✅ Ddx: Anemias, Transfusion reaction, Leukemia Flashcards

1
Q

MICROCYTIC

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Iron deficiency anemia

A

Hx: Fatigue, malaise, irritability, decreased exercise tolerance, and headaches. Usually due to menstrual (menometrorhagia) or GI blood loss (colon cancer, gastric ulcer)[nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) 🧯 and aspirin use]; less commonly due to celiac disease or chronic intravascular hemolysis. Search for a source of chronic (slow) blood loss. Poor nutrition and/or inadequate absorption are less common causes.

Dx: Hypochromia, microcytosis, and increased RDW.

Distinguishing laboratory findings of IDA include decreased erythrocyte count (inadequate synthesis) and elevated red cell distribution width (RDW) due to variable iron levels available throughout the day. Mentzer index >13 (due to a decline in RBC count). In addition, IDA may be associated with reactive thrombocytosis (platelets >400,000/mm3) in response to low red blood cell count. This change is due to megakaryocytes and erythrocytes sharing a common progenitor cell.

Low Iron (60 - 160 μg/dL is normal)

Low Ferritin (12-200 ng/mL is normal)

Increased TIBC (250 - 460 μg/dL is normal)

Increased RDW

Elderly patients with IDA should be evaluated with colonoscopy and endoscopy despite a single negative FOBT, especially if no other obvious source of chronic blood loss is identified.

Bone Marrow biopsy is usually NOT required in the workup of IDA.

Tx: Iron [Oral] (ferrous sulfate) 324 mg TID

stool softener

Parenteral iron, either intramuscular iron dextran or intravenous iron sucrose, is reserved for patients receiving dialysis or for patients who cannot absorb or tolerate oral iron replacement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

α-Thalassemia

A

Normal hemoglobin is a heterotetramer composed of 4 chains:

  • 2 alpha and 2 beta chains in children and adults (adult hemoglobin), or
  • 2 alpha and 2 gamma chains in fetuses and infants (fetal hemoglobin)

In patients with alpha-thalassemia, ≥1 alpha genes are deleted.

Alpha-thalassemia minima (asymptomatic silent carrier)

Alpha-thalassemia minor

Hx: Asymptomatic mild microcytic anemia with normal RDW due to homozygous single α-globin gene deletion or heterozygous double α-globin gene deletion.

Seen in persons of African, Mediterranean, Middle Eastern, or Southeast Asian ancestry.

Tx: not needed

Hemoglobin H disease

When 3 genes are lost (α-/–). The nonalpha chains accumulate into homotetramers; in children and adults, these homotetrameters are composed of beta chains (hemoglobin H) whereas, in fetuses and infants, they are composed of gamma chains (hemoglobin Barts).

Hemoglobin H disease usually presents in infancy with chronic hemolysis due to a shorter red blood cell (RBC) lifespan and increased splenic sequestration. Elevated erythrocyte count and reticulocytosis occur as the bone marrow attempts to replenish hemolyzed RBCs. However, RBCs are microcytic (mean corpuscular volume <80 µm3) and hypochromic because hemoglobin accounts for the majority of RBC volume. Characteristic findings on peripheral smear include abundant target cells as a result of the reduced RBC volume.

Hydrops fetalis

  • High-output cardiac failure, anasarca, death in utero

The presence of gamma tetramers (hemoglobin Barts) on hemoglobin electrophoresis should raise suspicion for alpha-thalassemia; it is classically associated with hydrops fetalis, the most severe form of alpha-thalassemia, which is due to 4 alpha gene loss (–/–) and typically leads to death in utero.

Dx: Serum Iron, ferritin and TIBC are normal

Hgb electrophoresis is normal❗❗❗

Blood smear shows target cells 🎯 and teardrop cells

Normal RDW

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

β-Thalassemia

A

Beta-thalassemia is the most common thalassemia in patients of Mediterranean descent. Normal adult hemoglobin (hemoglobin A) contains 2 alpha chains and 2 beta chains (α2β2) in combination with heme.

β-Thalassemia minor (trait) are heterozygotes with 1 normal β-globin allele and 1 abnormal β-globin allele. α-thalassemia minor patients are missing 2 of the 4 α-globin genes. The majority of patients with α- or β-thalassemia minor are asymptomatic; have varying degrees of anemia, microcytosis, and target cells on peripheral smear; mean corpuscular volume <75 µm3; and normal RBC distribution width (as all cells are the same shape and size).

Hx: Mild, asymptomatic anemia with normal RDW due to reduced expression of one β-globin gene. Seen in persons of African, Mediterranean, Middle Eastern, or Southeast Asian ancestry. Serum ferritin concentration and transferrin saturation are generally normal. Hgb electrophoresis shows an increased percentage of Hgb A2 and a normal to slightly increased percentage of Hgb F.

Tx: Treatment not needed

β-Thalassemia intermedia

Moderate, asymptomatic to symptomatic anemia due to reduced but not absent expression of one or both β-globin genes.

Dx: Typically, there is evidence of ineffective erythropoiesis, with a low serum haptoglobin and increased levels of indirect bilirubin and LDH in the setting of a normal reticulocyte count and increased iron stores. Serum ferritin concentration and transferrin saturation are increased. Hgb electrophoresis shows an increased percentage of Hgb A2 and Hgb F. Intermittent transfusion and risk of iron overload requiring iron chelation therapy.

Normal RDW

β-Thalassemia major is due to impaired production of BOTH β-globin chains, leading to an excess of α-globin chains. These chains are unstable and lead to chronic hemolysis and transfusion-dependent anemia. Instead of the two alpha and two beta chains that typically compose hemoglobin A, patients have increased hemoglobin F (two alpha and two gamma chains) and hemoglobin A2 (two alpha and two delta chains).

Since fetal hemoglobin (HbF) predominates in the first few months of life until adult hemoglobin (HbA) is synthesized, beta thalassemia major is generally asymptomatic in the newborn period. Patients around age 6-12 months develop fatigue and pallor due to microcytic anemia. Splenic hemolysis of red blood cells (RBCs) can cause jaundice, dark urine, and splenomegaly. If left untreated, patients can develop skeletal abnormalities due to extramedullary hematopoiesis.

There is evidence of ineffective erythropoiesis, with a low serum haptoglobin and increased levels of indirect bilirubin and LDH in the setting of a normal reticulocyte count and increased iron stores. Serum ferritin concentration and transferrin saturation are increased. Hgb electrophoresis shows an increased percentage of Hgb A2 Hgb F.

Tx: Beta-thalassemia major is transfusion-dependent. The additional iron from transfused RBCs increases the risk for iron overload. Chelation therapy is required to avoid damage to the liver, kidneys, and endocrine glands and improve survival. Splenectomy may enhance RBC survival and reduce transfusion need. HSCT is an option to consider

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Lead poisoning

A

Lead poisoning can cause a microcytic hypochromic anemia.

In addition to his clinical presentation consisting of nonspecific general manifestations (eg, fatigue), other features include:

  • Neuropsychiatric manifestations (eg, short-term memory loss, sensorimotor neuropathy, headaches, ataxia)
  • Gastrointestinal manifestations (eg, abdominal pain, constipation)
  • Hypertension and possible nephrotoxicity (eg, elevated creatinine)

Inhibition of enzymes responsible for heme and RNA synthesis in both bone marrow and mature erythrocytes can lead to microcytic anemia with basophilic stippling or target cells, and impaired purine metabolism can result in hyperuricemia.

Once absorbed (in adults, predominantly via the lungs), lead distributes throughout the blood, bones, and other organs, affecting cell function throughout. Lead is predominantly stored in the skeleton and is released slowly, potentially exerting its pathologic effects over decades. Diagnosis depends on establishing a history of lead exposure accompanied by corroborating physical examination findings (eg, neurologic manifestations) and elevated blood lead levels. Removal from the lead source and chelation therapy is the treatment for those with symptoms and/or markedly elevated levels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

✨Anemia of Chronic Disease

A

Cytokines produced by inflammation cause a block in the normal recirculation of iron from reticuloendothelial cells (which pick up the iron from senescent red blood cells) to the red cell precursors (normoblasts). The peptide hepcidin is felt to be the main mediator of the effect. This defect in iron reutilization causes a drop in the serum iron concentration and a normocytic OR mildly microcytic anemia.

Hx: Chronic Inflammatory state (SLE, RA); neoplastic disease; generally aymptomatic

Dx: Low Iron

Ferritin Increased [acute phase reactant] (In patients with rheumatoid arthritis, serum ferritin levels are expected to rise by as much as threefold as a result of the effects of inflammatory cytokines)

TIBC Decreased

Tx: EPO in severe cases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Hemoglobin H disease

A

Moderate to severe anemia with splenomegaly. Intermittent transfusions may be needed with risk of iron overload. Hgb H = tetramers of β-globin chains.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Hemoglobin Barts

A

Usually lethal in utero, unless salvage is obtained with in utero transfusions. Hgb Barts = tetramers of γ globin chains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Sideroblastic Anemia

A

This condition results from defective heme synthesis, most commonly due to pyridoxine-dependent impairment in early steps of protoporphyrin synthesis.

Isoniazid, a well-known pyridoxine antagonist can be responsible for this condition. Acquired sideroblastic anemia frequently manifests as microcytic hypochromic anemia simulating iron-deficiency anemia.

Usually two groups of RBC can be demonstrated on microscopy - hypochromic and normochromic (“dimorphic” RBC population). Besides that, iron studies typically reveal increased serum iron concentration and decreased total iron binding capacity (TIBC), which helps to differentiate sideroblastic anemia from iron-deficiency anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

🔴 MACROCYTIC ANEMIA:

A

Folate deficiency

Vitamin B12 deficiency

Drug-induced changes in erythrocytes

Myelodysplastic syndromes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

B12 deficiency

A

Vegetarians are at risk of developing vitamin B12 deficiency, particularly if dairy product consumption is limited; vegans are also at increased risk as they do not consume any dairy products [3-10 yrs storage]

Gastric resection, malabsorbtion and vegan diet (B12 is contained in all animal products).

The presentation is usually with anemia or orthostatic lightheadedness but may also be neurologic.

🧦Peripheral neuropathy: Distal paresthesias, gait ataxia, a bandlike sensation of tightness around the trunk or limbs, and ⚡Lhermitte sign (an electric shock–like sensation along the spine precipitated by neck flexion) may be present. May lead to loss of tendon reflexes in the legs and urinary retention.

Degeneration (demyelination) of the posterior and pyramidal tracts of the spinal cord which causes impaired vibratory and joint position sense, sensory gait ataxia, and spastic paraparesis with extensor plantar responses.

Less frequently, optic atrophy or cerebral symptoms.

Dx:

BOTH methylmalonic acid (MMA) AND homocysteine levels are increased.

An elevated methylmalonic acid (MMA) level is more sensitive and specific for diagnosing cobalamin deficiency than a low serum vitamin B12 level because serum vitamin B12 levels do NOT adequately assess tissue vitamin B12 stores, especially in patients with serum vitamin B12 levels in the low-normal range.

Hematologic abnormalities include macrocytic anemia, leukopenia with hypersegmented neutrophils, and thrombocytopenia with giant platelets. Because folate deficiency can produce identical changes, the diagnosis must be confirmed by measuring the serum vitamin B12 level. MMA elevated; schilling’s test

Tx: Treatment of neurologic manifestations is by prompt intramuscular administration of cyanocobalamin (1,000 μg), as soon as blood is drawn to determine the serum vitamin B12 level. Daily injections are continued for 1 week, and further testing is performed to determine the cause of deficiency.

Cx: Pernicious anemia, an autoimmune disorder where the body makes anti-intrinsic factor antibodies, is the leading cause of B12 deficiency. It is associated with atrophic gastritis, anti-parietal cell antibodies, and achlorhydria, [inadequate absorbtion] which is most common in those of northern European ancestry. First, anti-intrinsic factor antibodies decrease the amount of functional intrinsic factor available to facilitate B12 absorption. Second, patients develop a chronic atrophic gastritis with decreased production of intrinsic factor by gastric parietal cells. This atrophic gastritis increases the risk of intestinal-type 🦀gastric cancer and gastric carcinoid tumors by 2-3 times over the general population. Thus, patients with pernicious anemia need to be monitored for the development of gastric cancer (periodic stool testing for the presence of blood).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Folate deficiency anemia

A

🍺 Alcohol abuse is the most common cause of nutritional folic acid deficiency in the United States, leading to a megaloblastic anemia. Alcohol abuse causes folate deficiency by impairing its enterohepatic cycle and inhibiting its absorption. Alcoholics can develop megaloblastic anemia within 5 to 10 weeks, as body stores of folate are limited.

Etiology

  • Chronic hemolysis (eg, sickle cell disease)
  • Poor dietary intake (tea and toast)
  • Malabsorption (eg, gastric bypass)
  • Medications (eg, methotrexate)
    • Trimethoprim: It inhibits dihydrofolate reductase and in high doses can cause megaloblastic pancytopenia.
    • Methotrexate: Also inhibits dihydrofolate reductase. Folinic acid (leucovorin) is indicated to reverse the chemotherapeutic anti-folate effect of methotrexate.
    • Phenytoin: Some anti-epileptic drugs including phenytoin, primidone and phenobarbital can cause megaloblastic anemia that is usually mild. The pathophysiology of this condition involves impaired absorption of folic acid in the small intestine.

Clinical features

  • Dyspnea, fatigue, pallor, weakness

Laboratory findings

  • Macrocytic anemia
  • Poor reticulocyte response (low to normal)
  • Hypersegmented neutrophils
  • Low serum folate

Treatment

  • Folic acid supplementation

SCD is a chronic hemolytic anemia in which red blood cells are typically normocytic and normochromic with a compensatory elevated reticulocyte count. Without adequate folic acid supplementation or intake, chronic hemolysis can lead to folate deficiency, as the bone marrow uses folate in an attempt to produce red blood cells. Folate deficiency results in laboratory findings of macrocytic anemia and hypersegmented neutrophils. Due to ineffective erythropoiesis, the expected reticulocytosis is absent and an inappropriately low reticulocyte count is seen (ie, low corrected reticulocyte count).

Dx: MMA normal; NO neurologic findings

Tx: Adequate folic acid intake via diet or supplementation is recommended to correct the underlying folate deficiency.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Drug-induced changes in erythrocytes (nonmegaloblastic)

A

Liver Disease, ETOH, Drugs: 5-FU, HAART (AZT), psoriasis, SLE, rheumatoid arthritis, and posttransplantation immunosuppression cause macrocytic and sometimes megaloblastic changes in erythrocytes. History should be revealing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Myelodysplastic syndromes

A

Myelodysplastic syndromes are a spectrum of primary hematopoietic disorders characterized by hypercellular bone marrow and peripheral blood cytopenias due to ineffective myelopoiesis, abnormal maturation (including idiopathic acquired megaloblastic maturation of erythroid cells), and intramedullary apoptosis of myeloid cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

⚪ NORMOCYTIC ANEMIA DDX

A
  • Acute blood loss
  • Chronic kidney disease (see Chronic Kidney Disease)
  • Pure red cell aplasia
  • Malignancy (solid tumor, lymphoma, myelofibrosis)
  • Hemolytic Anemia (Ddx)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Acute blood loss

A

Most iron-deficiency anemia is explained by blood loss.

