200 with PNA
  • Renal injury
  • Liver injury – bili or INR
  • Hematologic- thrombocytopenia

Septic shock: persistent hypotension after fluid resus

116
Q

What is jerk nystagmus?

A

Nystagmus is jerk, when it corrects during its fast corrective phase

117
Q

What is the definition of sepsis and septic shock according to the 2016 Third International Consensus Definition for Sepsis and Septic Shock

A

The definition of sepsis is based on the prediction rule SOFA

Sepsis - life-threatening organ dysfunction caused by dysregulated host response to infection

“Organ dysfunction” is defined by SOFA, and needs 2 points

Septic shock is sepsis with persistent hypotension (MAP < 65 mmHg) requiring vasopressors

118
Q

What organs are taken into account in the SOFA prediction rule?

A
Kidney
Lung
Cardiovascular
Brain
Liver
Heme
119
Q

What makes up qSOFA?

A

Hypotension SBP < 100mmHG
AMS
Tachypnea > 22

Clinical Tip: HAT

120
Q

What is the name of a single episode of a demyelination disease?

A

Clinically isolated syndrome

121
Q

What is the presentation of inter-nuclear ophthalmoplegia?

A

The hallmark of internuclear ophthalmoplegia is impaired adduction in the eye ipsilateral to the affected medial longitudinal fasciculus and nystagmus in the opposite eye when abducting

122
Q

Where is the location of the lesion leading to inter-nuclear ophthalmologia?

A

Lesion of the median longitudinal fascículos

It is a paired white matter tract passing close to the midline, through the brainstem lying ventral to the cerebral aqueduct in the midbrain and the fourth ventricle in the pons and medulla

123
Q

Finerenone - efficacy in slowing CKD progression?

A

NEJM Dec 2020
RCT Fidelio CKD trial

In patients with CKD and type 2 diabetes, treatment with finerenone resulted in lower risks of CKD progression and cardiovascular events than placebo. (Funded by Bayer; FIDELIO-DKD ClinicalTrials.gov number, NCT02540993.).

Bakris GL, Agarwal R, Anker SD, et al. Effect of Finerenone on Chronic Kidney Disease Outcomes in Type 2 Diabetes. N Engl J Med. 2020 Dec 3;383(23):2219-2229. doi: 10.1056/NEJMoa2025845. Epub 2020 Oct 23.

124
Q

Are the use of beta blockers related to increase in COPD exacerbation?

A

Systematic Review and Meta Analysis

Eur Heart Journal
Nov 2020

Forty-nine studies were included, with a total sample size of 670 594. Among these, 12 studies were randomized controlled trials (RCTs; seven crossover and five parallel RCTs) and 37 studies were observational (including four post hoc analyses of data from RCTs).

The hazard ratios (HRs) of COPD exacerbation between COPD patients who were not treated with BBs and

  • those who were treated with BBs 0.77j [95% confidence interval (CI) 0.67, 0.89]
  • cardioselective BBs 0.72 [95% CI 0.56, 0.94]
  • noncardioselective BBs 0.98 [95% CI 0.71, 1.34, respectively] (HRs <1 indicate favouring BB therapy).

The HRs of all-cause mortality between patients with COPD who were not treated with BBs and

  • those who were treated with BBs 0.70 [95% CI 0.59, 0.83]
  • cardioselective BBs 0.60 [95% CI 0.48, 0.76]
  • noncardioselective BBs 0.74 [95% CI 0.60, 0.90]

(HRs <1 indicate favouring BB therapy)

CONCLUSION: The use of BBs in patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is not only safe but also reduces their all-cause and in-hospital mortality. Cardioselective BBs may even reduce chronic obstructive pulmonary disease exacerbations. In addition, cardioselective BBs do not affect the action of bronchodilators. Importantly, BBs reduce the heart rate acceleration caused by bronchodilators. BBs should be prescribed freely when indicated in patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and heart disease.

