Debt Investments Flashcards

1
Q

What is a sinking fund?

A

A separate fund established and funded each year by the bond issuer to accumulate an amount required to pay off the debt at maturity.

Sinking funds are used to reduce the default risk associated with some bonds.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the primary purpose of a sinking fund?

A

To accumulate funds required to pay off the debt at maturity.

This helps ensure that the bond issuer can meet its financial obligations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

True or False: A sinking fund increases the default risk of bonds.

A

False.

A sinking fund is included to reduce the default risk associated with bonds.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Fill in the blank: A sinking fund is designed to _______.

A

[accumulate an amount required to pay off the debt at maturity].

This accumulation occurs each year by the bond issuer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

stated annual interest rate that will be paid each period for the term of the bond and is stated as a percentage of the par value of the bond.

A

The coupon rate or nominal yield

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

pledges specific assets that may be sold by the bond purchaser in the event that the bond issuer defaults in paying either the interest or principal on the bond.

A

A secured bond

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

bond that promises payments of interest and principal but pledges no specific assets.

A

Debenture.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Another word for a debenture.

A

Unsecured bond.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Junk bonds.

A

Otherwise known as high-yield bonds.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

A ____ Bond has a single maturity date

A

Term bond.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the general expectation about yields under a normal yield curve?

A

The longer the term, the greater the yield.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

True or False: In a normal yield curve, short-term investments typically have higher yields than long-term investments.

A

False.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Fill in the blank: Under a normal yield curve, investors expect to receive a __________ yield for longer-term investments.

A

greater

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which of the following best describes a normal yield curve? A) Downward sloping B) Flat C) Upward sloping

A

C) Upward sloping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Short answer: Why do investors expect higher yields for longer-term investments in a normal yield curve?

A

Investors seek compensation for the increased risk and uncertainty over a longer time horizon.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What factors are positively related to bond ratings?

A

Profitability, lack of other debt issues, cash-flow coverage of the issuer

These factors indicate a stronger financial position of the issuer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How does profitability affect bond ratings?

A

Greater profitability leads to higher bond ratings

Higher profitability indicates a stronger ability to meet debt obligations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the relationship between outstanding debt and bond ratings?

A

Less outstanding debt correlates with higher bond ratings

Lower debt levels suggest lower financial risk for the issuer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What role does cash-flow coverage play in determining bond ratings?

A

More cash-flow coverage of debt payments results in higher bond ratings

Adequate cash flow indicates the issuer’s ability to meet payment obligations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What factors contribute to lower bond ratings?

A

Excessive financial leverage, earnings instability

High leverage increases risk, and unstable earnings make it harder to predict financial health.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

True or False: Higher financial leverage positively affects bond ratings.

A

False

Excessive financial leverage typically leads to lower bond ratings due to increased risk.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Fill in the blank: The greater the _______ of the company, the higher the bond rating.

A

profitability

Profitability is a key indicator of an issuer’s financial health.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the effect of earnings instability on bond ratings?

A

It contributes to lower ratings

Earnings instability makes it difficult to assess the issuer’s ability to repay debt.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What happens to bond yields when there is an upward revision in ratings?

A

The market yield on the bond declines

This reflects the bond’s improved quality.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What happens to bond yields when there is a downward revision in ratings?

A

The market yield on the bond increases

This reflects the bond’s decline in quality.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Define the effect of an upward rating revision on bond yields.

A

Market yield declines due to improved bond quality.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Define the effect of a downward rating revision on bond yields.

A

Market yield increases due to decline in bond quality.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is financial risk?

A

The risk associated with the level of debt an issuer has outstanding.

Financial risk increases with higher levels of debt.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What legal obligation does a firm have regarding its debts?

A

A firm is under a legal obligation to repay the interest and principal of its debts.

This obligation increases the risk to bondholders.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How does high debt levels affect bondholders?

A

High debt levels increase the risk that the firm will not generate sufficient cash flow to meet its obligations.

Insufficient cash flow can lead to default on interest or principal repayments.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

When is the risk of not meeting debt obligations most likely to occur?

A

When the company’s business prospects deteriorate.

Deterioration in business prospects can lead to insufficient cash inflow.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Fill in the blank: Financial risk is associated with the level of _______.

A

[debt]

Debt levels directly impact the financial risk faced by a firm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are US Treasury securities considered to be free of?

A

Default risk

This means that the likelihood of the US government failing to repay its debt is extremely low.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Are Treasury securities risk-free securities?