Anemia with variation in erythrocyte size (increased RDW) if iron deficiency is present. Reticulocyte count is usually increased; leukocyte count and platelet count may be slightly increased, depending on the rapidity of bleeding.

Dx: Colonoscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Pure red cell aplasia

A

Anemia with severe reticulocytopenia. Diagnosis is made by examination of a bone marrow aspirate, in which erythroblasts will be absent or severely diminished. Red cell aplasia can be idiopathic or secondary to a thymoma, solid tumor, hematologic malignancy, collagen vascular disease, viral infection (particularly human parvovirus B19 infection, which is common in immunosuppressed patients), or drug (eg, phenytoin, azathioprine, isoniazid, chloramphenicol, mycophenolate mofetil). Red cell aplasia may also occur in patients with hemolytic anemia from any cause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Malignancy (solid tumor, lymphoma, myelofibrosis)

A

Anemia with a low reticulocyte count. With bone marrow involvement by tumor, leukoerythroblastosis and extramedullary hematopoiesis occur, and nucleated erythrocytes and myelocytes are seen in the peripheral blood. Peripheral blood smear may show rouleaux formation (if a plasma cell dyscrasia is present) or teardrop-shaped erythrocytes (if splenomegaly is present)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

💥HEMOLYTIC ANEMIA DDX

Type (spherocytic or nonspherocytic), site (intramedullary or extramedullary, intravascular or extravascular), and mechanism (immune-mediated or nonimmune-mediated, intrinsic vs extrinsic to the erythrocyte).

A

Extravascular:

Membrane defect (hereditary spherocytosis, hereditary elliptocytosis)

Intrinsic RBC enzyme deeficiency/enzymopathy (G6PD deficiency, pyruvate kinase deficiency)

Hemoglobinopathy (hemoglobin S, hemoglobin C, thalassemia, sickle cell)

Autoimmune hemolytic anemia (warm or cold- agglutinin)

Erythrocyte fragmentation

Infection (malaria, babesiosis, bartonella)

Hypersplenism (see Cirrhosis)

Intravascular:

Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia

Transfusion reactions

Infections (clostridia species)

Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

Intravenous Rho(D) immune globulin infusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Hereditary spherocytosis (HS) [Membrane defect]

A

Epidemiology

  • Usually autosomal dominant
  • Northern European descent

Clinical presentation

  • Hemolytic anemia
  • Jaundice
  • Splenomegaly

Laboratory findings

  • ↑ MCHC
  • Negative Coombs test
  • Spherocytes on peripheral smear
  • ↑ Osmotic fragility on acidified glycerol lysis test
  • Abnormal eosin-5-maleimide binding test

Treatment

  • Folic acid supplementation
  • Blood transfusion
  • Splenectomy

HS is an inherited deficiency of red blood cell (RBC) scaffolding proteins (eg, spectrin, ankyrin). Sphere-shaped RBCs are more fragile and get trapped in splenic fenestrations.

Hx: The anemia is generally normocytic with associated reticulocytosis in response to hemolysis. Increased mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC) occurs due to membrane loss and RBC dehydration. In addition, spherocytes burst easily due to their decreased surface-area-to-volume ratio, and diagnosis can be confirmed by assessing RBC fragility with either the eosin-5-maleimide (EMA) binding test (flow cytometry) or acidified glycerol lysis test.

Chronic hemolysis causes high hemoglobin turnover and excess bilirubin that overwhelms conjugation and elimination from the body. The resulting hyperbilirubinemia manifests as jaundice, dark urine, and pigment (calcium bilirubinate) gallstones. [Classic symptoms of acute cholecystitis (fever, right upper quadrant pain, positive Murphy sign, leukocytosis)]

Px: splenomegaly

Dx: Confirmed by osmotic fragility (best) and negative direct antiglobulin (Coombs) test; Spherocytes or elliptocytes on blood smear.

Tx: Splenectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Hypoproliferative anemia

A

Patients with CKD frequently develop a hypoproliferative anemia due to inadequate production of erythropoietin by the kidneys. Erythropoiesis-stimulating agents (ESAs), such as recombinant erythropoietin and darbepoetin, stimulate red blood cell production and are the treatment of choice in CKD-related anemia. All patients with significant renal failure and a hemoglobin <10 g/dL are candidates for ESAs after iron deficiency has been ruled out.

Anemia with a low reticulocyte count due to impaired erythropoietin production. Renal endocrine function does not correlate with renal exocrine function

Tx: involves correcting underlying causes (chronic infection, iron deficiency, vitamin deficiencies) and supplementation with erythropoiesis-stimulating agents (ESAs) (darbepoetin or recombinant erythropoietin) to maintain hemoglobin levels >10 g/dL (100 g/L). Iron deficiency is typically corrected with oral supplementation, but intravenous infusions may be necessary if the patient is refractory to oral therapy. Correction of hemoglobin to normal physiologic levels (>13 g/dL) is associated with an increased mortality rate and cardiovascular events and is NOTrecommended.

Cx: Up to 30% of patients on erythropoietin therapy develop new or worsening hypertension, which typically occurs 2-8 weeks after treatment initiation. Hypertension is generally mild but can be severe, leading to end-organ damage (eg, encephalopathy, seizures). Large doses of erythropoietin or rapidly rising hemoglobin soon after administration increase the risk of hypertension. Therefore, patients started on erythropoietin require close blood pressure monitoring.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Autoimmune hemolytic anemia

A

Autoimmune hemolytic anemia may be idiopathic or result from drugs, lymphoproliferative disorders, collagen vascular diseases, or malignancies. The disorder occurs when IgG, IgM, or, rarely IgA, autoantibodies bind to erythrocyte antigens.

These antiglobulins, also referred to as “agglutinins,” may be detected when bound to the surface of red blood cells (direct Coombs test) or circulating in serum (indirect Coombs test).

♨ “Warm antibody–mediated”. In this condition, IgG antibodies bind to Rh-type antigens on the erythrocyte surface at 37.0 °C (98.6 °F) . Although these antibodies may fix complement, they more commonly bind to the cell surface and facilitate Fc-receptor–mediated erythrocyte destruction by splenic macrophages. Hx: Most cases of warm antibody disease are drug induced or associated with an underlying disorder (eg, SLE, lymphoproliferative disorder, cancer).

❄ Cold agglutinin disease is also frequently associated with underlying disorders (eg, SLE). Immune-mediated IgM antibodies which may follow Mycoplasma infections. These antibodies are also called cold-reacting antibodies as they react at temperatures less than 37°C (98°F).

Dx:

Examination of the peripheral blood smear is the first step in evaluation of hemolytic anemia. Peripheral smear typically shows spherocytes, microspherocytes, elliptocytes, or increased numbers of polychromatophilic cells (eg, reticulocytes). The young red cells (which would show up as reticulocytes when properly stained) are much larger than mature RBCs, accounting for the macrocytosis (the MCV can be as high as 140 with vigorous reticulocytosis). The presence of microspherocytes suggests immune-mediated hemolysis, while the presence of fragmented RBCs or schistocytes suggest a mechanical cause of hemolysis, as seen in the microangiopathic hemolytic anemias (MAHA).

Normocytic anemia with evidence of hemolysis (jaundice, elevated 🔰indirect bilirubin, increased serum LDH, decreased serum haptoglobin)[see next card]

Direct and indirect antiglobulin (Coombs) tests and cold (IgM) agglutinin titer (Mycoplasma and Mono); [positive for C3 in cold agglutinin disease].

Splenomegaly (due to erythrocyte entrapment) commonly develops. The bone marrow response appears as reticulocytosis.

Tx:

Cold: Avoid Cold

Warm - streoids (glucodorticoids), rituximab, splenectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Extramedullary hemolysis

A

Extravascular hemolysis: The RBCs are predominantly destroyed by phagocytes in the reticuloendothelial system (eg, lymph nodes, spleen). As a result, there is less hemoglobin release than in intravascular hemolysis, so laboratory results usually show normal to slightly low haptoglobin, slightly elevated LDH, and elevated indirect bilirubin.

Intravascular hemolysis: Due to significant RBC structural damage resulting in RBC destruction within the intravascular space (eg, paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria, disseminated intravascular coagulation). The hemoglobin released from hemolyzed RBCs binds to haptoglobin, and the hemoglobin-haptoglobin complex is cleared by the liver. This leads to markedly reduced serum haptoglobin (to undetectable levels). RBC hemolysis also results in elevated indirect bilirubin levels (from heme breakdown) and raised serum lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) levels (released from RBCs). (eg, hemolysis associated with cold agglutinin disease or thrombotic microangiopathy).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Sickle cell trait

A

Clinical features

  • Usually asymptomatic
  • No change in overall life expectancy

Laboratory findings

  • Normal hemoglobin, reticulocyte count, RBC indices & morphology
  • Hemoglobin electrophoresis: Hb A > Hb S

❗ Complications

  • Hematuria/papillary necrosis, hyposthenuria
  • Splenic infarction (especially at higher altitudes🗻), venous thromboembolism, priapism
  • Exertional rhabdomyolysis

Hyposthenuria (inability of the kidneys to concentrate urine) is common in patients with SCD and may also develop in those with SCT. In response to hypoxic, hyperosmolar conditions of the renal medulla, red blood cells sickle in the vasa recta, impairing free water reabsorption and countercurrent exchange. Patients typically have polyuria and nocturia despite fluid restriction. Urine osmolality is low; however, normal serum sodium is maintained due to intact antidiuretic hormone (ADH). Urinary diluting capacity is also intact as it is a function of the superficial loop of Henle, which is not supplied by the vasa recta.

Typically, mild hyposthenuria due to SCT requires no treatment. In patients with SCD, red blood cell transfusions often improve urine-concentrating ability and provide relief of symptoms.

Papillary necrosis can occur with massive hematuria, but the episodes are usually mild and resolve spontaneously. The urinalysis usually shows normal-appearing RBCs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Sickle cell Disease

A

Hx: Seen in persons of African, Middle Eastern, Mediterranean, or Indian ancestry; vasoocclusive crisis (acidosis, hypoxemia, dehydration, acute chest syndrome, acure brain, priapism)

Dx: Serum ferritin and transferrin saturation are usually normal.

Hgb electrophoresis shows predominantly Hgb S but also variable amounts of Hgb A (5%-30%), an increased percentage of Hgb A2 (>3.5%), and a normal to variably increased percentage of Hgb F (2%-10%).

Smear shows sickled cells

Tx: Hydroxyurea, a chemotherapy agent used in SCD to decrease the frequency of vaso-occlusive pain crises. Hydroxyurea works by further increasing the amount of HbF in circulation, which dilutes the number of sickled cells in circulation and reduces vaso-occlusive episodes, the need for transfusions, and episodes of acute chest syndrome. Although patients with SCD typically have HbF concentration 5%-15%, those with SCD on hydroxyurea will often have HbF >15%. This elevation in HbF also explains the slightly lower HbS concentration seen in this patient (compared to a patient with SCD not on hydroxyurea). Cx: the major adverse effect of hydroxyurea is myelosuppression. Any myelosuppression is generally reversible with discontinuation of the medication but may predispose the patient to infection.

IVF, O2 and pain control in crises; exchange transfusion; deferoxamine in cases of iron overload).

Cx:

Acute chest syndrome is established by identifying an infiltrate on chest radiographs that involves at least one lung segment and that is not thought to be due to atelectasis; associated findings include one or more of the following: chest pain; temperature less than 38.3°C (100.9°F); tachypnea, wheezing, cough, or the development of increased work of breathing (such as retractions); and hypoxemia relative to baseline oxygen saturation values.

Aplastic crisis can occur when patients with chronic hemolytic anemia and shortened erythrocyte survival are infected with parvovirus B19, which leads to suppression of erythrocyte production (red blood cell aplasia) and the inability to maintain erythrocyte production needed to replace the hemolyzed cells, as reflected in her very low reticulocyte count. Dx: Confirmation may be obtained by demonstrating IgM antibodies against parvovirus B19 or polymerase chain reaction studies detecting parvovirus B19 DNA.

Splenic autoinfarction Thus, more susceptible than other patients to infection with encapsulated organisms, such as Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, and Neisseria meningitidis.

💉

Vaccination with the conjugated S pneumoniae vaccine decreases the incidence of invasive infections caused by this organism.

Twice daily administration of prophylactic ✏ penicillin should also be given to 👶🏽children with sickle cell disease until they reach five years of age.

AVN: Repeated vaso-occlusive crises lead to infarcts and degeneration in marrow-containing bone. AVN has a high likelihood of progressing to femoral head collapse, necessitating surgical intervention with decompression or possibly joint replacement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Enzymopathy (G6PD deficiency, pyruvate kinase deficiency)

A

Hx: Common forms of G6PD deficiency usually cause only episodic moderate hemolysis, precipitated by oxidant drugs or infection.

❗ Avoid

  • Diaminodiphenyl sulfone (dapsone)
  • Isobutyl nitrite
  • Nitrofurantoin
  • Primaquine
  • Rasburicase

Use with caution

  • Acetaminophen
  • Acetylsalicylic acid (aspirin)
  • Chloramphenicol
  • Chloroquine
  • Colchicine
  • Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
  • Glyburide
  • Isoniazid
  • L-dopa
  • Quinine
  • Sulfamethoxazole
  • Trimethoprim
  • Vitamin K

Dx: G6PD level (best)[6-8wk post attack]; Blood smear: findings include bite cells, spherocytes, heinz bodies, and minimal abnormalities of erythrocytes other than polychromasia (from reticulocytosis).

Hyperbilirubinemia - heme is catabolized to bilirubin, which causes scleral icterus and jaundice

Hemoglobinuria – heme is excreted in the kidneys, which causes dark-colored urine and a false-positive urine dipstick for blood (the heme in hemoglobin causes a positive urine dipstick test, but no erythrocytes are seen on urine microscopy)

Tx: supportive

Pyruvate kinase deficiency is rare and causes moderately severe anemia; blood smear shows acanthocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Hemoglobinopathy (hemoglobin S, hemoglobin C, thalassemia, hereditary unstable)

A

Chronic or episodic hemolysis. Hgb A2 level is increased with β-thalassemia; Hgb F also may be increased. No structural Hgb abnormality is detectable with α-thalassemia; diagnosis is based on hematocrit, MCV, blood smear, and family study. Abnormal Hgbs (eg, E and D) are uncommon in the United States. Blood smear changes suggest certain hemoglobinopathies; Hgb electrophoresis reveals the abnormal Hgb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Erythrocyte fragmentation

A

TTP usually presents as neurologic symptoms and severe fragmentation anemia and thrombocytopenia. With HUS (children), kidney abnormalities predominate, and anemia and thrombocytopenia are milder. In other causes of microangiopathic anemia (DIC, malignant hypertension, scleroderma renal crisis), the anemia and thrombocytopenia are usually mild to moderate; these disorders are diagnosed by peripheral blood smear in the proper clinical context

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Infection (malaria, babesiosis)

A

Symptoms of infection, particularly fever, usually dominate. Splenomegaly is the rule with malaria; babesiosis usually produces a milder malaria-like illness, unless patients are asplenic. Finding intraerythrocytic parasites on blood smear is diagnostic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Hypersplenism (see Cirrhosis)

A

Splenomegaly (any cause) can cause hemolysis; hypersplenism may also decrease the number of leukocytes, platelets, or any combination of cell lines. Hypersplenism produces no erythrocyte morphologic changes in erythrocytes, but the blood smear may show changes related to the underlying cause (eg, target cells with liver disease)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Intramedullary hemolysis

A

Seen in various disorders associated with ineffective erythropoiesis, including thalassemia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria (PNH)

A

PNH is an autoimmune hemolytic disorder characterized by intravascular and extravascular hemolysis and hemoglobinuria. The disease is due to an acquired genetic defect that results in lack of the glycosylphosphatidylinositol anchor, which connects proteins, including CD55 and CD59, to the cell surface. These proteins normally inhibit the activation of complement on red blood cells, but their absence allows the complement membrane attack complex to form and results in hemolysis.