Yang YL, Xiang ZJ, Yang JH, et al. Association of beta-blocker use with survival and pulmonary function in patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary and cardiovascular disease: a systematic review and meta-analysis. Eur Heart J. 2020 Nov 19. pii: 5992317. doi: 10.1093/eurheartj/ehaa793.

125
Q

What did the WHO Solidarity Trial demonstrate about the various drugs used for COVID 19?

A

NEJM Nov 2020

RCT Solidarity Trial by the WHO

Mortality trials of four repurposed antiviral drugs - remdesivir, hydroxychloroquine, lopinavir, and interferon beta-1a

At 405 hospitals in 30 countries, 11,330 adults - 2750 were assigned to receive remdesivir,

  • 954 to hydroxychloroquine
  • 1411 to lopinavir (without interferon)
  • 2063 to interferon (including 651 to interferon plus lopinavir)
  • 4088 to no trial drug

Adherence was 94 to 96%

CONCLUSIONS: These remdesivir, hydroxychloroquine, lopinavir, and interferon regimens had little or no effect on hospitalized patients with Covid-19, as indicated by overall mortality, initiation of ventilation, and duration of hospital stay.

Pan H, Peto R, Henao-Restrepo AM, et al. Repurposed Antiviral Drugs for Covid-19 - Interim WHO Solidarity Trial Results. N Engl J Med. 2020 Dec 2. doi: 10.1056/NEJMoa2023184.

126
Q

What are the medication options for treating aortic dissection?

A

IV beta blocker such as esmolol

Add vasodilator if goal is still not achieved such as nitroprusside or nicardipine

127
Q

What are the hemodynamic parameters to aim for when treating aortic dissection?

A

BP 110 to 120

HR < 60

128
Q

What triad is present > 95% of cases of acute aortic dissection?

A

1) acute onset of thoracic or abdominal pain described as tearing or ripping
2) mediastinal widening on chest radiograph
3) either pulse differential (absence of proximal extremity or carotid pulse) OR BP differential (>20 sbp in left vs right arm)

Clinical tip: all of these can easily be assessed prior to CT!

129
Q

Features of Parkinsonism?

A

Bradykinesia
Tremor
Cogwheel rigidity
Postural instability

130
Q

Relationship between Parkinsonism and párkinson disease? The difference?

A

Parkinson Disease is one cause of parkinsonism

Parkinsonism is the constellation of signs/symptoms, but Parkinson disease is a specific cause

131
Q

What feature of Parkinson disease is essential in the diagnosis by the Movement Disorder Society Clinical Diagnostic Criteria?

A

Bradykinesia

Movement Disorder Society (MDS) Clinical Diagnostic Criteria for Parkinson Disease
based on consensus criteria derived from MDS task force for definition of Parkinson disease
diagnostic criteria -

bradykinesia with at least 1 of

muscular rigidity (such as cogwheeling)

resting tremor of 4-6 hertz

132
Q

Where does most of the Na+ the is filtered through the kidneys reabsorb into the body?

A

Approximately two-thirds of filtered Na+-Cl–is reabsorbed by the renal proximal tubule, via both paracellular and transcellular mechanisms

The thick ascending limb of Henle subsequently reabsorbs another 25%–30% of filtered Na+-Cl–via the apical, furosemide-sensitive Na+-K+-2Cl–co-transporter.

Cool tip: 1.5 kg of salt is filtered daily via the kidneys! Hence, reabsorption is a must

133
Q

What healthcare exposures places a patient at risk of CAP with MRSA?

A

Tip: all have to do with invasive procedures. This is unlike the risk factors for Pseudomonas.

Chronic dialysis – access
Home antibiotics – frequent access
Wound care - debridement

134
Q

What race is the presence of cardiac sarcoid more common?

A

The presence of cardiac involvement is influenced by race. Although over a quarter of Japanese sarcoidosis patients develop cardiac disease, only 5% of sarcoidosis patients in the United States and Europe develop symptomatic cardiac disease

135
Q

What is initial choice of abx for patients with neutropenic fever?