A

No

While they have low default risk, they are subject to other types of risks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What type of risk do Treasury securities have related to fluctuating interest rates?

A

Interest rate risk

This risk arises because the value of existing bonds decreases when interest rates rise.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the risk called that involves the uncertainty of reinvesting cash flows?

A

Reinvestment rate risk

This occurs when interest rates are lower than the original investment rate, affecting the returns.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What risk do Treasury securities face related to inflation?

A

Purchasing power risk

This risk affects the real return on investment as inflation erodes the value of future cash flows.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is purchasing power risk?

A

Purchasing power risk is the risk associated with the devaluation of cash flows from inflation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

True or False: Purchasing power risk only affects fixed-income investments.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Fill in the blank: Purchasing power risk is primarily caused by ______.

A

inflation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Which of the following best describes the impact of inflation on purchasing power? A) Increases value B) Decreases value C) No effect

A

B) Decreases value

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are cash flows?

A

Cash flows are the inflows and outflows of cash that an individual or business receives or pays over a given period.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Spreads tend to be wider for small issues that are less often traded and small dollar trades.

A

Thinly traded securities, such as. OTC trades, Small cap stocks, hedge funds, private equity investments, high yield corporate bonds. .

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the maturity range for U.S. Treasury notes?

A

2, 3, 5, 7, and 10 years

These maturity dates allow for different investment strategies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is the maturity period for U.S. Treasury bonds?

A

30 years

T-bonds are typically considered long-term investments.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Name three uses for U.S. Treasury notes and bonds.

A
  • Diversifying a portfolio
  • Funding college education expenses
  • Supplementing retirement income

These investments can serve various financial goals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Fill in the blank: U.S. Treasury notes are issued with maturity dates of _______.

A

2, 3, 5, 7, and 10 years

This variety allows investors to choose based on their financial needs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Fill in the blank: U.S. Treasury bonds have a maturity of _______.

A

30 years

This makes T-bonds suitable for long-term investment strategies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What happens when a note or bond is sold before its maturity date?

A

Proceeds from the sale must be separated into components

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is recovered tax free when a note or bond is sold?

A

An amount equal to the investor’s adjusted basis in the note or bond

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

How is the investor’s adjusted basis in a note or bond usually calculated?

A

Purchase price plus any accrued Original Issue Discount (OID)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What amount does the seller usually receive from the buyer if the sale occurs before an interest date?

A

An amount separately stating interest accrued but not yet due

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

How is the amount received for accrued interest reported by the seller?

A

As interest income

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is the treatment of the excess of proceeds received over basis and interest?

A

It is treated as capital gain (or loss)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

For federal income tax purposes (remember, as a U.S. Treasury security, the obligation is free of income taxes at both the state and local levels), all interest received from TIPS is taxable at ordinary income tax rates in the year earned.

A

Also, during any year when the principal value of TIPS increases as a result of the inflation adjustment, the increase in principal is also taxed as ordinary income for that year.

The tax basis of TIPS is also adjusted upward to account for this increase in principal.

For example Sally purchases an 8%, 10-year TIPS. In Year 1, the inflation adjustment increases the principal from $980 to $1,010. Sally’s taxable income will include any interest payments received on the TIPS, as well as the $30 increase in principal.

If Sally sells the bond for $1,015 immediately after the principal increase, she will recognize a gain on the sale of $5 (not $35) for income tax purposes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Series EE bonds must be held for a minimum of __ months, and a 3-month interest penalty is assessed if the bond is redeemed within _ years of issue.

A

Series EE bonds must be held for a minimum of 12 months, and a 3-month interest penalty is assessed if the bond is redeemed within five years of issue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

sold at 100% of face value in any denomination from $25 to $10,000

  • eligible to earn interest for up to 30 years.
  • interest rate is fixed for the life of the bond.
A

Series EE bond.

65
Q

What is the main difference in interest payment between Series E/EE bonds and Series H/HH bonds?

A

Series H/HH bonds pay semiannual interest in cash, while Series E/EE bonds do not.

66
Q

For how long do Series H/HH bonds pay interest?

A

Up to 20 years.

67
Q

True or False: There is a penalty for early redemption of Series H/HH bonds.

A

False.

68
Q

What is the Education Savings Bond Program?

A

A program that allows interest from Series EE and I Bonds to be excluded from federal income tax if used for qualified higher education expenses

Certain conditions must be met for this exclusion to apply.