On average, patients have manifestations in the fourth decade of life resulting from one of the following:

  • Hemolysis leading to hemoglobinuria (dark urine; fatigue)
  • Cytopenias - fatigue and dyspnea from anemia
  • Hypercoagulable state (eg, portal vein thrombosis) - acute abdominal pain that may be due to severe hemolysis or portal vein thrombosis

Dx:

Anemia and low haptoglobin accompanied by elevated 🔰 bilirubin and LDH are all consistent with intravascular Nocturnal (hypoxemia and acidosis)

Flow cytometry tests are used to confirm the diagnosis by assessing for the absence of the CD55 and CD59 proteins on the surface of the red blood cells.

Tx: Supportive; Eculizumab

Cx: Patients with autoimmune hemolytic anemia have a tendency for venous thromboembolism, but those with PNH are at particular risk, especially within intraabdominal or cerebral veins.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Hemochromatosis

A

Iron overload should be considered among patients who present with any one or a combination of the following: hepatomegaly, weakness, hyperpigmentation, atypical arthritis, diabetes, impotence, unexplained chronic abdominal pain, or cardiomyopathy. Diagnostic suspicion should be particularly high when the family history is positive for similar clinical findings. The most frequent cause of iron overload is the common genetic disorder, idiopathic hemochromatosis. Secondary iron storage problems can occur after multiple transfusions in a variety of anemias. The most practical screening test is the determination of
serum iron, transferrin saturation, and ferritin. T ransferrin saturation greater than 50% in males or 45% in females suggests increased iron stores. Substantially elevated serum
ferritin levels confirm total body iron overload. Genetic screening is now used to assess which patients are at risk for severe fibrosis of the liver. Definitive diagnosis can be established by liver biopsy. Determination of serum copper is needed when Wilson disease is the probable cause of hepatic abnormalities. Wilson disease does not cause hypogonadism, heart failure, diabetes, or arthropathy. Chronic liver disease caused by hepatitis B would not account for the heart failure, hyperpigmentation, or diabetes. Nocturnal penile tumescence and echocardiogram can confirm clinical findings but will not establish the underlying diagnosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

💦 Bleeding

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Von Willebrand disease

A

Von Willebrand factor plays a critical role in platelet adhesion to injured vessels. It also functions as a carrier for factor VIII. Disorders of secondary hemostasis can occur due to low factor VIII levels in vWD

Hx: Patients have mild to moderate bleeding evidenced by nosebleeds, heavy menstrual flow, gingival bleeding, easy bruising, and bleeding associated with surgery or trauma.

Dx: The aPTT is dependent on factor VIII activity. Platelet aggregation does not detect abnormal adhesion; vWF level and ristocetin cofactor are abnormal. Ristocetin cofactor is a platelet aggregation study measuring the function of vWF. The structure of vWF can be determined by a vWF multimer assay

Diagnostic testing includes a PFA (although this may be normal in mild cases), vWF antigen level, vWF activity assay, factor VIII level (which may also be normal in mild cases), and a multimer study used to diagnose subtypes of vWD

Tx: Desmopressin releases stored vWF and factor VIII from endothelial cells and is used as first-line therapy for most subtypes of vWD. Intermediate-purity factor VIII concentrates, which contain vWF, can also be given. Cryoprecipitate is rich in vWF but carries the risk of transfusion-transmitted infection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

🔽 Thrombocytopenia: Decreased Platelet Production:

A

Disorders of primary hemostasis, such as platelet-related bleeding, tend to occur immediately after injury and often affect the mucous membranes or the skin in the form of petechiae.

Disorders of secondary hemostasis, such as coagulation-related bleeding, may be delayed in onset and manifested more by deep tissue bruises (ecchymoses) and may produce hemarthroses in patients with congenital factor deficiencies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Hemophilia

A

Inheritance

  • X-linked recessive

Clinical features

  • Delayed/prolonged bleeding after mild trauma
    • Hemarthrosis, intramuscular hematomas
    • Gastrointestinal or genitourinary tract bleeding
    • Intracranial hemorrhage
  • Complications: hemophilic arthropathy

Laboratory findings

  • ↑ Activated PTT
  • Normal platelet count & PT
  • Absent or ↓ factor VIII (hemophilia A) or factor IX (hemophilia B) activity

Treatment

  • Factor replacement
  • Desmopressin for mild hemophilia A

Disorder of secondary hemostasis

X-linked recessive bleeding disorder caused by deficiency of Factor VIII (hemophilia A) or Factor IX (hemophilia B). Disease severity varies based on degree of factor activity. Often, patients present with joint pain and swelling following little or no trauma due to spontaneous bleeding into a joint (hemarthrosis). Recurrent hemarthroses can result in long-term complications such as hemophilic arthropathy.

Hx: Hemarthrosis presents with joint pain and swelling after minimal or no trauma, and episodes typically begin during toddlerhood when the child is ambulatory. Hemorrhage into the skeletal muscle (ie, hematoma) after minor trauma is also common.

Hemophilic arthropathy refers to joint damage caused by intra-articular bleeding. Hemosiderin deposition within the joint triggers synovial inflammation, which leads to fibrosis and destruction of cartilage and bone. Chronic, worsening joint pain and swelling are accompanied by limited mobility on examination. Although severe hemophilic arthropathy may be visible on x-ray, MRI allows for earlier detection and characterization of the degree of joint damage. Early prophylaxis with factor concentrates can significantly reduce the risk of developing arthropathy.

Dx: Normal prothrombin time (PT) and prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) that fully corrects on mixing with a 1:1 ratio of normal plasma (as opposed to the presence of an inhibitor, such as to factor VIII, which does not correct on a mixing study).

Laboratory findings in hemophilia A and B are indistinguishable.

Tx: Replacement of the deficient factor is the treatment of choice. Desmopressin for Hemophilia A.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Pseudothrombocytopenia

A

Pseudothrombocytopenia is a laboratory error caused by platelet aggregation in vitro. Most cases are due to incompletely mixed blood samples or the presence of serum antibodies to ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA), an anticoagulant used in hematologic testing. The error is generally identified when a patient with mild thrombocytopenia has peripheral blood smearevidence of large clumps of platelets.

Dx: Drawing blood samples in tubes with a non-EDTA anticoagulant (eg, heparin, sodium citrate) normalizes the automated platelet count and confirms the diagnosis. Because patients with pseudothrombocytopenia do not have true thrombocytopenia, they do not require intervention or monitoring.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)

A

Type 1 HIT is marked by nonimmune-mediated platelet aggregation. It results in mild thrombocytopenia (platelets rarely <100,000/mm3), usually within 2 days of heparin initiation. Type 1 HIT does not require intervention and does not cause ill effects; the thrombocytopenia resolves without cessation of heparin.

Heparin induces a conformational change to a platelet surface protein (platelet factor 4 [PF4]), which exposes a neoantigen.

In patients with type 2 HIT, the ✨immune system responds by forming an IgG autoantibody (HIT antibody) that then coats the surface of platelets and forms complexes (heparin-PF4-HIT antibody), resulting in:

Thrombocytopenia - the reticuloendothelial system (largely the spleen) removes antibody-coated platelets, causing a mild to moderate thrombocytopenia (rarely <20,000/mm3).

🔴Arterial AND 🔵venous thrombus - HIT antibodies activate platelets, resulting in platelet aggregation and the release of procoagulant factors. The risk of thrombus is as high as 50% in untreated HIT.

In patients receiving subcutaneous heparin (eg, enoxaparin), a classic thrombotic complication of HIT is skin necrosis at the abdominal injection site.

Typically, type 2 HIT manifests with a >50% drop in platelets 5-10 days after the initiation of heparin, but it may occur earlier (sometimes <1 day) in patients previously exposed.

Hx: HIT occurs in approximately 5% of patients treated with☝ unfractionated heparin for 5 or more days but develops in only about 1% of patients treated with 👇 low-molecular-weight heparin.

Dx: The criteria for diagnosing HIT include: (1) thrombocytopenia (defined as a platelet count <150,000/µL OR a 50% decrease in the platelet count from baseline) in the presence of current heparin administration or its use over the past 3 months; (2) exclusion of other causes of thrombocytopenia; (3) reversal of thrombocytopenia on cessation of heparin.

HIT is diagnosed by immunoassay (only if high titer) or functional assay (eg, serotonin release assay [gold standard]).

4T’s for the diagnosis of HIT:

Timing Thrombosis - 5-10 days (+2), >10 days (+1), <5 days (0)

Thrombosis - New, progressive or recurrent, None

Thrombocytopenia - >50%, 30-50%, <30%

alTernative, None, acceptable, Clear

Tx: Lepirudin; Once HIT is detected or even suspected, heparin must be stopped immediately and an alternative rapidly acting anticoagulant begun with a nonheparin medication (eg, 🐊argatroban, fondaparinux).

Warfarin is used for anticoagulation maintenance in patients with HIT but only after the patient has received another anticoagulant and the platelet count is >150,000/mm3.

All heparin products, including low molecular weight heparin, should be avoided in patients with HIT.

Cx: The most serious complication of HIT is a thrombotic event, triggered by a number of mechanisms including release of procoagulant agents from platelets and endothelial activation. Venous thromboses are most common (about two thirds of events), but arterial thromboses also occur and can be life-threatening.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) [Immune thrombocytopenia]

A

Epidemiology

  • Commonly acquired form of thrombocytopenia
  • Autoantibody formation
  • Often recent viral infection or comorbidity (eg, HIV, HCV, CLL)

Manifestations

  • Frequently asymptomatic
  • Mucocutaneous bleeding (eg, menorrhagia, epistaxis)
  • Ecchymoses, petechiae, purpura
  • Severe hemorrhage is rare

Laboratory findings

  • Isolated thrombocytopenia <100,000/mm3
  • Few platelets (size normal to large) on peripheral smear

Treatment

  • Children
    • Observe if cutaneous symptoms only
    • Glucocorticoids, IVIG, or anti-D if bleeding
  • Adults
    • Observation if cutaneous symptoms AND platelets ≥30,000/mm3
    • Glucocorticoids, IVIG, or anti-D if bleeding OR platelets <30,000/mm3

Immune thrombocytopenia (ITP) is an autoimmune disorder in which IgG antibodies form against platelet membrane proteins, resulting in isolated thrombocytopenia.

Hx: Clinical findings may include signs or symptoms of mild to severe bleeding.

Isolated (extreme) thrombocytopenia in the absence of systemic disease, or a causative drug defines the idiopathic form of ITP.

Variants of ITP may be drug induced or part of a broader illness of abnormal immune regulation, such as systemic lupus erythematosus, HIV infection, or lymphoproliferative malignancies.

Dx: 🔴Platelets may be large because they typically have recently been released from the bone marrow. Increased megakaryocytes on bone marrow evaluation (marrow evaluation is usually not required for diagnosis in the absence of other features listed for bone marrow disorders). Diagnosis of exclusion.

Tx:

Observation alone if asymptomatic

Most cases of ITP self-resolve within 3 months; however, some patients continue to have platelets <100,000/mm3 for >1 year, which is known as chronic ITP.

Therapy may be required for those with platelet counts lower than 30,000 to 40,000/µL or if bleeding is present.

Combination of glucocorticoids, anti-D immune globulin (if Rh-positive and Coombs-negative), and/or intravenous immunoglobulin for bleeding episodes.

🌑 Glucocorticoid/Corticosteroids, IVIG, rhogam, splenectomy, rituximab.

Anti-D immune globulin is a potential first-line therapy for ITP in patients with the ➕ Rh antigen. Anti-D binding to Rh(D)-positive erythrocytes is thought to saturate Fc receptors on macrophages within the reticuloendothelial system (RES), thereby limiting the ability of the RES to clear platelets.

Chronic ITP Patients with beeding and thrombocytopenia requiring repeated pharmacologic interventions and should be considered for second-line therapies (eg, rituximab, thrombopoietin receptor agonists) or 🔪splenectomy. Although not without risk (eg, sepsis, thrombosis), splenectomy removes the source of platelet destruction and is often curative in patients with ITP.

❗Platelet transfusions are reserved for life-threatening hemorrhage in patients with ITP because antibody production destroys the transfused platelets. In contrast, this patient’s bleeding is limited to mucocutaneous.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura (ITP)

A

Idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura (ITP) is usually diagnosed after excluding other possible causes of thrombocytopenia based on history, physical examination, complete blood count, and peripheral blood smear.

Thrombocytopenia can be due to increased platelet destruction, decreased platelet production, dilutional, or splenic sequestration. Thrombocytopenia may be the presenting finding in up to 5%-10% of patients with chronic HIV infection. Therefore, all patients with presumed ITP should be tested for HIV and hepatitis C virus as platelet counts can be affected by treating the underlying disease. Bone marrow biopsy may be required in patients with negative tests and unexplained thrombocytopenia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)

A

A life-threatening disorder of the microvasculature characterized by the formation of small vessel thrombi that consume platelets, shear red blood cells, and often cause end organ damage (primarily renal and central nervous system).

A pathologic process characterized by abnormal activation of platelets and endothelial cells, deposition of fibrin in the microvasculature, and peripheral destruction of erythrocytes and platelets.

Hx: TTP is typically a disease of young adults (unlike hemolytic uremic syndrome, which primarily affects children) and is often idiopathic but may be triggered by infections (eg, HIV, HEP C), malignancy, or medications.

TTP should be suspected in patients who have:

Increased levels of indirect bilirubin, aspartate aminotransferase [AST], alanine aminotransferase [ALT], and lactate dehydrogenase, with a reticulocyte count >2.5% should always raise suspicion for TTP.

Hyaline clots

Pentad

  • Fever
  • Anemia (Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia)[MAHA]
  • Thrombocytopenia (nonimmune)
  • Renal Failure
  • Neurologic symptoms (headache, confusion, sleepiness, coma, seizures, and stroke)

Not all patients have the full pentad; the essential features are the red blood cell fragmentation (❗schistocytes and helmet cells) and the thrombocytopenia.

TTP is usually due to an acquired autoantibody to ADAMTS13, a plasma protease that cleaves von Willebrand factor (vWF) off the endothelial surface. As ADAMTS13 levels fall (due to the antibody), vWF multimers accumulate on the endothelial wall, trapping platelets at areas of high shearing force (eg, small arterioles, capillaries) and leading to the formation of thrombi.

Dx: A peripheral blood smear is essential to determine whether the anemia is caused by a microangiopathic hemolytic process, as indicated by the presence of schistocytes on blood smear. Also see elevated serum LDH 🥛 (60-100) [>100] level and decreased haptoglobin (50-150) [<50] concentration.