A

Cefepime

Zosyn

Antipseudomonal Carbapenem e.g. Meropenem, Imipenem Cilastin

TIP: All cover gram positive and gram negative organisms including Pseudomonas

136
Q

Does Crohns and UC have different risks for cancer?

A

The cancer risks in Crohn disease and UC are probably equivalent for similar extent and duration of disease.

Thus, the same endoscopic surveillance strategy used for UC is recommended for patients with chronic Crohn colitis

137
Q

What cancers are Crohns patients at risk for?

A

Patients with Crohn disease may have an increased risk of non-Hodgkin lymphoma, leukemia, and myelodysplastic syndromes

138
Q

When should patient with new diagnosis of IBD have their first screening colonoscopy? Then after?

A

Within 8 years

Then the frequency is 1-3 years depending on factors

Dynamed

139
Q

Patient with UC has dysplasia found on colonoscopy biopsy – Next step in treatment?

A

COLECTOMY!!!

140
Q

What strains of HPV cause the vast majority of anogenital warts?

A

HPV types 6 and 11 cause 90% of anogenital warts, whereas types 16 and 18 are responsible for 70% of cervical cancers.

141
Q

Why should patients that receive HPV vaccine still continue to have Pap smears?

A

After vaccination, Pap testing is recommended to detect disease caused by other oncogenic HPV types. Because 30% of cervical cancers are caused by HPV types not contained in the vaccines, no changes in cervical cancer screening programs are currently recommended

142
Q

What are the top 3 cancers associated with Lynch syndrome? When to suspect Lynch syndrome?

A

Suspect Lynch in any pateitn with cancer < 50 yo from an organ specifically characteristic of Lynch syndrome

Top 3

  • Colorectal
  • Endometrial
  • Gastric

TIP:

  • GI heavy: Colorectal, small intestine, gastric, biliary and pancreatic
  • GU: Ureteral and renal pelvis
  • Female GU: Endometrial and ovarian
143
Q

What family history of colon cancer is characteristic of Lynch?

A

3 family members with colon cancer
2 generations
1 of the cases < 50 yo

Tip: “3, 2, 1” rule

144
Q

What is the most common presentation of ALS?

A

The most common presenting symptom in ALS is asymmetric weakness of insidious onset, which is most prominent in the lower extremities.

TIP: Probably abnormal gait is the presentation

145
Q

Framework question:

What part of the nervous system is affected by ALS?

A

The pathologic hallmark of ALS is loss or death of both upper and lower motor neurons. The upper motor neuron loss can be demonstrated by degeneration of the corticospinal tracts typically originating in layer five of the motor cortex and descending downward via the pyramidal tract to synapse with the lower motor neurons both directly and indirectly via interneurons. The lower motor neuron disease is manifested by death of anterior horn cells in the spinal cord and brainstem, which can lead to bulbar symptoms.

146
Q

Frame work question:

What is the grading for reflexes? What is the grading for normal reflexes?

A

♣ 0: absent reflex
♣ 1+: trace, or seen only with reinforcement
♣ KEY: 2+ is normal
♣ 3+: brisk
♣ 4+: nonsustained clonus (i.e., repetitive vibratory movements)
♣ 5+: sustained clonus

147
Q

Out of carbs, proteins and fats which source of energy do we derive the most calories and nutrients?

A

The largest source of calories and nutrients in the diet is carbohydrates. At least 45%–55% of a person’s total calories are derived from carbohydrates.

Carbs > Fats > Proteins

148
Q

What is the link between procidentia and depression?

A

Patients with procidentia, that is, rectal prolapse, often are socially withdrawn and depressed given the symptoms of fecal incontinence and poor hygiene/smell

Tip: Women are more affected. Related to pelvic floor disorder

149
Q

How to treat rectal prolapse definitively?

A

Surgical therapy is the mainstay

150
Q

When measuring ST elevation or depression, from what baseline are we measuring?