69
Q

What happens to the interest on Series EE and I Bonds if not used for education?

A

The interest is subject to federal income tax when redeemed or at maturity.

70
Q

How often do Series HH Bonds pay interest?

A

Semiannually.

71
Q

Do Series HH Bonds qualify for the education tax exclusion?

A

No.

72
Q

Is the interest from Series HH Bonds subject to federal income tax?

A

Yes, it is always subject to federal income tax.

73
Q

What is the tax status of interest from all U.S. savings bonds (Series EE, I, and HH) at the state and local level?

A

Interest is exempt from state and local income taxes.

74
Q

What makes U.S. savings bonds attractive for investors in high-tax states?

A

The exemption of interest from state and local income taxes.

75
Q

What does GNMA stand for?

A

Government National Mortgage Association

76
Q

What is the primary role of Ginnie Mae?

A

Guarantees investors the timely payment of principal and interest on mortgage-backed securities

77
Q

What types of loans back the securities guaranteed by Ginnie Mae?

A

Federally insured loans

78
Q

True or False: Ginnie Mae directly issues mortgage loans.

A

False

79
Q

Fill in the blank: Ginnie Mae guarantees investors the timely payment of principal and interest on _______.

A

mortgage-backed securities

80
Q

What are Government-sponsored enterprises (GSEs)?

A

GSEs are financial services corporations created by Congress to enhance the flow of credit to specific sectors of the economy.

81
Q

True or False: GSEs operate independently of the federal government.

A

False

82
Q

Fill in the blank: GSEs were primarily created to increase the flow of credit to ______.

A

housing

83
Q

Which act established the first GSE, the Federal National Mortgage Association (Fannie Mae)?

A

The National Housing Act of 1938

84
Q

What is the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation commonly known as?

A

Freddie Mac

Freddie Mac purchases mortgage loans and issues guaranteed mortgage-related securities.

85
Q

What is the primary function of the Federal National Mortgage Association?

A

Keeps funds flowing to the mortgage market

Fannie Mae also helps distressed homeowners and encourages sustainable lending.

86
Q

What does the Student Loan Marketing Association specialize in?

A

Offers solutions for college expenses

Also known as Sallie Mae, it helps families save, plan, and finance education.

87
Q

Fill in the blank: The Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation is abbreviated as _______.

A

FHLMC

The abbreviation is sometimes also referred to as Freddie Mac.

88
Q

True or False: Fannie Mae primarily focuses on issuing student loans.

A

False

Fannie Mae is focused on the mortgage market, not student loans.

89
Q

What role does Freddie Mac play in the mortgage market?

A

Purchases mortgage loans and issues guaranteed mortgage-related securities

This helps provide liquidity in the mortgage market.

90
Q

What is one of the key objectives of Sallie Mae?

A

Help families save, plan, and finance college expenses

This includes providing various financial solutions for education.

91
Q
A
92
Q

What are general obligation bonds (GOs)?

A

Municipal bonds issued to finance capital improvements benefiting the community

These improvements typically do not produce revenues.

93
Q

How is the principal and interest on general obligation bonds paid?

A

By the revenues of the municipal issuer

This is due to the nature of GOs being backed by taxes.

94
Q

What are general obligation bonds often referred to as?

A

Full faith and credit bonds

This refers to the backing by the issuer’s creditworthiness.

95
Q

What is typically required for municipalities to approve new issues of general obligation bonds?

A

A taxpayer vote

This is to ensure community support for the debt incurred.

96
Q

What limits may exist regarding the amount of debt a municipal government can incur?

A

State or local statutes may limit the amount

These statutes are in place to protect taxpayers from excessive taxes.

97
Q

True or False: General obligation bonds are considered more risky for investors.

A

False

GOs are considered less risky due to their backing by taxes.

98
Q

Fill in the blank: General obligation bonds are issued to finance _______.

A

capital improvements benefiting the community

These improvements enhance community infrastructure.

99
Q

What are revenue bonds used for?

A

To finance municipal facilities that generate sufficient income to satisfy ongoing debt obligations.

Examples include community airports.

100
Q

How do revenue bonds compare to general obligation bonds (GOs) in terms of risk?

A

Revenue bonds are more risky than GOs.

This increased risk is due to reliance on income generation from specific projects.

101
Q

What is the typical yield comparison between revenue bonds and GOs?

A

Revenue bonds offer higher yields for similar maturities compared to GOs.