Tx:Plasma exchange (with the infusion of fresh frozen plasma to provide the missing ADAMT S 13 protein) should be instituted emergently at diagnosis because 10% of patients die of this disease despite therapy.

Cx:

🦍 Hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) often associated with Shigatoxin-producing strains of E coli O157:H7), is similar but is usually NOT accompanied by 🧠 CNS changes. Shiga-like toxin is destructive against small blood vessels such as those found in the digestive tract and the kidneys; one specific target for the toxin is the vascular endothelium of the glomerulus, causing cell death, breakdown of the endothelium, hemorrhage, and activation of platelets and inflammatory pathways resulting in intravascular thrombosis and hemolysis.

HUS is characterized by ❗ more severe renal involvement (hematuria, elevated serum creatinine levels, and proteinuria); primarily a disease of children.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

HELLP syndrome

A

Late pregnancy complication of thrombocytopenia associated with microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, and elevated liver enzymes, and hypertension.

(Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, Low Platelets)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)

A

Major causes

  • Sepsis
  • Severe traumatic injury

Traumatic injury increases the risk of DIC due to endothelial (exposes tissue factor) and tissue damage (releases procoagulant proteins and phospholipids); other common causes of DIC include sepsis, malignancy, and obstetrical complications.

  • Malignancy
  • Obstetric complications

Pathophysiology

  • Procoagulant excessively triggers coagulation cascade →
  • Formation of fibrin-/platelet-rich thrombi & fibrinolysis →
  • Bleeding & organ damage (eg, kidneys, lungs)

Laboratory findings

  • Thrombocytopenia
  • Prolonged PT & PTT
  • ↓ Fibrinogen
  • ↑ D-dimer
  • Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia (schistocytes)

DIC is marked by:

  • Overactivation of the coagulation cascade, leading to the formation of fibrin- and platelet-rich thrombiand the consumption of coagulation factors (prolonged PT/PTT), platelets (thrombocytopenia), and fibrinogen.
  • Subsequent fibrinolysis (to break up the clots), which increases fibrin degradation products (eg, D-dimer). Anticoagulation proteins (eg, protein C/S) are also consumed.

Patients with acute DIC usually develop bleeding from venipuncture/surgical sites, ecchymosis, and petechiae. Organ damage (eg, renal insufficiency [reduced urine output in the setting of intravascular fluids]) is also commonly seen.

Hx: Coagulopathy typically occurs in the setting of sepsis, metastatic cancer, or obstetric catastrophe; patients with infections (with gram-negative organisms being the most common), cancer, and obstetrical complications.

Dx: Prolonged coagulation times: Prothrombin time (PT)[11-13s] and activated partial thromboplastin time (PTT)[25-35s], an elevated D-dimer titer, a decreased serum fibrinogen level and platelet count, and the presence of microangiopathic hemolytic anemia.

Erythrocyte consumption causes a microangiopathic hemolytic anemia with characteristic fragmented erythrocytes seen on a peripheral blood smear. (schistocytes).

Tx: Underlying disease, Plt, Cryo, FFP, pRBC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Henoch-Schönlein purpura

A

IgA-mediated leukocytoclastic vasculitis

Clinical manifestations

  • Palpable purpura
  • Arthritis/arthralgia
  • Abdominal pain, intussusception
  • Renal disease similar to IgA nephropathy

Laboratory findings

  • Normal platelet count & coagulation studies
  • Normal to ↑ creatinine
  • Hematuria ± RBC casts ± proteinuria

Treatment

  • Supportive (hydration & NSAIDs) for most patients
  • Hospitalization & systemic glucocorticoids in patients with severe symptoms

HSP is IgA mediated and is the most common systemic vasculitis of childhood. The classic tetrad of clinical findings includes:

  • Lower extremity palpable purpura
  • Lower extremity arthralgia/arthritis
  • Abdominal pain/intussusception
  • Renal disease

Renal manifestations are present in over one third of children with HSP and can develop at symptom onset or months after the initial presentation. Hematuria is the most common finding, followed by mild (non–nephrotic-range) proteinuria. Nephrotic syndrome, hypertension, and elevated creatinine are less common and typically occur more frequently in adults with HSP. In addition, children usually make a full recovery with rare cases of end-stage renal failure.

Cx: Intussusception is the most common GI complication, as intestinal edema and bleeding associated with HSP act as a lead point for the intestines to telescope into the adjacent bowel. In contrast to most idiopathic intussusception in children, which is typically ileocolic, intussusception in HSP is usually confined to the small bowel (ileoileal). Presentation typically involves severe, episodic abdominal pain and “currant jelly” or bloody stools; the presence of a “target” sign on ultrasound is diagnostic. Although ileocolic intussusceptions are treated with air or contrast enema, ileoileal intussusceptions that do not reduce spontaneously often require surgical management.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Ddx: Thrombophilia

Risk Factors for Inherited Thrombophilia:

Thrombosis in ages <50 years, especially in the absence of acquired risk factors (idiopathic)

History of recurrent thrombosis, especially if idiopathic

First-degree relative(s) with thrombosis, especially if first VTE occurs at age <50 years

Unusual site of thrombosis (mesenteric, splenic, portal, hepatic, cerebral sinus, upper extremity in the absence of central lines)

Thrombotic event during pregnancy or postpartum

Thrombotic event while taking oral contraceptives

History of recurrent pregnancy loss

A

Inherited:

Resistance to activated protein C most commonly due to factor V Leiden

Prothrombin gene mutation 20210A

Antithrombin deficiency

Protein C deficiency

Protein S deficiency

Hyperhomocysteinemia

Elevated factor VIII

Acquired:

Surgery – most commonly orthopedic (hip and knee replacement), cancer surgery

Malignancies – most commonly pancreas, GI, lung, ovaries, acute promyelocytic leukemia

Myeloproliferative disorders – most commonly polycythemia vera and essential thrombocythemia

Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

Trauma

Prolonged immobilization – (eg, air travel >6 hours, bed rest for ≥3 days)

Pregnancy/postpartum

Nephrotic syndrome

Medication related – including oral contraceptives, hormone replacement therapy, tamoxifen/raloxifene, chemotherapy, thalidomide, heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, warfarin-induced necrosis

Presence of a central venous catheter or PICC line

Antiphospholipid syndrome

Acquired states of hyperhomocysteinemia, activated protein C resistance, and antithrombin deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Factor V Leiden

A

The most commonly found disorder is factor V Leiden (FVL), especially in Caucasian patients (4%-5% prevalence). Most patients with FVL have an autosomal dominant point mutation in the gene for factor V that makes it unable to respond to activated protein C, an innate anticoagulant.

This mutation leads to slowed degradation of procoagulant active factor V, leading to continued thrombin formation and to slowed degradation of active factor VIII.

Prothrombin time and activated partial thromboplastin time can be normal as the major procoagulant effects are due to continued thrombin formation

Heterozygosity of this gene increases the lifetime risk of thrombosis 7 fold, whereas homozygosity increases the risk 20 to 80 fold. This mutation is found in approximately 20% of individuals presenting with a VTE.

Dx: This mutation can be detected by gene analysis or by a coagulation assay (the activated protein C resistance assay)[(sensitivity = 98%, specificity = 99%)].

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

[APS] Antiphospholipid syndrome

A

Antiphospholipid syndrome (APS) is the most common form of acquired thrombophilia resulting from the development of antibodies directed toward plasma proteins that are bound to phospholipids.

APS is characterized by:

  • Venous thromboembolism or recurrent early miscarriages
  • Presence of an antiphospholipid antibody such as the lupus anticoagulant (LA), anticardiolipin antibody, or beta 2 glycoprotein 1 antibody

Dx: The LA occurs in 10%-30% of patients with SLE. The exact mechanism by which LA promotes coagulation in vivo is unclear. In vitro, it prolongs the partial thromboplastin time (PTT) as it binds the phospholipids used in most assays. This is a laboratory artifact and does not correlate with bleeding in vivo. The prothrombin time may also be prolonged. The PTT will not correct if mixed in a 1:1 dilution with normal plasma. Prolonged PTT is an indirect indicator for the presence of LA and highly suggestive in the correct clinical setting. Specific tests include the diluted Russell viper venom test and the kaolin clotting time.

Anticardiolipin antibodies are antiphospholipid antibodies that react with proteins associated with cardiolipin (phospholipid), and these antibodies are also responsible for false-positive tests for syphilis (such as the rapid plasma reagin test) that use cardiolipin in their assay.

Dx: ELISA testing for anticardiolipin and anti-β2-glycoprotein-I (IgG and/or IgM) antibodies

Lupus anticoagulants are antiphospholipid antibodies that, when bound to their target proteins, prolong clotting times (such as the prothrombin time and activated partial thromboplastin time); despite this clotting time prolongation, patients with lupus anticoagulants are actually thrombophilic. Because lupus anticoagulants act as inhibitors, these measures do not correct when a mixing study is performed in which the patient’s plasma is combined with plasma that contains all of the normal clotting factors.

Dx: Requires a 3-step procedure including screening tests (eg, diluted Russell viper venom and sensitive aPTT); mixing studies; and confirmatory phospholipid tests

Antiphospholipid autoantibodies APS is an acquired autoimmune disorder associated with venous or arterial thromboembolism, pregnancy loss, thrombocytopenia, kidney impairment, vasculitis, and cardiac valvular abnormalities; Antibodies are directed against the phospholipid β2-microglobulin, which is an inhibitor of coagulation and platelet aggregation.

Dx: Can be detected with enzyme immunoassays or phospholipid-dependent coagulation tests such as the (prolonged) activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) and the dilute Russell viper venom time.

Tx: A systematic review reported that the absolute risk of new venous thromboembolic (VTE) disease in patients with antiphospholipid antibodies is low (less than 1% per year). However, this risk may be increased to up to 10% per year in women with antiphospholipid antibodies or APS and recurrent fetal loss and more than 10% per year in patients with antiphospholipid antibodies and previous VTE who have discontinued anticoagulants within 6 months. Current recommendations are to treat these latter high-risk patients with anticoagulants indefinitely.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Protein C deficiency

A

⛑ Warfarin inhibits production of vitamin K–dependent clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X. It also inhibits production of the natural anticoagulants proteins C and S. This decreases protein C anticoagulant activity to 50% within the first day while levels of procoagulant factors (II, IX, and X) decline more slowly, leading to a transient hypercoagulable state. This increases the risk for venous thromboembolism and skin necrosis, especially in patients with underlying hereditary protein C deficiency.

Hx: Skin lesions typically occur on the extremities, breast, trunk, and penis and marginate over a period of hours. If left untreated, affected areas become edematous, purpuric, and ultimately necrotic.

Tx: Treatment involves immediate cessation of warfarin and administration of protein C concentrate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Protein S deficiency

A

Inherited as an autosomal dominant trait; it is a cofactor of protein C, so decreased levels of this protein also lead to less protein C activity, resulting in increased fibrin formation. Protein S deficiency is very rare.

Dx: Consider both functional level and antigenic assays

51
Q

Prothrombin 20210A

A

A mutation in the prothrombin gene at position G20210A causes increased levels of prothrombin that leads to excess thrombin formation. This condition occurs in approximately 3% of Caucasians in the United States and confers a 3- to 4-fold risk for VTE.

Dx: Direct PCR gene test (sensitivity = 100%, specificity = 100%)

52
Q

Antithrombin deficiency

A

Antithrombin deficiency is an autosomal dominant genetic mutation associated with thrombophilia. It should be suspected in a patient whose clot does not respond to heparin therapy, since heparin requires the presence of antithrombin that is deficient in this condition.

Dx: Consider both functional level and antigenic assays

53
Q

Homocysteine

A

Homocysteine is a highly reactive amino acid. Increased levels predispose to venous thrombosis as well as atherosclerosis, presumably due to a combination of direct vascular damage, activation of clotting mechanisms, and inhibition of antithrombotic pathways.

Hyperhomocysteinemia can rarely be inherited through mutations of the MTHFR gene. Levels of homocysteine increase, leading to increased clot formation. Elevated plasma factor VIII coagulant activity (VIII:C) also increases thrombotic risk independently

Dx: Fasting plasma homocysteine level (risk increases when levels >1.35 mg/L (10 μmol/L)

Homocysteine can be metabolized to cysteine or methylated to form methionine. If either of these pathways is disrupted by an enzyme or cofactor deficiency, elevated homocysteine levels result. The homocysteine to cysteine pathway is catalyzed by cystathionine β-synthase (CBS) using the cofactor pyridoxine (B6). The homocysteine to methionine pathway is catalyzed by methylenetetrahydrofolate reductase (MTHFR) and methionine synthase (MS), with folate and cobalamin (B12) as essential cofactors.

Tx: Independent of the underlying cause, homocysteine levels can usually be normalized by administration of pyridoxine (B6) and folate. Vitamin B12 should be added if a B12 deficiency is documented. Although this treatment does correct homocysteine levels, it is still unclear whether it reverses hypercoagulability.

54
Q

Acquired hyperhomocysteinemia

A

Acquired hyperhomocysteinemia has been associated with both arterial and venous thrombosis. The increased homocysteine can stem from vitamin B6, vitamin B12, and folate deficiencies. The thrombotic risk is most closely associated with the increased fasting plasma homocysteine level, regardless of etiology, and roughly doubles the risk of venous thrombosis.

55
Q

Malignancies

A

Cancer increases the risk of VTE by 4- to 20-fold. Cancers express tissue factor on their surface and induce tissue factor expression by endothelial cells and monocytes, contributing to a prothrombotic state. Thrombotic risk varies by cancer type and stage; risk is highest with pancreatic and brain tumors, intermediate with lung cancer and lymphoma, and lower with breast and prostate cancer. Metastatic disease increases thrombotic risk twofold.

56
Q

⚪⚪⚪ Multiple Myeloma

A

Pathophysiology

  • Plasma cell neoplasm produces monoclonal paraprotein (immunoglobulin)

Manifestations

  • Bone pain, fractures
  • Constitutional symptoms (weight loss, fatigue)
  • Recurrent infections

Laboratory

  • Normocytic anemia
  • Renal insufficiency
  • Hypercalcemia (constipation, muscle weakness)
  • Monoclonal paraproteinemia (M-spike)

Radiology

  • 🦴Osteolytic lesions/osteopenia (osteoclast activation)

Plasma cell neoplasm that often presents with constitutional symptoms (weight loss, fatigue) or bone pain.

Dx: MM should be suspected in elderly patients with laboratory findings of hypercalcemia, normocytic anemia, renal insufficiency, and a protein gap (difference between total protein and albumin >4 g/dL). Multiple myeloma is a malignancy of plasma cells.

Hx: Bone pain, pancytopenia, kidney disease, and hypercalcemia.

Patients with MM are prone to 🦠infection. Neoplastic infiltration of the bone marrow alters and impairs the normal lymphocyte population, resulting in ineffective antibody production and hypogammaglobulinemia. Respiratory (eg, streptococcal pneumonia) and urinary tract infections are the most common infections seen in MM.

Dx: Monoclonal IgG, IgA, or light chains.