A

TP segment, that is, the line created by the end of the T to the beginning of the P wave

151
Q

What is the start and end of the ST segment?

A

It is identified as the segment between

the end of the QRS complex and the beginning of the T wave.

152
Q

What is meant by “nonspecific ST segment”?

A

Slight (< 1 mm) ST segment

depression or elevation

153
Q

What are the changes of ST, T and Q waves in myocardial infarction and how can it help determine the timing of infarction?

A

Earliest sign: T wave change which is large upright T wave. T wave inversion occurs DURING ST elevation present

ST elevation: occurs within minutes to hours of infarction

Q waves: last to develop, taking hours to days and typically lasts indefinitely

TIP: T changes, then ST changes, then Q changes

154
Q

In what EKG leads are the presence of Q waves normal?

A

Most leads EXCEPT aVR and V1-V3

155
Q

What is considered a normal Q wave?

A

Q waves in any leads EXCEPT aVR and V1-V3 that last < 0.03 seconds and < 2mm depth

Tip: 0.04s is 1 small box

156
Q

What is considered and abnormal Q wave?

A

ANY Q wave in V1-V3

Q waves lasting > 0.03 seconds, deeper than 2 mm or 25% of the QRS height in V4-V6, aVL/Lead I and Lead II/aVF

Tip: lateral leads and inferior leads

157
Q

What is the criteria for Q wave MI?

A

Present in 2 continguous leads and depth > 1 mm

158
Q

What is the Cornell Criteria for LVH? Accuracy?

A

Sensitivity = 22%, specificity = 95%
• S in V3 + R in aVL > 24 mm (men)
• S in V3 + R in aVL > 20 mm (women)

Clinical Tip: Best criteria to rule IN

159
Q

Q wave in what lead distinguishes between an anteroseptal MI vs septal MI?

A

V1

Hence, the presence of Q wave in V1 means that septum is involved

160
Q

What is the criteria for a left posterior fascicular block?

A
Right axis deviation: between 100 and 180
II, III, avF: qR complexes
I, aVL: rS complexes 
QRS prolonged between 80 and 110
aVF: Prolonged R peak time

TIP: vector is going down and to the right

Clinical tip: eval ALL patients with RAD for LPFB

161
Q

When evaluating the axis of and EKG, it is important to also look at the R and S waves in each cardiac territory to make sure it is normal.

Hence, when looking at a normal EKG, what do you expect for the following:

Eval of overall axis: I, aVF and II
II, III, aVF
V1 to V6
aVR
I, aVL, V5, V6
A

I, aVF and II – ALL POSITIVE

II, III, aVF: R wave > S wave
V1 to V6: Transition between V2-V4, R wave V5>V6
aVR: negative deflection
I, aVL, V5, V6: Positive R wave

162
Q

Are there any ST changes in RBBB?

A

ST depression and T Wave inversions

163
Q

How is the EKG axis affected by the presence of a RBBB?

A

NOT! It is normal!

Hence, if there is any deviation, eval for fascicular blocks or LVH, etc

164
Q

What is a good way to conceptualize the diff diagnosis of ascites with SAAG < 1.1?

What is the diff diagnosis of ascites with SAAG < 1.1?

A

3 major categories, of which malignancy is the most common cause

Malignancy
Infection
Organ failure (not including the heart, as HF leads to SAAG > 1.1)

TIP:
Malignancy usually causes fibrosis of LN and lymphatics

Infection
-TB, Chlamydia, Coccidioidomycosis

Organ failure:

  • Pancreatitis; diabetic nephropathy
  • Neprhotic syndrome, HD
  • Biliary ascites
  • Liver: Budd chiari, SOS
165
Q

What proportion of ascetic fluid is made up of causes under the category of SAAG < 1.1?

A

15 %

166
Q

What is the definition of hemoperitoneum? AKA hemorrhagic ascites. Next step?