This is a compensation for the additional risk involved.

102
Q

True or False: Revenue bonds can only finance projects that are guaranteed to generate income.

A

True.

They are specifically tied to income-generating municipal facilities.

103
Q

Fill in the blank: Revenue bonds may be used to finance any municipal facility (e.g., _______) that generates sufficient income to satisfy the ongoing debt obligation.

A

community airport

104
Q

What are industrial development revenue bonds?

A

Bonds issued by governments to assist companies with specific projects

These bonds are often used to finance projects that create jobs and stimulate economic development.

105
Q

What are special assessment bonds?

A

Bonds financed by those directly benefiting from the project

These bonds are typically used for infrastructure projects where the costs are assessed to property owners.

106
Q

What are special tax bonds?

A

Bonds used for specific projects and repaid by special assessments, ad valorem taxes, or excise taxes

These bonds are often used to fund public projects, with repayment linked to specific tax revenues.

107
Q

What are new housing authority (or Section 8) bonds?

A

Bonds used to finance rehabilitation or construction of affordable housing

These bonds support initiatives to provide low-income housing options.

108
Q

Kate owns a municipal bond with a coupon rate of 6%. She is in the 32% federal marginal income tax bracket. Therefore, to achieve the same yield on a taxable corporate bond, the corporate bond must have a coupon rate of at least

A
109
Q

pretax return x (1 — marginal tax rate)

A

After tax yield.

Used to determine what would, could have been Smee to invest in a municipal bond.

110
Q

For a taxable corporate bond that yields 4.35%, the after-tax yield to an investor with a 35% marginal tax rate is calculated as follows:

A

after-tax yield = 4.35% x (1 — 0.35) = 4.35% x 0.65 = 2.8275, or 2.

111
Q

The largest segments in the United States for corporate bonds are ____ & ____

A

industrials and utilities.

112
Q
A
113
Q

Like bonds, it offers a fixed payment, often called a dividend, which takes priority over common stock dividends.

  • However, unlike bond interest payments, dividends are not guaranteed.
  • dividends are usually cumulative. This means if a company skips a dividend payment, it must pay those missed dividends before it can pay any dividends to common stockholders.
  • doesn’t carry voting rights
  • often has a “call provision,” meaning the company can buy back the shares at a predetermined price after a certain date
A

preferred stock

Finally, in the event of bankruptcy, preferred stockholders have a higher claim on assets than common stockholders, but a lower claim than bondholders. This means they are more likely to get some money back than common stockholders, but less likely than bondholders.

114
Q

fixed dividends, cumulative dividends, lack of voting rights, call provisions, and priority in bankruptcy

A

preferred stock

115
Q

a type of tax-exempt bond issued by state or local governments to fund projects or activities that primarily benefit private entities, like businesses or nonprofit organizations, rather than the public at large.

A

private activity bond

116
Q
A
117
Q

Market Discount Bonds vs. OID Bonds

Purchased At: Below face value in the market.

Tax Treatment:

Default: Taxed as interest income when sold or disposed.

Optional Election: Can choose to include discount as it accrues yearly (rarely used).

Capital Gains: Only the gain beyond the accrued market discount is treated as capital gain.

A

Market Discount Bonds

118
Q

Issued At: Below face value.

Tax Treatment: Accrued discount is taxed as interest income each year.

Applies To: Both Treasury and corporate bonds.

Key Point:
Deferring tax on market discount bonds until sale is generally more beneficial, as it delays income recognition.

A

OID (Original Issue Discount) Bonds

119
Q

When you pay a premium for a bond you may offset said premium against the interest income by?

A

Amortizing the premium paid over the term of the bond.

This is the case for all bonds except a municipal bond where the amortization is handled differently (because the bond returns tax-free interest). The amortization of the premium must reduce the basis annually but is not a tax-deductible event.

120
Q

What are zero-coupon bonds?

A

Bonds issued in taxable form by corporations that do not pay interest until maturity.

121
Q

What must investors include in their taxable income when holding zero-coupon bonds?

A

Accrued interest, also known as phantom income.

122
Q

In which type of account are taxable zero-coupon bonds usually most appropriate?

A

Retirement plans or other tax-deferred accounts.

123
Q

True or False: Investors receive cash payments annually from zero-coupon bonds.

A

False

124
Q

Fill in the blank: Zero-coupon bonds lead to _______ income for investors.