CBC, Blood smear

  • 🛢Rouleaux formation, leukopenia and thrombocytopenia.
  • May cause acute kidney injury (AKI), anemia, hypercalcemia, and a decreased anion gap.
    • The anion gap, normally approximately 12 plus or minus 2 mEq/L (12 ± 2 mmol/L), may be decreased in patients with multiple myeloma because of the presence of an unmeasured cationic light chain that causes an increase in negative ions to maintain electroneutrality, thereby decreasing the calculated gap between measured positive and negative serum ions.

Serum/Urine Protein electrophoresis (SPEP)

Most myelomas produce a monoclonal (M) protein consisting of an intact immunoglobulin composed of a heavy chain (IgG, IgA, or IgD) and a κ or λ light chain, but they may secrete free light chains alone (16% of cases), or, rarely, no immunoglobulin.

🚽 Urine Immunofixation:

Immunofixation confirms the presence of an M protein and determines its type. The absence of an M protein in the serum and the finding of hypogammaglobulinemia suggest that the M protein is a light chain, which is filtered by the glomerulus and is readily found by urine immunofixation but not found in the serum (Bence Jones protein).

Serum Immunofixation:

🍖 Bone marrow Biopsy:

Asymptomatic (smoldering) multiple myeloma is characterized by a serum M protein level of 3 g/dL or more, regardless of isotype, or 10% or more of clonal plasma cells on bone marrow examination and the absence of myeloma-related end-organ damage. The risk of asymptomatic multiple myeloma progressing to symptomatic multiple myeloma or AL amyloidosis is 73% at 15 years, with a median time to progression of 4.8 years.

Symptomatic myeloma is diagnosed by the presence of 10% or more clonal plasma cells on bone marrow biopsy, the presence of an M protein, and evidence of myeloma-related end-organ damage. Definitive diagnosis
of multiple myeloma is made by demonstrating greater than 30% plasma cells in the bone marrow.

57
Q

Monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance (MGUS)

A

MGUS is defined as the presence of a serum monoclonal (M) protein level of less than 3 g/dL, bone marrow plasma cells <10%; asymptomatic, normal hemoglobin, serum calcium, serum creatinine, and bone survey (no evidence of anemia, kidney failure, bone disease, or other myeloma-related end-organ damage).

Dx: The initial evaluation of most patients with an established M protein abnormality includes a complete blood count; serum calcium, albumin, and creatinine measurement; urinalysis; serum protein and urine electrophoresis and immunofixation; quantitative immunoglobulin measurement (IgG, IgM, IgA); serum free light-chain testing; and a skeletal survey.

Tx: May evolve to MM, but no therapy reduces the likelihood of malignant transformation

58
Q

Polyclonal hypergammaglobulinemia

A

A nonclonal increase in serum immunoglobulins. No increased risk of evolving into MM. Associated with liver disease, connective tissue disease, chronic infections (eg, HIV), lymphoproliferative disorders, and nonhematologic malignancies

59
Q

Plasma cell leukemia

A

Circulating plasma cells seen on peripheral blood smear. Worse prognosis than typical MM

60
Q

POEMS syndrome

A

Rare variant of MM consisting of Peripheral neuropathy, Organomegaly, Endocrinopathy, Monoclonal plasma cell proliferative disorder, Skin changes, sclerotic bone lesions, papilledema, fingernail clubbing, edema, effusions, and, possibly,

Castleman disease.

Not all features required for diagnosis; minimum of peripheral neuropathy, plasma cell dyscrasia, and either sclerotic bone lesion or Castleman disease. Better overall prognosis than MM

61
Q

Primary systemic amyloidosis (AL amyloidosis)

A

A clonal plasma cell proliferative disorder in which fibrils of monoclonal light chains are deposited in the kidney and other tissues (liver, heart, peripheral nervous system),

Hx: Nephrotic syndrome, cardiomyopathy, orthostatic hypotension, cholestatic liver disease, symmetric distal sensorimotor neuropathy, macroglossia, and carpal tunnel syndrome.

Px: Periorbital purpura and macroglossia are characteristic of AL amyloidosis.

Dx: Most patients have small serum M proteins and approximately 5% bone marrow plasma cells; 6% to 15% of patients with AL amyloidosis have coexisting MM

Characteristic findings on tissue biopsy, the presence of a monoclonal plasma cell disorder, and evidence that the amyloid deposits are composed of clonal light chains.

An abdominal fat pad aspirate revealing amorphous eosinophilic material that demonstrates apple-green birefringence when stained with Congo red and viewed under polarized light

62
Q

Waldenström macroglobulinemia

A

WM is a B-cell malignancy characterized by the excessive production of monoclonal IgM antibody.

IgM is a large immunoglobulin, and high levels can clog the microvasculature, resulting in hyperviscosity syndrome.

Hx: Symptoms typically include vision changes, headaches, vertigo, dizziness, and/or ataxia; rarely, stroke or coma may occur. Other IgM-mediated conditions commonly seen in patients with WM include peripheral neuropathy, cryoglobulinemia, and renal insufficiency.

Px: Physical examination typically shows sausage-link” (dilated, segmented, tortuous) retinal veins, and laboratory studies usually reveal anemia, a gamma gap (difference between total protein and albumin), and elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR).

Dx: Peripheral blood smear may show rouleaux formation (or erythrocyte agglutination) due to elevated serum protein.

Serum protein electrophoresis (SPEP) is an important screening study; patients with WM have a monoclonal spike (M-spike) of IgM. Diagnosis is then confirmed by bone marrow biopsy showing >10% clonal B cells with specific cytogenetic features.

Tx: More responsive to purine nucleoside analogues and anti-CD20 immunotherapy

63
Q

Plasmacytoma

A

A localized collection of plasmacytes that may occur as a single lytic lesion in bone or extramedullary (upper respiratory tract, especially sinuses, nasopharynx, or larynx) sites. Patients may or may not have M protein in the serum or urine. No increase in bone marrow plasma cells, anemia, hypercalcemia, or renal insufficiency. Treated with local therapy (excision, radiation). Patients have increased risk for developing MM

64
Q

Ddx: Transfusion Reactions

A

Acute Hemolytic Transfusion Reaction

Delayed Hemolytic Transfusion Reaction

Transfusion-Associated Circulatory Overload

Transfusion-Related Acute Lung Injury

Febrile Nonhemolytic Transfusion Reaction

Allergic Reactions and Anaphylaxis

Transfusion Graft-Versus-Host Disease

Infectious Complications

65
Q

Allergic Reactions and Anaphylaxis

A

Anaphylaxistypically occurs seconds to minutes after transfusion.

Mild allergic reactions consisting of urticaria commonly occur, especially in multiply transfused patients. Most reactions are caused by donor plasma proteins reacting with preexisting IgE antibodies in the recipient and may not recur with subsequent transfusions. After stopping the transfusion, if the urticaria resolves without signs of anaphylaxis, the transfusion can resume. Rarely is urticaria the first sign of a more serious reaction. Pretreatment with antihistamines or washing of cellular blood products to remove plasma proteins is often effective in preventing recurrence.

Severe anaphylactic reactions are rare and typically occur in patients who are IgA deficient and have anti-IgA antibodies. These antibodies react to IgA contained in the transfused blood.

Hx: Patients present with rapid onset of hypotension, gastrointestinal symptoms, angioedema, stridor, and respiratory distress.

Tx: When transfusing IgA-deficient patients, plasma products must be obtained from IgA-deficient donors and all subsequent cellular products should be washed thoroughly to remove plasma proteins.

Tx: Requires prompt and rapid cessation of the transfusion, epinephrine, airway maintenance, and fluid resuscitation.

66
Q

Acute Hemolytic Transfusion Reaction (AHTR)

A

The acute hemolytic transfusion reaction (AHTR) is a rapid intravascular hemolysis that is the most feared complication of transfusion. It is almost always caused by ABO incompatibility between donor and recipient and, in most cases, results from a clerical or procedural error such as the mislabeling of a pretransfusion specimen.

Hx: Patients often present with fever, chills, flank pain, and hemoglobinuria within an hour of transfusion. This can progress to renal failure and disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).

Tx: When AHTR is suspected, the transfusion must be stopped immediately and a specimen sent to the blood bank to evaluate for incompatibility. Treatment is supportive.

67
Q

Delayed Hemolytic Transfusion Reaction (DHTR)

A

A delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction (DHTR) occurs 3 to 10 days after erythrocyte transfusion. In contrast to AHTR, the DHTR is a gradual extravascular hemolysis caused by an amnestic minor, non-ABO erythrocyte antibody. Following a transfusion, there is a 1.0% to 1.6% chance of developing these minor non-ABO alloantibodies, and DHTR occurs when the patient is re-exposed to the same antigen with a subsequent transfusion.

Hx: Clinical symptoms include an unexpected drop in hemoglobin, jaundice, and fever, although many patients will be asymptomatic. Life-threatening complications are rare, but patients with sickle cell disease may present with a worsening pain crisis.

Tx: Treatment is supportive.

Dx: A repeat type and screen will identify the presence of a new alloantibody, and subsequent transfusions should be minimized, but not withheld, when indicated. All subsequent transfusions should be tested to ensure they do not have the identified antigen.

68
Q

(TACO) Transfusion-Associated Circulatory Overload

A

Transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO) is a frequent and serious transfusion complication, which most commonly affects those with limited cardiopulmonary reserve, including the very young and the elderly.

Hx: Presenting symptoms occur during or within 1 to 2 hours of a transfusion and include dyspnea, cough, tachycardia, cyanosis, edema, and chest tightness.

Px: Physical examination will typically reveal signs of fluid overload, and unlike TRALI, there will be an elevated N-terminal pro-B-type natriuretic peptide.

Tx: Treatment consists of supplemental oxygenation and intravenous diuretics. The risk of TACO can be reduced by avoiding overly rapid transfusion rates.

69
Q

Transfusion-Related Acute Lung Injury (TRALI)

A

Transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI) occurs in 1 of 5000 transfusions and is the most common cause of transfusion-related death, with a mortality rate of 5%. Transfusions containing higher concentrations of plasma, such as platelets and whole blood, pose the greatest risk. The pathogenesis of TRALI is not completely understood, but is thought to be due to the “priming” of neutrophils in the lung vasculature (by insults such as surgery, infection, or trauma) that make them vulnerable to activation, which occurs with exposure to an antineutrophil or HLA antibody contained in the transfusion. Upon activation, leukocyte sequestration occurs in the lung, and capillary leak ensues.

Dx: The diagnostic criteria for TRALI includes the acute onset of dyspnea, hypoxia, and bilateral infiltrates on chest radiograph occurring within 6 hours of transfusion with no other cause for acute lung injury. The clinical and radiographic differential diagnosis includes TACO, acute respiratory distress syndrome, and heart failure.

Tx: Unlike patients with acute respiratory distress syndrome, patients with TRALI typically improve within days. As such, treatment of TRALI is primarily supportive and prevention entails exclusion of the implicated donor from future transfusions.

70
Q

Febrile Nonhemolytic Transfusion Reaction

A

The febrile nonhemolytic transfusion reaction (FNHTR) is the most common transfusion reaction and is benign. It presents with fever and chills 1 to 6 hours after erythrocyte or platelet transfusion. However, it cannot be clinically differentiated from the more severe and life-threatening AHTR. Recipient-derived leukoreactive antibodies and donor-derived cytokines are thought to represent the most common causes. When fever develops, the transfusion should be stopped immediately until AHTR can be excluded and causes of fever unrelated to the transfusion considered. After AHTR has been excluded, the transfusion can continue with close monitoring. Pretransfusion antipyretics such as acetaminophen, or leukoreduction of cellular blood products, may prevent recurrence.

71
Q

Transfusion Graft-Versus-Host Disease

A

Transfusion-associated GVHD (T-GVHD) is a rare, but often fatal, transfusion complication. It usually occurs in immunocompromised patients who receive a transfusion product that is contaminated with lymphocytes. Immunocompetent patients are not usually affected because their immune system destroys the lymphocytes in the donor transfusion. Patients at risk for T-GVHD include hematopoietic stem cell or solid organ transplant recipients, recipients of transfusions from first-degree relatives, and patients with immunosuppression associated with hematologic malignancies such as Hodgkin lymphoma.

An immune-mediated, multisystem inflammatory condition that occurs in 35%-50% of patients who undergo allogeneic hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (HSCT). Acute GVHD arises when donor T cells (particularly cytotoxic T cells) identify antigens on host epithelial cells as foreign and subsequently generate a strong proinflammatory response.

The target organs for GVHD are the skin (maculopapular rash involving palms, soles, and face that may generalize is typical), intestine (blood-positive diarrhea), and liver (abnormal liver function tests and jaundice). Patients with acute GVHD generally develop symptoms within 100 days of transplantation, including the following:

  • Maculopapular rash 🤡 that is often painful and can become confluent (resembling Stevens-Johnson syndrome)
  • Profuse, watery diarrhea 💩 that has a secretory pattern (eg, persistent, unrelated to eating, occurs at night) and is often associated with crampy abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting
  • Liver inflammation with damage to the biliary tract epithelium, leading to elevated bilirubin, alkaline phosphatase, and transaminases

No treatment has proved effective; therefore, prevention is key. Gamma irradiation of cellular products virtually eliminates the risk for T-GVHD and should be performed before transfusion for all at-risk patients.

72
Q

Infectious Complications

A

Given improved donor screening and pretransfusion testing, blood is currently safer than ever before. For example, the risk of HIV is less than 1 in 1,900,000 units; hepatitis C is less than 1 in 1,000,000 units; and hepatitis B is less than 1 in 205,000 units. However, infectious risk, including the transmission of West Nile virus, dengue virus, prions causing Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease, Chagas disease, and babesiosis, still remain, and new bloodborne pathogens will continue to emerge.

The risk for bacterial infection is higher than viral infection and can come from donor blood, donor skin, phlebotomists’ skin, and environmental contamination. Because platelets are stored at room temperature, bacterial contamination occurs more commonly with platelet transfusions, with an estimated frequency of 1 in 3000 platelet units. There are other bacteria such as Yersinia enterocolitica that may survive refrigeration of erythrocyte units and can lead to fatal sepsis.

73
Q

Tumor lysis syndrome (TLS)

A

Can develop in patients with aggressive hematologic malignancies who begin cytotoxic chemotherapy. Large-scale cell death increases vascular concentrations of intracellular products, resulting in potentially life-threatening electrolyte and metabolic abnormalities. The following are often observed:

Hyperuricemia – Nucleic acids are released and metabolized into uric acid.

Hyperkalemia and hyperphosphatemia – Intracellular ions are liberated.

Hypocalcemia – Phosphate binds and precipitates calcium, reducing intravascular levels.

Symptoms of TLS are primarily due to electrolyte abnormalities and include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, muscle cramps, seizures, and tetany. Cardiac arrhythmias (hyperkalemia, hypocalcemia) and acute kidney injury (renal tubule deposition of uric acid and/or calcium phosphate) are common complications.

Tx: The use of intravenous fluids to flush the kidneys and uric acid metabolism inhibitors (allopurinol, rasburicase 🍉) helps moderate the risk of uric acid-mediated renal damage; however, calcium phosphate-induced renal injury may still occur.

74
Q

Ddx: Lymphadenopathy

Location, size, consistency (eg, soft, rubbery, fluctuant, firm, hard), and mobility of any involved nodes; if multiple nodes are involved, also determine whether the nodes are discrete or matted. Features concerning for malignancy include size <strong>>2 cm</strong>, hard consistency, and fixed and/or matted nodes.