A

RBC > 10,000

Repeat paracentesis if safe to eval if RBC is due to traumatic tap vs true hemorrhagic ascites

Then, find the source of bleeding

167
Q

Are the presence of RBC’s in ascetic fluid normal following paracentesis?

A

<1000 RBC is normal

168
Q

Next to cirrhosis, what is the most common cause of ascites?

A

Cancer

169
Q

What is the SAAG for ascites due to cirrhosis vs heart failure?

A

The total protein concentration may also help differentiate uncomplicated ascites from cirrhosis from cardiac ascites, both of which have a SAAG ≥1.1 g/dL (≥11 g/L). In the case of ascites from cirrhosis, the total protein is <2.5 g/dL (<25 g/L), whereas in cardiac ascites it is ≥2.5 g/dL (≥25 g/L)

170
Q

What is the differential diagnosis of patient with ascites and SAAG >1.1?

A

Tip: Top organs involved are liver and heart

Cirrhosis
Alcoholic hepatitis
Massive hepatic metastases
Budd-Chiari syndrome
Portal vein thrombosis
Idiopathic portal fibrosis

Heart failure
Constrictive pericarditis

171
Q

What is parkinsonism? Relation to Parkinson disease? Difference

A

Parkinsonism is the syndrome characterized by

Bradykinesia
Rigidity
Postural instability
Tremor

Parkinson disease is one of the causes of parkinsonism syndrome.

Parkinson disease is a specific type of parkinsonism that responds to Levodopa

172
Q

What is the most common presentation of progressive supranuclear palsy?

A

Postural instability

postural instability (most common and EARLYpresentation), characterized by lurching gait and/or unexplained backward falls without loss of consciousness

TIP: gait is the first sign of PSP

173
Q

What is the most characteristic presentation of progressive supranuclear palsy?

A

Postural instability (most common presentation), characterized by lurching gait and/or unexplained backward falls without loss of consciousness

Supranuclear vertical gaze palsy - presents 4 years into disease so don’t count on it

Personality change/cognitive impairment within 2 years, much earlier than idiopathic Parkinson

TIP: “PSP”

P = Postural instability
S = Supranuclear vertical gaze palsy
P = Personality change/cognitive impairment
174
Q

What characteristics of progressive supranuclear palsy distinguish it from idiopathic Parkinson disease?

A

PSP’s presentation is prominent for early gait involvement, early postural instability and eye involvement while Parkinsons has falls LATE in its disease course and no eye involvement

Parkinsons has tremors and PSP has NO tremor

175
Q

What are the ocular manifestations of PSP?

A

Clinical tip: the presence of ocular manifestations is a great way to distinguish PSP from other Parkinsonisms

Supranuclear vertical gaze palsy obviously

Eyelid retraction and staring gaze with characteristic surprised, worried facial appearance, due to overactivity of frontalis, procerus, and corrugator muscles

ocular symptoms are common, including
dry, red, sore eyes
photophobia
blurred vision
difficulty focusing
involuntary eyelid closure or apraxia of eyelid opening, often prominent when talking or eating and can cause functional blindness
spontaneous blink rate severely impaired and may lead to ocular irritation, epiphora, and blurring of vision

176
Q

What specific MRI finding is consistently Progressive supranuclear palsy?

A

The hummingbird sign located in the midbrain

177
Q

What is the most common fatal reaction of immune checkpoint inhibitors?

A

Colitis

178
Q

What is the time to therapeutic benefit of statins in older patients with no known CV disease, that is, primary prevention?

A

Meta-analysis
JAMA internal medicine Nov 2020

Conclusions and Relevance: These findings suggest that treating 100 adults (aged 50-75 years) without known cardiovascular disease with a statin for 2.5 years prevented 1 MACE in 1 adult. Statins may help to prevent a first MACE in adults aged 50 to 75 years old if they have a life expectancy of at least 2.5 years. There is no evidence of a mortality benefit.

Study Selection: Randomized clinical trials of statins for primary prevention focusing on older adults (mean age >55 years).