A

phantom

125
Q

are foreign bonds payable in U.S. dollars (e.g., bonds issued by Deutsche Bank in the United States).

  • not subject to exchange rate risk and may be effective diversification tools within a portfolio.
  • issued by foreign governments, banks, or corporations
  • traded in the United States in the secondary market and are generally of very high quality.
A

Yankee bonds

126
Q

What are Eurodollar bonds?

A

A type of U.S. pay bond sold outside the U.S. by overseas companies, denominated in U.S. dollars and underwritten by a non-U.S. bond syndicate.

Eurodollar bonds do not need to be registered with the Securities and Exchange Commission.

127
Q

How do Eurodollar bonds differ from Yankee bonds?

A

Eurodollar bonds do not need to be registered with the Securities and Exchange Commission, while Yankee bonds do.

Yankee bonds are issued by foreign entities in the U.S. and must comply with SEC regulations.

128
Q

Where are Eurodollar bonds sold?

A

Outside of the United States.

They are sold by overseas companies.

129
Q

In what currency are Eurodollar bonds denominated?

A

U.S. dollars.

This is a key characteristic that distinguishes them from other types of bonds.

130
Q

Who underwrites Eurodollar bonds?

A

Non-U.S. bond syndicates.

This means that the underwriting process is handled outside of the U.S.

131
Q

Give an example of a Eurodollar bond.

A

Bonds issued by Toyota in Japan in U.S. dollars.

This illustrates how companies outside the U.S. can issue bonds in U.S. dollars.

132
Q

What are Eurobonds?

A

Bonds denominated in a currency not native to the country where they are issued

Eurobonds are not limited to European countries or the euro currency.

133
Q

Can you give an example of a Eurobond?

A

A bond of a Japanese company, denominated in Japanese yen, issued and traded in the United States, Australia, and Singapore

This type of Eurobond is specifically called a Euroyen bond.

134
Q

Who typically underwrites Eurobonds?

A

International bond syndicates

These syndicates are groups of banks and financial institutions that collaborate to issue bonds.

135
Q

Where are Eurobonds sold?

A

To investors in many countries

Eurobonds have a global market presence.

136
Q

True or False: Eurobonds can only be issued by European companies.

A

False

Eurobonds can be issued by companies from any country.

137
Q
A
138
Q
A
139
Q
A
140
Q
A
141
Q
A
142
Q
A
143
Q
A
144
Q
A
145
Q
A
146
Q

a fundamental concept in the world of bonds that helps investors understand how sensitive a bond’s price is to changes in interest rates.

A
147
Q

What rule must investors be aware of to avoid complications when realizing a capital loss?

a) The short sale rule
b) The substantial equanimity rule
c) The wash sale rule
d) The income averaging rule

A

Answer: c) The wash sale rule

148
Q

What is the primary purpose of a tax swap?

a) To increase taxable income
b) To take advantage of capital losses
c) To avoid selling bonds
d) To minimize investment risks

A

Answer: b) To take advantage of capital losses

Explanation: A tax swap is a strategy used to realize capital losses, which can be used to offset capital gains or, in some cases, ordinary income, thereby lowering the investor’s tax bill

149
Q
A
150
Q
A
151
Q

This curve has a tendency to slope upward and outward, denoting that as the maturity date of bonds lengthens, the corresponding bond yields increase. The increased yields reflect the potential for changes in credit quality and the effect of purchasing power risk over time. If the curve assumes this shape, it is referred to as a normal, or positive, yield curve, indicating that long-term market interest rates are higher than short-term rates.

A
152
Q
A

Sometimes, yield curves may be flat (denoting no difference in the yield of bonds relative to their maturity) or inverted (denoting that current short-term borrowing costs are higher than long-term borrowing costs).

153
Q
A
154
Q
A

remember that a dividend on a preferred stock, just like common stock, is not guaranteed. It is just preferential, meaning that the dividend will go to the preferred stock holder before the common stockholder. And if dividends are missed, before future dividends can be given to a common stockholder, they must be paid to the preferred stockholder first.

155
Q

True or false?

Preferred stocks have standards in regards to time, to maturity.

A

False.

Preferred stocks have what is called perpetuity, meaning they do not have maturity dates. Some do have call features. But generally, in order to obtained your original investment, you must sell your preferred shares.

156
Q
A
157
Q

The following image demonstrates that preferred stocks are subject to interest rate risk. Similar to bonds. Even more so, given they do not have a time to maturity.

A
158
Q
A