<strong>Supraclavicular lymphadenopathy</strong> is usually a sign of a serious underlying condition, whereas inguinal lymphadenopathy is very common and often benign.

<strong>A single supraclavicular node</strong> suggests metastatic cancer, whereas <strong>generalized lymphadenopathy</strong> suggests a systemic inflammatory or infectious disease, such as syphilis or HIV infection.

<strong>“ALL STAGES”</strong> PNEUMONIC

Age: >40 y

Location: Supraclavicular, mediastinal, abdominal

Length of time present: >4 wk

Size: >2 cm

Texture: Hard, matted

Associated signs: Nontender (unless massive), fixed

Generalized vs localized: Not helpful predictor but may be useful in identifying cause

Extranodal associations: Splenomegaly, weight loss, arthritis, persistent fever

Setting: Risk factors for malignancy

A

Cancer

Hypersensitivity

Infection

Connective tissue disease

Atypical lymphoproliferative disorder

Granulomatous disease

Other unusual cause

75
Q

Ddx: Hematopoietic Stem cell disorders

A

Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML)

Acute myeloid leukemia (AML)

Myelodysplastic Syndrome (MDS)

Leukemoid Reaction

Aplastic Anemia

Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)

Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL)

Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)

Hodgkin lymphoma (HL)

B-cell NHL:

Follicular lymphoma

Marginal zone lymphoma

Small lymphocytic lymphoma

Mantle cell lymphoma

Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma

Burkitt lymphoma

Infectious Mononucleosis

76
Q

Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML)

A

Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) is a myeloproliferative neoplasm caused by the BCR-ABL fusion gene. It is marked by a dramatic leukocytosis (often but not always >100,000/mm3), absolute basophilia, and a preponderance of early immature neutrophil precursors (promyelocytes, myelocytes).

Dx: The leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP) score 💯 can help differentiate CML from leukemoid reaction. In CML the neutrophils are cytochemically and functionally abnormal, so the LAP score is usually low.

Dx: In chronic-phase CML, the leukocyte count is high, the hemoglobin level is low or normal, and the platelet count is normal or high. The peripheral blood smear shows neutrophilia and left-shifted granulopoiesis. Basophilia is common. [Leukocytosis with circulating myeloid precursors in all stages of development.]

CML is often found on routine blood work in asymptomatic patients but may present with fatigue, weight loss, night sweats, or abdominal fullness (from splenomegaly). Thrombocytosis and anemia are common.

Hx: Fatigue, night sweats, weight loss, abdominal discomfort, early satiety (splenomegaly), and bleeding.

Peripheral blood smear in CML reveals dramatic leukocytosis (often >100,000/mm3) with absolute basophilia and a shift toward very early neutrophil precursors (promyelocytes, myelocytes).

Detection of the (9;22) translocation by routine cytogenetic studies or fluorescence in situ hybridization assay or of the BCR-ABL fusion transcript by reverse transcriptase-polymerase chain reaction is diagnostic of CML

Px: Splenomegaly

Tx: First-line treatment for most CML patients involves tyrosine kinase inhibitors such as imatinib. Although these drugs are not curative, they often can induce long-term remission.

77
Q

Leukemoid Reaction (LR)

A

Severe infections can cause LR due to the mobilization of mature and immature leukocytes from the bone marrow.

Dx: Usually defined as a non-leukemic leukocytosis exceeding 50,000/µL (50 × 109/L) and is characterized by an increase in early neutrophil precursors in the peripheral blood.

Leukocyte count is dramatically elevated, with a predominance of late neutrophil precursors (metamyelocytes, bands) rather than early precursors (promyelocytes, myelocytes). This, combined with a high leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP) score, suggests leukemoid reaction (LR).

LR must be differentiated from chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML), a myeloproliferative disorder that also presents with neutrophilia and dramatic leukocytosis.

Unlike LR, CML is characterized by a low LAP score (due to cytochemically abnormal neutrophils) and a peripheral smear that features absolute basophilia and early neutrophil precursor cells.

Given the severity of the infection, it may take >24 hours for clinical improvement with antibiotics.

78
Q

Acute myeloid leukemia (AML)

A

Background

  • Most common adult acute leukemia
  • Median age 65

Manifestations

  • Fatigue is common (other B symptoms unusual)
  • Often presents with symptoms from cytopenias:
    • Fatigue, weakness (anemia)
    • Bleeding, bruising (thrombocytopenia)
    • Infection (granulocytopenia)
  • Hepatosplenomegaly/lymphadenopathy rare
  • Disseminated intravascular coagulation (if APML)

Laboratory

  • Cytopenias (leukocytes may be ↑, normal or ↓)
  • Elevated lactate dehydrogenase
  • Peripheral smear - myeloblasts with Auer rods

Diagnosis

  • Bone marrow biopsy - usually hypercellular with myeloid blasts

Malignancy of myeloid progenitor cells characterized by a median age at diagnosis of 67 years.

AML is a clonal myeloproliferative disorder characterized by the accumulation of blastic or immature myeloid cells in the bone marrow and peripheral blood. Patients often develop fatigue and symptoms related to >1 cytopenias, including fatigue/weakness (anemia), bleeding/bruising (thrombocytopenia), and/or infection (granulocytopenia). Examination may show pallor and ecchymosis, but lymphadenopathy and hepatosplenomegaly are rare. Leukocyte count may be elevated (sometimes >100,000/mm3), normal, or low.

Cx: APML is characterized by life-threatening coagulopathy due to disseminated intravascular coagulation (prolonged PT/active PTT, hypofibrinogenemia). In APML, bone marrow biopsy would reveal atypical promyelocytes.

Hx: While AML most commonly occurs in patients with no antecedent risk factors, its incidence is increased in patients who are Exposed to radiation or benzene or following therapy with chemotherapy, especially alkylating agents.

Clinical manifestations of marrow failure develop over days to months and include fatigue, dyspnea, and easy bleeding. Fever is commonly caused by infection.

Dx: The bone marrow biopsy in patients with AML would show an abundance of myeloid blasts.

Auer rods, which are clumps of azurophilic granular material that form elongated needles seen in the cytoplasm of leukemic blasts are sometimes seen on the peripheral smear.

Tx: Given the risk for central nervous system involvement in ALL, intrathecal chemoprophylaxis is routinely administered with or without cranial irradiation.

Acute promyelocytic leukemia (APL) is a subtype of AML that occurs in 10% of patients with AML. Dx: Patients with APL may have circulating blasts, but the predominant cell is a large immature granulocyte with multiple granules overlying the cytoplasm and nucleus. Tx: The disorder is exquisitely sensitive to anthracycline cytotoxic therapy. The addition of all-trans-retinoic acid and arsenic trioxide to the therapy has resulted in high cure and salvage rates in patients with APL.

79
Q

Myelodysplastic Syndrome

A

Clonal hematopoietic progenitor cell disorders characterized by ineffective hematopoiesis and a variable rate of transformation to acute myeloid leukemia. The myelodysplastic syndromes are progenitor cell clonal disorders characterized by ineffective hematopoiesis and various peripheral cytopenias. The incidence of MDS increases with age.

Hx: Fatigue and easy bleeding.

Patients have signs and symptoms referable to a specific cytopenia (most often, megaloblastic anemia) and bone marrow findings showing a hypercellular marrow with dyserythropoiesis. Many chromosomal abnormalities are associated with myelodysplastic syndromes, including abnormal numbers of chromosomes, translocations, and structural abnormalities.

Dx: Normocytic or macrocytic anemia. Dysplastic changes on the peripheral blood smear may include nucleated erythrocytes and hypolobated, hypogranular neutrophils. Bone marrow findings showing a hypercellular marrow with dyserythropoiesis.

Tx: Patients with myelodysplastic syndrome treated with azacitidine have significantly delayed transformation to leukemia and improved quality of life.

80
Q

Aplastic Anemia

A

Pathogenesis

  • Bone marrow failure due to hematopoietic stem cell deficiency (CD34+)

Causes

  • Autoimmune
  • Infections (eg, parvovirus B19, Epstein-Barr virus)
  • Drugs (eg, carbamazepine, chloramphenicol, sulfonamides)
  • Exposure to radiation or toxins (eg, benzene, solvents)

Clinical & laboratory findings

  • Laboratory studies: Pancytopenia
    • Anemia (fatigue, weakness, pallor)
    • Thrombocytopenia (mucosal bleeding, easy bruising, petechiae)
    • Leukopenia (recurrent infections)
  • Biopsy: Hypocellular bone marrow with fat and stromal cells

Aplastic anemia is an acquired deficiency or absence of pluripotent stem cells. It is associated with exposures (eg, drugs, toxins, radiation), viral infections (eg, parvovirus B19, HIV, Epstein-Barr virus), and autoimmune conditions (eg, lupus, eosinophilic fasciitis). Direct damage to and autoimmune targeting of stem cells are 2 potential mechanisms that result in aplasia. Bone marrow fails to produce blood cells, resulting in a hypocellular bone marrow and pancytopenia. Epstein-Barr virus and cytomegalovirus infection, can cause aplastic anemia.

Dx: The complete blood count and peripheral smear are notable for pancytopenia and inadequate erythropoiesis demonstrated by a low reticulocyte count; however, the cells are all morphologically normal and the anemia is usually normocytic. A definitive diagnosis is made by bone marrow biopsy demonstrating hypocellular marrow with a few normal hematopoietic cells, no myeloid infiltration or fibrosis, and predominantly stroma and adipocytes.

81
Q

Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL)

A

ALL is the most common childhood cancer, with peak incidence in boys age 2-5.

Epidemiology

  • Most common childhood cancer
  • Peak age: 2-5 years
  • Male > female

Clinical features

  • Nonspecific systemic symptoms
  • Bone pain
  • Lymphadenopathy
  • Hepatosplenomegaly
  • Pallor (from anemia)
  • Petechiae (from thrombocytopenia)

Diagnosis

  • Bone marrow biopsy with >25% lymphoblasts

Treatment

  • Multidrug chemotherapy

About half of patients with ALL have bruising, petechiae, and mucosal bleeding (eg, oozing from the gums) as a result of cancer cells infiltrating the bone marrow and impairing platelet production. Bone marrow failure leads to pallor and fatigue (from anemia) and recurrent infections (from neutropenia).

In addition, the spread of leukemic cells out of the bone marrow can cause the liver, spleen, and lymph nodes to enlarge.

Bone marrow biopsy is diagnostic.

A disorder of committed progenitor cells characterized by a proliferation of immature lymphoblasts. ALL constitutes less than 20% of acute leukemias in adult patients, with the highest incidence occurring in the seventh decade of life.

Hx: Patients present with lymphocytosis, neutropenia, anemia, and thrombocytopenia, as well as lymphadenopathy and hepatosplenomegaly.

Rapidly increasing blast cells in the blood and bone marrow, bulky lymphadenopathy (especially in the mediastinum), and cytopenia secondary to bone marrow involvement are the usual presenting clinical features.

82
Q

Fanconi anemia

A

Pathophysiology

  • Inherited DNA repair defect
  • Bone marrow failure

Clinical findings

  • Short stature
  • Hypo-/hyperpigmented macules
  • Abnormal thumbs
  • Genitourinary malformations

Laboratory findings

  • Pancytopenia
  • Positive chromosomal breakage testing

Treatment

  • Hematopoietic stem cell transplant

Fanconi anemia (FA) is the most common congenital cause of 🦴 aplastic anemia (ie, bone marrow failure, pancytopenia). FA is typically an autosomal recessive disorder caused by a DNA repair defect. Damaged, unstable DNA impairs normal hematopoietic stem cell production and can also lead to increased susceptibility to malignancy (eg, leukemia).

Patients usually present in childhood with signs of thrombocytopenia (eg, bleeding, bruising), with progression to leukopenia (eg, infections) and anemia (eg, fatigue) over time. Anemia is usually macrocytic due to fetal erythropoiesis that occurs during periods of chronic hematopoietic stress. Additional characteristic features of FA include short stature, hyper- or hypopigmentation, and absent or hypoplastic thumbs. Additional abnormalities of the hand may include polydactyly or a flat thenar eminence 👍🏽.

Diagnosis of FA is made by demonstrating chromosomal breakage following DNA exposure to interstrand crosslinking agents. Definitive treatment is hematopoietic stem cell transplantation.

83
Q

Follicular lymphoma

A

Dx: Indolent. Second most common type of NHL. Average age at diagnosis is 60, and 80% have advanced disease at presentation.

Tx:

Observation in asymptomatic patients.

When symptoms occur, options include chemotherapy, immunotherapy, or chemoimmunotherapy. Some patients may receive radiation therapy.

Incurable.

Average survival may exceed 8 to 10 years.

84
Q

Marginal zone lymphoma

A

Dx:

Indolent. Derives from the marginal zone of lymph nodes or spleen. Average age is 60. Includes splenic marginal zone lymphoma, mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT) lymphoma, and nodal marginal zone lymphoma.

Tx:

Same as for follicular lymphoma.

85
Q

Small lymphocytic lymphoma

A

Dx:

Indolent. Characterized by an excess of small, mature-appearing lymphocytes in the blood, bone marrow, or lymph nodes. When a peripheral blood lymphocytosis is seen, it is also called chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL).

Tx:

Same as for follicular lymphoma.

86
Q

Mantle cell lymphoma

A

Dx: May be indolent or aggressive. Associated with the cyclin D1 protein overexpression. Most patients have widely advanced disease at presentation.

Tx:

Chemoimmunotherapy.

Incurable.

Average survival is 3 to 5 years.

87
Q

Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma

A

Dx: Aggressive. Most common type of NHL. May occur outside the lymph nodes in up to 40% of patients, including within the CNS, the gastrointestinal tract, genitourinary tract, or bones.

5-year overall survival rate ranges from 30% to 50% for all stages. Early-stage, low-risk patients may have overall survival rates up to 90%.

Tx: Treatment for all patients with large B-cell NHL includes chemotherapy (usually cyclophosphamide, doxorubicin, vincristine, and prednisone with rituximab [R-CHOP]) and immunotherapy with rituximab. Radiation therapy is used after chemoimmunotherapy for patients with localized or bulky disease.

Curable.

88
Q

Burkitt lymphoma

A

Dx: On histology, the “starry sky” pattern is classic and all cases have a translocation of the c-myc oncogene. Often associated with tumor lysis at the time of, or even before, treatment.

Tx: Chemoimmunotherapy. Prophylactic intrathecal chemotherapy is given to reduce the likelihood of relapse within the CNS.

Curable.

5-year overall survival rate in adults is 50% to 70%.

89
Q

Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)

A

Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) (sometimes referred to as small lymphocytic lymphoma) is the most common type of leukemia in the United States. It is almost always seen in the elderly (median age at diagnosis is 70).

Hx: Patients are often asymptomatic but can present with extreme fatigue, B symptoms (eg, night sweats, fevers), infection, or weight loss.

Px: Painless lymphadenopathy (cervical, supraclavicular, axillary), hepatosplenomegaly, and anemia or thrombocytopenia.