Main Outcomes and Measures: The primary outcome was time to ARR thresholds (0.002, 0.005, and 0.010) for a first MACE, as defined by each trial. There were broad similarities in the definition of MACE across trials, with all trials including myocardial infarction and cardiovascular mortality.

Results: Eight trials randomizing 65?383 adults (66.3% men) were identified. The mean age ranged from 55 to 69 years old and the mean length of follow-up ranged from 2 to 6 years. Only 1 of 8 studies showed that statins decreased all-cause mortality. The meta-analysis results suggested that 2.5 (95% CI, 1.7-3.4) years were needed to avoid 1 MACE for 100 patients treated with a statin. To prevent 1 MACE for 200 patients treated (ARR = 0.005), the TTB was 1.3 (95% CI, 1.0-1.7) years, whereas the TTB to avoid 1 MACE for 500 patients treated (ARR = 0.002) was 0.8 (95% CI, 0.5-1.0) years.

Yourman LC, Cenzer IS, Boscardin WJ, et al. Evaluation of Time to Benefit of Statins for the Primary Prevention of Cardiovascular Events in Adults Aged 50 to 75 Years: A Meta-analysis. JAMA Intern Med. 2020 Nov 16. pii: 2773065. doi: 10.1001/jamainternmed.2020.6084.

179
Q

What intervention for pregnant smokers can help increase airway function for newborns?

A

European Respiratory Journal July 2020
RCT, double blinded

Vitamin C

Conclusion: In offspring of pregnant smokers randomised to vitamin C versus placebo, vitamin C during pregnancy was associated with a small but significantly increased airway function at 3 and 12 months of age, suggesting a potential shift to a higher airway function trajectory curve. Continued follow-up is underway.

McEvoy CT, Shorey-Kendrick LE, Milner K, et al. Vitamin C to Pregnant Smokers Persistently Improves Infant Airway Function to 12 Months of Age: A Randomised Trial. Eur Respir J. 2020 Jul 2. pii: 13993003.02208-2019. doi: 10.1183/13993003.02208-2019.

180
Q

What is the expected timing of ST changes in STEMI?

A

ST changes develop in seconds to minutes after MI and resolves minutes to hours as long as reperfusion is provided. Without reperfusion, resolves in hours to days.

ST elevation that persists >48 hours is a poor prognostic factor

TIP: “seconds to minutes”, “minutes to hours”, and “hours to days”

181
Q

Do patients with RBBB have underlying heart disease?

A

Yes, most commonly CAD

182
Q

Diff diagnosis of low voltage EKG?

A

Obesity
COPD
Infiltrative cardiomyopathy
Myxedema

183
Q

Diagnosis of low voltage requires that the QRS amplitude be under what amplitude in ALL the limb leads and ALL the precordial leads?

A
  • The amplitudes of all the QRS complexes in the limb leads are < 5 mm;or
  • The amplitudes of all the QRS complexes in the precordial leads are < 10 mm
184
Q

At what HR can determine if the QT interval is prolonged simply by measuring if it is greater than or less than 50% of the RR interval?

A

HR 65 -90

185
Q

What does the COVID Vaccine from Pfizer protect against?

A

Symptomatic COVID (high quality evidence)

Does NOT prevent colonization, dose NOT prevent severe infection, does NOT prevent death. Though these is assumption that prevention of symptomatic disease will prevent severe disease and death.

186
Q

What patients is Baricitinib indicated for?

A

COVID patients that are hospitalized on high flow nasal cannula

187
Q

Baricitibib has what benefit in regards to treatment of COVID?

A

The only significant benefit is shorter time to recovery (7 days vs 8 days) and improved clinical status at 15 day

Patients in the combination group were also more likely to have improved clinical status at day 15 (odds ratio, 1.3; 95% CI, 1.0 to 1.6)

188
Q

What is NIH’s guideline in regards to use of Baricitinib for COVID?