Dx: Dramatic lymphocytosis (>5000/µL)[50,000?] is the classic hallmark of CLL.Immunophenotyping (flow cytometry) demonstrates clonality of the circulating B-lymphocytes. Immunophenotyping will show a monoclonal proliferation of mature B lymphocytes expressing CD19, CD20, and CD5. Peripheral smear reveals mature lymphocytes with the presence of smudge cells (a pathognomonic characteristic of CLL).

90
Q

Hodgkin lymphoma (HL)

A

Epidemiology

  • Bimodal peak incidence: age 15-35 & >60
  • Association with EBV in the immunosuppressed

Manifestations

  • Painless lymphadenopathy
  • Mediastinal mass
  • B symptoms (ie, fever, sweats, weight loss)
  • Pruritus

Diagnosis

  • Lymph node biopsy
  • Reed-Sternberg cells on histology

HL usually arises in a single lymph node and disseminates to contiguous nodes via the lymphatic and thoracic ducts. Patients generally present with painless peripheral LAD, particularly in the cervical and supraclavicular chains.

The most common cancer that occurs during late adolescence (age 15-19)

Hx: Weight loss, fever, and night sweats are often referred to as “B” symptoms based on the Ann Arbor classification system for lymphomas that adds the suffix B to a stage if systemic symptoms are present. B symptoms are frequently seen in patients with HL. Cough and dyspnea on exertion are generally caused by an anterior mediastinal mass, a common finding in classical HL.

Cx: The most common secondary solid tumor malignancies are lung (especially in smokers), breast, thyroid, bone, and gastrointestinal (eg, colorectal, esophageal, gastric tumors).

91
Q

Atypical lymphoproliferative disorder

A

Castleman disease (giant lymph node hyperplasia)

92
Q

Other unusual cause

A

Kikuchi disease (histiocytic necrotizing lymphadenitis)

93
Q

Ddx: Polycythemia

A

Primary (↓ EPO)

  • Polycythemia vera (JAK2 mutation)
  • EPO receptor mutations

Primary polycythemia is largely caused by malignant transformation of erythrocyte progenitor cells, which results in unregulated erythrocyte production (eg, polycythemia vera). Erythropoietin (EPO), the hormone that stimulates red blood cell production, will be low or absent because elevated red blood cell mass exerts a negative feedback effect on EPO-producing cells in the renal cortex.

Secondary (normal/↑ EPO)

  • Hypoxemia
    • Cardiopulmonary disease
    • Obstructive sleep apnea
    • High altitude
  • EPO-producing tumors (renal, hepatic)
  • Congenital (high-affinity hemoglobin)
  • Following renal transplantation
  • Androgen supplementation

Secondary polycythemia is typically due to elevated circulating EPO levels. Most cases are caused by conditions associated with chronic hypoxia (eg, cardiopulmonary disease, obstructive sleep apnea), which stimulates EPO secretion, or by EPO-producing tumors (eg, renal cell carcinoma).

94
Q

Polycythemia vera (PV)

A

Manifestations

  • ↑ Blood viscosity
    • Hypertension
    • Erythromelalgia (burning cyanosis in hands/feet)
    • Transient visual disturbances
  • ↑ RBC turnover (gouty arthritis)
  • Aquagenic pruritus
  • Bleeding

Examination

  • Facial plethora (ruddy cyanosis)
  • Splenomegaly

Laboratory findings

  • Elevated hemoglobin
  • Leukocytosis & thrombocytosis
  • Low erythropoietin level
  • JAK2 mutation positive

Complications

  • Thrombosis
  • Myelofibrosis & acute leukemia

Treatment

  • Phlebotomy
  • Hydroxyurea (if ↑ risk of thrombus)

PV is a clonal myeloproliferative disorder characterized by erythrocytosis (increase in red blood cell mass). It is a primary form of polycythemia, almost always caused by a JAK2 mutation. Normally, red blood cell production is dependent on erythropoietin (EPO), a cytokine released by the kidneys (and liver) in response to tissue hypoxia; EPO activates the JAK2 tyrosine kinase, which differentiates late myeloid cells into erythrocytes. In PV, red blood cell production is driven by a constitutively active JAK2 gene rather than by tissue hypoxia; therefore, EPO levels tend to be low.

Px: Aquagenic pruritus (itching after bathing), facial plethora (ruddy cyanosis), splenomegaly, and elevations in all 3 cell lines on complete blood count. Findings of a hemoglobin level greater than 18.5 g/dL in men or greater than 16.5 g/dL in women invariably indicate an elevated red blood cell mass.

Concomitant leukocytosis (often with basophilia) and thrombocytosis (suggesting trilineage myeloproliferation) as well as hepatosplenomegaly further support the diagnosis. In addition, more than 97% of patients with PV have an activating mutation in the signaling protein JAK2 (JAK2 V617F mutation). Serum erythropoietin levels are usually suppressed; measurement of the red blood cell mass, previously a diagnostic study for PV, is no longer done.

Tx:

🧯Low-dose aspirin has been shown to decrease the risk of thrombosis and should be given to all patients in the absence of contraindications.

Phlebotomy results in the highest overall survival rates and should be performed once or twice weekly until a target hematocrit value of less than 45% is achieved, followed by intermittent phlebotomy to maintain the hematocrit value between 40% and 45%.

95
Q

Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia (Osler-Weber-Rendu syndrome)

A

Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia (Osler-Weber-Rendu syndrome), an autosomal dominant disorder characterized by diffuse telangiectasias (eg, ruby-colored papules that blanch with pressure), recurrent epistaxis, and widespread arteriovenous malformations (AVMs).

In hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia, AVMs tend to occur in the mucous membranes, skin, and gastrointestinal tract, but may also be present in the liver, brain, and lung.

AVMs in the lungs can shunt blood from the right to the left side of the heart, causing chronic hypoxemia, digital clubbing, and a reactive polycythemia. Pulmonary AVMs can also present as massive, sometimes fatal, hemoptysis.

96
Q

🔰 Immune

A
97
Q

Complement deficiency

A

Patients with complement deficiencies are at increased risk for disseminated bacterial infections, particularly with 🔮 encapsulated bacteria (eg, Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, Neisseria meningitidis).

98
Q

Chronic granulomatous disease (CGD)

A

Clinical features

  • Majority of cases X-linked recessive
  • Recurrent pulmonary & cutaneous infections
  • 🐱 Catalase-positive pathogens (eg, Staphylococcus aureus, Serratia, Burkholderia, Aspergillus)

Diagnosis

  • Neutrophil function testing
    • Dihydrorhodamine 123 test
    • Nitroblue tetrazolium test

Chronic granulomatous disease involves abnormalities of the enzyme NADPH oxidase, which is responsible for the “respiratory burst” (formation of superoxide radicals).

Patients have decreased production of superoxide anions, so phagocytes migrate to and surround infection sites but are unable to neutralize invading organisms, resulting in characteristic granuloma formation and susceptibility to infections with fungal organisms and catalase-positive bacteria (eg, S aureus, Serratia).

Diagnosis is made by the dihydrorhodamine 123 test or the nitroblue tetrazolium test. There is no specific treatment for chronic granulomatous disease. Management is focused on infection prevention (prophylaxis against bacterial and fungal pathogens) and appropriate detection and treatment of infections that do arise.

99
Q

Leukocyte adhesion deficiency (LAD)

A

LAD is caused by defective integrins on the leukocyte surface, which normally allow neutrophils to adhere to vascular endothelium, exit the vasculature, and migrate to areas of infection or inflammation.

Patients have decreased production of superoxide anions, so phagocytes migrate to and surround infection sites but are unable to neutralize invading organisms, resulting in characteristic granuloma formation (pus?) and susceptibility to infections with fungal organisms and catalase-positive bacteria (eg, S aureus, Serratia).

Lack of neutrophil migration in LAD results in recurrent skin 🤡 (eg, cellulitis, abscess, omphalitis) and mucosal (eg, periodontal) infections as well as poor wound healing.

Examination shows inflammation with a notable lack of purulence. Biopsy of infected tissue is devoid of neutrophils and culture often grows Staphylococcus aureus or Gram-negative bacilli. Peripheral serum studies show marked leukocytosis and neutrophilia, particularly during episodes of infection. Classically, the first presenting sign of LAD is ⌚delayed umbilical cord separation (age >3 weeks).

100
Q

Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

A

Etiology

  • X-linked recessive defect in WAS protein gene
  • Impaired cytoskeleton changes in leukocytes, platelets

Clinical features

  • Eczema
  • Microthrombocytopenia (small platelets, low platelet count)
  • Recurrent infections

Treatment

  • Stem cell transplant

WAS is caused by an X-linked recessive defect in the WAS gene. This gene is primarily expressed in hematopoietic cells and regulates cytoskeleton remodeling in response to cell signaling. In WAS, the actin cytoskeleton in white blood cells is abnormal, resulting in immune dysfunction due to impaired cellular migration and immune synapse formation. Patients are at increased risk for recurrent bacterial, viral, and fungal infections.

Similarly, the cytoskeleton of platelets is also dysfunctional. Virtually all patients have significantly decreased platelet counts and size at the time of diagnosis. The resulting clinical findings can range from petechiae or purpura to severe bleeding such as intracranial hemorrhage, hematemesis, or hematochezia. In addition, autoimmune disorders (eg, eczema) occur in most patients with WAS. The treatment of WAS is hematopoietic stem cell transplantation.

101
Q

🔰 Humoral Immunodeficiency

A

Severe and recurrent sinopulmonary infections (including intubation, tympanostomy tubes, and poor growth) that are concerning for humoral immunodeficiency.

Complete blood count with differential, lymphocyte T and B cell subsets, and serum IgG, IgA, and IgM are important screening tests. HIV infection should also be excluded.

102
Q

Selective IgA deficiency

A

One of the most common immunodeficiency syndromes. Most patients are asymptomatic, but some have recurrent respiratory, gastrointestinal, and/or urogenital infections.

Serum IgA is low, whereas IgM is normal

103
Q

Hyper-IgM syndrome

A

Due to an X-linked genetic defect in the CD40 ligand. The CD40 ligand is present on T cells and binds to CD40 expressed on B cells, which induces a change in B cell production of IgM to other immunoglobulins (class switching). The absence of the CD40 ligand prevents class switching, leading to:

“Elevated IgM levels AND a deficiency of ALL other immunoglobulin types.” CD40 ligand deficiency also inhibits plasma cell formation, which contributes to poor response to infection and immunization.

Patients with hyper-IgM syndrome have recurrent sinopulmonary infections (eg, acute otitis media, pneumonia, sinusitis) with encapsulated bacteria.

They also tend to have more frequent viral infections and increased risk of opportunistic infections, such as Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia.

Growth impairment can result from high energy expenditure and poor intake during illness.

Tx: Treatment includes antibiotic prophylaxis and interval administration of intravenous immunoglobulin.

104
Q

Common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)

A

Manifestations

  • Recurrent respiratory (eg, pneumonia, sinusitis, otitis) & GI (eg, Salmonella, Campylobacter) infections
  • Autoimmune disease (eg, RA, thyroid disease)
  • Chronic lung disease (eg, bronchiectasis)
  • GI disorders (eg, chronic diarrhea, IBD-like conditions)

Diagnosis

  • ↓↓ IgG, ↓ IgA/IgM
  • No response to vaccination
  • Normal B lymphocyte count
  • Immunoglobulin replacement therapy

Abnormal B-cell differentiation results in deficiency of multiple immunoglobulin classes (IgG and either IgA, IgM, or both).

CVID is one of the most common primary immunodeficiencies in adults and is characterized mainly by increased susceptibility to bacterial infection.

Recurrent respiratory infections (eg, pneumonia, sinusitis, otitis) and gastrointestinal infections (eg, Salmonella, Campylobacter) are common, and the latter may lead to episodes of 💩bloody diarrhea. Chronic giardiasis may occur, but opportunistic infections (eg, Candida, Pneumocystis jirovecii) are rare.

Other characteristics of CVID include concomitant autoimmune disease (eg, hemolytic anemia, rheumatoid arthritis, pernicious anemia), inflammatory bowel-like disease, granuloma development, and increased risk for non-Hodgkin lymphoma. Enteropathy (eg, sprue-like illness) is common, and affected patients may present with malabsorption and weight loss.

The majority of patients are diagnosed in adulthood (age 20-45) due to a combination of variable presentation and diagnostic delay. Diagnosis is made by quantitative measurement of immunoglobulin levels (significantly reduced serum IgG with low levels of IgA and/or IgM) as well as by markedly reduced or absent immune response to vaccination.

Management of CVID is focused on avoiding infection, so the mainstay of treatment is intravenous immunoglobulin infusion. Early initiation of therapy may prevent some complications of chronic infection. Patients with CVID have increased risk of autoimmune disease and certain malignancies regardless of treatment.

105
Q

X-linked agammaglobulinemia (Bruton)

A

Defective 🅱 lymphocyte maturation occurs in X-linked agammaglobulinemia (Bruton).

Recurrent sinopulmonary and gastrointestinal infections with low B cell and immunoglobulin concentrations are typical.

Characterized by low IgG, IgM, and IgA as well as low or absent B lymphocytes

106
Q

Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)

A

SCID is a severe primary immunodeficiency caused by one of several gene defects leading to failure of T cell development.

Without cellular immunity, patients with SCID are at high risk for infections with viruses, fungi (eg, Candida [thrush]), and opportunistic pathogens (eg, Pneumocystis jirovecii).

The loss of helper T cell function also causes B cell dysfunction (ie, impaired humoral immunity) and recurrent sinopulmonary bacterial infections (eg, pneumonia, otitis media).

In addition to infection, failure to thrive and chronic diarrhea in infancy are typical.

A variety of gene defects can cause SCID and all prevent interleukin-7-driven maturation of T cells in the thymus.

Tx: Stem cell transplantation is the only definitive therapy and should be performed as early as possible. Replacement of defective immature T cells with normal hematopoietic cells allows the development of a functional immune system. SCID is usually fatal in early childhood unless transplantation is performed.

107
Q

Adenosine deaminase deficiency

A

Adenosine deaminase deficiency is an autosomal recessive form of severe combined immunodeficiency, which is characterized by deficient formation of mature B and T lymphocytes.

Severe combined immunodeficiency presents with severe infections and failure to thrive. Laboratory studies show marked lymphopenia.

108
Q

Mixed Cryoglobulinemia

A

Type I

  • Lymphoproliferative or hematologic (eg, multiple myeloma)
  • Asymptomatic
  • Hyperviscosity (eg, blurry vision), thrombosis (eg, Raynaud phenomenon)
  • Skin: Livedo reticularis, purpura
  • Complement levels: Normal

Mixed (types II & III)

  • Chronic HCV, HIV
  • Systemic lupus erythematosus
  • Systemic: Fatigue, arthralgias
  • Renal: Glomerulonephritis, HTN
  • Pulmonary: Dyspnea, pleurisy
  • Skin: Palpable purpura, LCV
  • Low C4

Mixed cryoglobulinemia syndrome (MCS) is caused by immune complex deposition in small- to medium-size blood vessels, leading to endothelial injury and end-organ damage. It commonly presents with fatigue; nonblanching, palpable purpura; arthralgias; renal disease (eg, hematuria, proteinuria, glomerulonephritis); and peripheral neuropathies. Renal involvement is variable, but the most common manifestation is hypertension. Liver involvement (eg, elevated transaminases) is common. Patients rarely may have central nervous system or pulmonary involvement.