A

NIH panel said that there are insufficient data to recommend for or against baricitinib in combination with remdesivir for the treatment of COVID-19 in hospitalized patients in cases where corticosteroids can be used instead. The panel said it recommends baricitinib in combination with remdesivir in hospitalized, nonintubated patients with COVID-19 who require oxygen supplementation only in the rare circumstances where corticosteroids cannot be used

189
Q

Does high dose influenza vaccine prevent cardiovascular morbitidy and mortality in patients with heart disease compared to standard dose?

A

JAMA Dec 2020
Double blinded RCT

No

The primary outcome was the time to the composite of all-cause death or cardiopulmonary hospitalization during each enrolling season.

Conclusions and Relevance: In patients with high-risk cardiovascular disease, high-dose trivalent inactivated influenza vaccine, compared with standard-dose quadrivalent inactivated influenza vaccine, did not significantly reduce all-cause mortality or cardiopulmonary hospitalizations. Influenza vaccination remains strongly recommended in this population.

Vardeny O, Kim K, Udell JA, et al.Effect of High-Dose Trivalent vs Standard-Dose Quadrivalent Influenza Vaccine on Mortality or Cardiopulmonary Hospitalization in Patients With High-risk Cardiovascular Disease: A Randomized Clinical Trial.JAMA. 2020 Dec 4. pii: 2773989. doi: 10.1001/jama.2020.23649.

190
Q

Following TIA or mild, nondisabling stroke, does the combination of Ticragrelor/Asa for 30 days prevent recurrent strokes?

A

NEJM Dec 2020
THALES Trial
Randomized, placebo-controlled, double-blind trial

Yes, but severe bleeding; uncertain if worth it

The primary outcome was a composite of stroke or death within 30 days

The primary safety outcome was severe bleeding.

CONCLUSIONS: Among patients with a mild-to-moderate acute noncardioembolic ischemic stroke (NIHSS score =5) or TIA who were not undergoing intravenous or endovascular thrombolysis, the risk of the composite of stroke or death within 30 days was lower with ticagrelor-aspirin than with aspirin alone, but the incidence of disability did not differ significantly between the two groups. Severe bleeding was more frequent with ticagrelor. (Funded by AstraZeneca; THALES ClinicalTrial.gov number, NCT03354429.).

Johnston SC, Amarenco P, Denison H, et al.Ticagrelor and Aspirin or Aspirin Alone in Acute Ischemic Stroke or TIA.N Engl J Med. 2020 Jul 16;383(3):207-217. doi: 10.1056/NEJMoa1916870.

191
Q

What is treatment for first recurrence of C diff?

A

Tip: 3 different choices, all low quality evidence and weak reccomendation per IDSA 2017 guidelines

1) Oral vancomycin as a tapered and pulsed regimen rather than a second standard 10-day course of vancomycin (weak recommendation, low quality of evidence)

OR

2) 10-day course of fidaxomicin rather than a standard 10-day course of vancomycin (weak recommendation, moderate quality of evidence)

OR

3) 10-day course of vancomycin rather than a second course of metronidazole if metronidazole was used for the primary episode (weak recommendation, low quality of evidence)

192
Q

What is considered “severe” vs “fulminant” disease in regards to C. Difficile?

A

Severe: EITHER WBC >15k OR Cr > 1.5

Fulminant: Hypotension, shock, ileus or megacolon

193
Q

What is definition/diagnosis of Toxic Megacolon?

A

Tip: Toxic + Megacolon

Megacolon (>6 cm of colonic distension)

AND

≥ 3 of the following features
temperature > 38.6 degrees C (101.5 degrees F) 
pulse rate > 120/min
white blood cell count > 10.5 × 109/L
anemia 

≥ 1 of the following features

dehydration
hypotension
altered level of consciousness
electrolyte abnormalities

194
Q

What situation should Vanc and Metronidazole be used in combination for C diff?

A

Fulminant C Difficile infection

195
Q

What is first line treatment for first episode of C Difficile? Non severe vs Severe?

A

BOTH are the same! IDSA 2017 Guidelines

Vancomycin 125 mg orally 4 times daily for 10 days (IDSA/SHEA Strong recommendation, High-quality evidence; ESCMID Grade A-I)

OR

Fidaxomicin 200 mg orally twice daily for 10 days (IDSA/SHEA Strong recommendation, High-quality evidence)

Both are equally good!

196
Q

What is a screening lab for C1 inhibitor deficiency?

A

C4 and/or C2 levels

If normal, C1 inhibitor def is unlikely

197
Q

What COVID population benefits from Dexamethasone?

A

All who are hospitalized and on O2 supplementation, regardless of the mode e.g. high flow, noninvasive ventilation, mechanical ventilation

198
Q

What COVID patients should NOT receive Decadron?

A

Hospitalized patients NOT on O2

Discharged patients, that is, non-hospitalized patients

NIH Guidelines

199
Q

What is the adult dose of Epi for anaphylaxis? Children?

A

0.5 mg for adults

Tip: Epi 1 mg is dead man dose, 0.5mg is almost dead man dose

Kids: 0.3mg for < 50kg, once >50kg, treat like adult

200
Q

What is the associated disease that causes most acquired C1 inhibitor deficiency?

A

Lymphoproliferative malignancy

201
Q

How does age of onset of C1 inhibitor deficiency aid in distinguishing a patient who has hereditary C1 inhibitor deficiency vs acquired?

A

Childhood to young adult onset likely hereditary

Middle aged and on likely acquired

202
Q

What are the 2 major pathways that C1 inhibitor plays a major role in inhibiting?

A

Kallikrein-kinin pathway

Complement pathway

203
Q

Framework Question:

Explain how C1 inhibitor deficiency leads to angioedema?

A

C1 inhibitor plays a role in inhibiting 2 major pathways - Kallikrein-kinin pathway/Complement pathway. Interesting how the immune system and the vasodilatory/coagulation system are connected by this one inhibitor.

PreKallikrein -> Kallikrein via Factor XIIa

High Molecular Weight Kininogen -> Bradykinin via Kallikrein

Bradykinin binds to Bradykinin 2 receptors -> release of substance P -> Substance P causes vasodilation

Bradykinin also causes Plasminogen ***

204
Q

What is the relationship between low testosterone and Type II Dm?

A

Men who are overweight or obese frequently have low serum testosterone concentrations, which are associated with increased risk of type 2 diabetes.

205
Q

Does treating patients with low testosterone prevent the progression of Type II DM

A

LANCET DIABETES JAN 2021
RCT

YES!

Between Feb 5, 2013, and Feb 27, 2017, of 19 022 men who were pre-screened, 1007 (5%) were randomly assigned to the placebo (n=503) and testosterone (n=504) groups. At 2 years, 2-h glucose of 11·1 mmol/L or higher on OGTT was reported in 87 (21%) of 413 participants with available data in the placebo group and 55 (12%) of 443 participants in the testosterone group (relative risk 0·59, 95% CI 0·43 to 0·80; p=0·0007). The mean change from baseline 2-h glucose was -0·95 mmol/L (SD 2·78) in the placebo group and -1·70 mmol/L (SD 2·47) in the testosterone group (mean difference -0·75 mmol/L, -1·10 to -0·40; p<0·0001). The treatment effect was independent of baseline serum testosterone.

CON: Testosterone treatment for 2 years reduced the proportion of participants with type 2 diabetes beyond the effects of a lifestyle programme. Increases in haematocrit might be treatment limiting. Longer-term durability, safety, and cardiovascular effects of the intervention remain to be further investigated.

Wittert G, Bracken K, Robledo KP, et al. Testosterone treatment to prevent or revert type 2 diabetes in men enrolled in a lifestyle programme (T4DM): a randomised, double-blind, placebo-controlled, 2-year, phase 3b trial. Lancet Diabetes Endocrinol. 2021 Jan;9(1):32-45. doi: 10.1016/S2213-8587(20)30367-3.