MCS is most commonly associated with chronic inflammatory conditions such as hepatitis C virus (HCV) infection and systemic lupus erythematosus. Consequently, every patient suspected of having MCS should be tested for HCV, hepatitis B virus, and HIV. HCV-associated MCS immune complexes are formed from HCV, anti-HCV IgG, IgM anti-IgG antibodies (rheumatoid factor), and complement.

Diagnosis of MCS can be confirmed serologically (serum cryoglobulins, low complement levels) or with a skin/renal biopsy.

Treatment involves addressing the underlying disease and can also include plasmapheresis and immunosuppression (eg, glucocorticoids, rituximab) for patients with rapidly progressive or life-threatening courses.

109
Q

Metabolism

A
110
Q

Galactosemia

A

Galactosemia is characterized by defective metabolism of galactose, a breakdown product of lactose that is then normally metabolized to glucose. First, lactose is broken down to galactose and glucose. Galactose is then phosphorylated to galactose-1-phosphate by the enzyme galactokinase (GALK).

GALK deficiency causes galactose buildup and this excess is converted to galactitol, an osmotic agent that causes cataracts. Excess galactose also spills into the urine and causes it to test positive for a reducing substances (sugars). Serious systemic manifestations are not seen in GALK deficiency, and cataracts may be the only manifestation.

Galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase (GALT) deficiency causes the most severe and most common (classic) form of galactosemia. This is related to the accumulation of galactose-1-phosphate, a toxic metabolite that causes hepatic and renal dysfunction. Consequently, patients with GALT deficiency present early, in the neonatal period, with vomiting, jaundice, hepatomegaly, lethargy, and failure to thrive during the first few days of life due to inability to digest breast milk or formula. Both direct and indirect bilirubin levels may be elevated. Excess galactose is converted to galactitol by aldose reductase, resulting in cataracts from excess galactitol deposition in the lens.

111
Q

Asplenia

A

Single, round, blue inclusions within red blood cells (RBCs) on peripheral smear, consistent with Howell-Jolly bodies. These bodies are retained RBC nuclear remnants that are typically removed by the spleen. The presence of Howell-Jolly bodies usually indicates either physical absence of the spleen (ie, asplenia) due to congenital absence or surgical removal or functional hyposplenism due to splenic autoinfarction (eg, sickle cell disease), infiltrative disorders of the spleen (eg, sarcoidosis), or splenic congestion (eg, thrombosis).

Both asplenia and functional hyposplenism increase the risk of sepsis because the spleen is normally responsible for clearing bacteria, particularly encapsulated organisms. However, splenectomy may be indicated in cases of chronic hemolysis.

112
Q

Systemic glucocorticoids

A

Glucocorticoid use causes a leukocytosis due to the following:

Mobilization of marginated neutrophils into the bloodstream (predominant mechanism): Marginated neutrophils are attached to the endothelium of blood vessels; glucocorticoid-induced mobilization of these neutrophils leads to a higher number of circulating neutrophils

Stimulation of release of immature neutrophils from the bone marrow (as evidenced by the 3% band forms in this patient)

Inhibition of neutrophil apoptosis

In contrast, glucocorticoids decrease the number of circulating lymphocytes and eosinophils through a combination of increased apoptosis, increased emigration into the tissues, and decreased production.

113
Q

Acquired Angioedema

A

ACE inhibitors are the most common cause of acquired angioedema. Patients present with edema in the face, mouth, lips, tongue, glottis and larynx. Laryngeal edema can cause airway obstruction and be life threatening. Angioedema occurs due to the pro-inflammatory action of bradykinin, which promotes edema, inflammation and the sensation of pain. Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) is also known as kininase; it functions to degrade bradykinin. When ACE is inhibited, levels of bradykinin increase, thereby leading to angioedema.

ACE inhibitors are usually started on the first post-infarction day in non-hypotensive patients, and patients typically present with angioedema within days to weeks after starting therapy (as in this patient). However, it is important to note that angioedema from ACE inhibitors can occur at ANYTIME, not just within weeks of starting the medication. The first step in management of angioedema is to check for airway compromise and vasomotor instability, which require subcutaneous epinephrine administration if present. If airway obstruction fails to respond to epinephrine, an emergency tracheostomy is done. The ACE-inhibitor should be stopped immediately.

114
Q

🧫 Smear Cell Types

A

Basophilic stippling represents ribosomal precipitates that appear as blue granules of various sizes dispersed throughout the cytoplasm of red blood cells. It is seen with thalassemias as well as lead or heavy metal poisoning.

Burr cells (also known as echinocytes) are spiculated appearing red blood cells (RBCs) with serrated edges that can be seen in liver disease and end-stage renal disease (ESRD).

Heinz bodies, which appear as small inclusions within an erythrocyte, are aggregates of denatured hemoglobin and are commonly seen in patients with hemolysis due to glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency and thalassemia. When phagocytes extract this rigid precipitate, they form characteristic bite cells.

Helmet cells, or schistocytes, are fragmented red blood cells. Their presence suggests traumatic microangiopathic hemolytic conditions such as disseminated intravascular coagulation, hemolytic uremic syndrome, and thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura.

Howell-Jolly (HJ) bodies are basophilic remnants of the nucleus that appear as small, black pellets in RBCs. They are seen in patients with a history of splenectomy or functional asplenia. HJ bodies are not seen in healthy individuals as a normal spleen efficiently removes them.

Spur cells (acanthocytes) are RBCs with irregularly sized and spaced projections that are most commonly seen in liver disease.

Target cells are red blood cells with a central density surrounded by pallor (bull’s eye appearance). They are usually seen in patients with hemoglobinopathies (eg, thalassemia) or chronic liver disease (especially obstructive liver disease).

115
Q

Splenectomy

A

Encapsulated organisms such as S pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, and Neisseria meningitidis have a polysaccharide exterior that conceals antigenic epitopes and resists innate phagocytosis. Therefore, these pathogens are largely eliminated via the humoral immune response with antibody-mediated phagocytosis (opsonization) and antibody-mediated complement activation. Much of this is dependent on splenic macrophages and the generation of splenic opsonizing antibodies. As such, patients with asplenia are at high risk for fulminant infection with encapsulated organisms.

💉These patients should be immunized with pneumococcal, meningococcal, and H influenzae type B vaccines and take oral antibiotics early in the course of any febrile illness.

116
Q

methemoglobinemia

A

History

  • Exposure to oxidizing substances (eg, dapsone, nitrites,
  • local/topical anesthetic)

Clinical examination

  • Cyanosis
  • Pulse oximetry saturation ~85%
  • Dark chocolate-colored blood

Laboratory findings

  • Saturation gap (>5% difference between oxygen saturation on pulse oximetry & ABG)
  • Normal PaO2

Methemoglobinemia is an uncommon complication that can occur after excessive exposure to an oxidizing agent (eg, dapsone, nitrites, local/topical anesthetics) and results in cyanosis. Additional clinical features may include lethargy, respiratory depression, seizures, and death. In normal hemoglobin, iron is in the ferrous (Fe2+) state. When exposed to an oxidizing agent, at least one of the four iron molecules is oxidized to the ferric (Fe3+) state, resulting in acute methemoglobinemia. Ferric iron is unable to bind oxygen; in addition, the ferric state changes the hemoglobin structure and causes ferrous sites to have an increased affinity for oxygen (ie, “left shift” on oxygen-dissociation curve). The increased oxygen affinity prevents oxygen release in peripheral tissues (ie, decreased oxygen delivery).

Because methemoglobin absorbs light at a different wavelength than hemoglobin, patients have pulse oximetry readings of ~85% regardless of the true oxygen saturation level. Supplemental oxygen has no effect on the altered methemoglobin structure; therefore, it does not improve cyanosis, blood color, or pulse oximetry readings. In contrast, arterial blood gas testing analyzes only unbound arterial oxygen (as opposed to hemoglobin-bound oxygen) and displays a falsely elevated oxygen saturation level, shown as normal PaO2.

Tx: The antidote for acquired symptomatic methemoglobinemia or high levels of methemoglobin (as measured by co-oximetry) is methylene blue. Methylene blue acts as an electron acceptor for NADPH and is reduced to leucomethylene blue, which in turn reduces methemoglobin to hemoglobin. High-dose ascorbic acid (vitamin C) acts as a reducing agent and can be used when methylene blue is unavailable or contraindicated (eg, glucose-6-phosphate deficiency).

117
Q

Febrile neutropenia

A

Neutropenia is defined as an absolute neutrophil count (ANC) <1500/µL (severe neutropenia is ANC <500/µL). Patients with ANC <1000/µL are at higher risk for overwhelming bacterial infection due to an absent or blunted neutrophil-mediated inflammatory response. Chemotherapy may also lead to disruption of the skin and mucosal barrier of the mouth and gastrointestinal tract, resulting in mucositis and subsequent translocation of the bacteria into the bloodstream. Gram-negative organisms, particularly Pseudomonas aeruginosa, are most frequently identified. Gram-positive infections are also common and increasing in frequency.

Febrile neutropenia is a medical emergency, and starting early empiric antibiotic therapy can avoid progression of infection to severe sepsis and life-threatening complications. Initial evaluation includes blood and urine cultures, followed by immediate intravenous broad-spectrum antibiotics. Monotherapy with an anti-pseudomonal beta-lactam agent (eg, cefepime, meropenem, piperacillin-tazobactam) provides both gram-negative and gram-positive coverage and is recommended initially.

118
Q

Lymphadenopathy

A

The location of the lymphadenopathy can be a helpful predictor of the likelihood of a pathologic versus benign cause. Specifically, whereas mediastinal, supraclavicular, and abdominal lymphadenopathy have a greater likelihood of a pathologic cause, cervical, axillary, and inguinal lymphadenopathy have a greater likelihood of a benign cause.

Size can be a helpful predictor of whether lymphadenopathy is benign or pathological, lymph nodes <2 cm frequently are from benign causes, and those ≥2 cm are more likely to be associated with a pathological cause.

Most infectious and immunologic causes of lymphadenopathy resolve within 2 weeks, and persistence for less than 2 weeks is reassuring for a benign cause of lymphadenopathy. If a benign cause of lymphadenopathy is suspected, an observation period of at least 4 weeks is considered appropriate before pursuing additional diagnostic studies.

119
Q

Metastases

A

Squamous cell carcinoma in a cervical lymph node, especially in a smoker, likely has a mucosal head and neck primary site and requires examination of the laryngopharyngeal mucosa.

Abdominal malignancies (eg, stomach, pancreas, colon, ovaries) can spread via the thoracic duct to the left supraclavicular lymph nodes (Virchow node)—an ominous sign. Most of these abdominal malignancies are adenocarcinomas.

Breast cancer commonly affects the axillary and internal mammary lymph nodes.

HCC typically metastasizes to the lungs, portal vein, and portal lymph nodes.

Thyroid cancer metastasizes to cervical nodes. Cancers are papillary,

Gastrointestinal malignancies, such as colorectal or pancreatic cancer, are the most frequent source of liver metastases as their venous drainage is through the portal system directly to the liver. Lung, breast, and skin cancers (melanoma) often also spread to the liver. The liver is a common site of metastatic disease due to its dual blood supply (systemic and portal) and hepatic sinusoidal fenestrations allowing for easier metastatic deposition. Multiple hepatic nodules are typically seen in metastatic disease; however, solitary lesions are not uncommon.

120
Q

🔰 Immunosuppressive Drugs

A

Calcineurin inhibitors (eg, tacrolimus, cyclosporine) inhibit the transcription of IL-2 to reduce T-lymphocyte activity and are an important component of chronic immunosuppression following solid-organ transplantation. Although these drugs are generally well tolerated, they have numerous adverse effects that must be monitored. These include:

  • Nephrotoxicity: Calcineurin inhibitors have vasoconstrictive properties that can lead to reversible acute kidney injury (usually in the setting of elevated blood levels of the drug) or slowly progressive, chronic kidney injury that is typically irreversible. Associated electrolyte abnormalities are also common and include hyperkalemia and hyperuricemia with increased rates of gout.
  • Hypertension: The vasoconstrictive properties can also cause hypertension, both by triggering increased sodium retention by the kidneys and through increased arteriolar peripheral resistance.
  • Neurotoxicity: These effects may be due to low levels of vasoconstrictive cerebellar or cerebral ischemia. Tremor is a common manifestation; it can be either resting or with intention and often improves over time. Other less common and more serious effects include visual disturbance and seizures.
  • Glucose intolerance (eg, increased insulin requirements): Calcineurin inhibitors impair the secretion of insulin from pancreatic islet cells, contributing to hyperglycemia. Tacrolimus appears to have a stronger hyperglycemic effect than cyclosporine.
  • Cosmetic effects: Gingival hypertrophy (mostly with cyclosporine), hirsutism, and alopecia can occur.
  • Gastrointestinal disturbance: These effects are usually mild and can include anorexia, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea.

As with most immunosuppression drugs, calcineurin inhibitors also increase the risk of infection and malignancy (eg, squamous cell skin cancer, lymphoma).

Cyclophosphamide

An alkylating agent frequently used as an immunosuppressant in systemic lupus erythematosus, vasculitis and certain cancers. Regarding SLE, cyclophosphamide is reserved for patients with significant renal or central nervous system problems. Unfortunately, cyclophosphamide has many side effects. Serious side effects include acute hemorrhagic cystitis, bladder carcinoma, sterility, and myelosuppression. Hemorrhagic cystitis and bladder cancer are caused by acrolein, a bladder-toxic metabolite of cyclophosphamide. Drinking plenty of fluids, voiding frequently, and taking MESNA are all helpful in preventing these complications.

Azathioprine inhibits purine synthesis to impair the replication of lymphocytes and is sometimes used for chronic transplant immunosuppression. Common adverse effects include bone marrow suppression and hepatotoxicity.

Low-dose prednisone is commonly used for chronic transplant immunosuppression. Adverse effects are many and include glucose intolerance and hypertension.

121
Q

DMARD’s

A

Methotrexate

  • Folate antimetabolite
  • Hepatotoxicity
  • Stomatitis
  • Cytopenias

Leflunomide

  • Pyrimidine synthesis inhibitor
  • Hepatotoxicity
  • Cytopenias

Hydroxychloroquine

  • TNF & IL-1 suppressor
  • Retinopathy (after 5-7 years)
  • Renal toxixity (rare)

Sulfasalazine

  • TNF & IL-1 suppressor
  • Hepatotoxicity
  • Stomatitis
  • Hemolytic anemia

TNF inhibitors (eg, adalimumab, certolizumab, etanercept, golimumab, infliximab)

  • Infection
  • Demyelination
  • Congestive heart failure
  • Malignancy
122
Q

Peripheral Edema

A

Bilateral edema:

CHF (dyspnea, rales, or JVD) would necessitate a chest x-ray to rule in the diagnosis, followed by an echocardiogram.

Liver Failure: Ascities; Dx: Liver function studies are needed. If these are absent, the clinician should check an urinalysis. If the sediment is abnormal, nephritic syndrome or acute tubular necrosis (ATN) is the likely diagnosis.

Medications: Antihypertensives (ACE), such as calcium channel blockers are well known to cause this, but direct vasodilators, β-blockers, centrally acting agents, and antisympathetics also can cause edema. Of the diabetic medications, insulin sensitizers, such as rosiglitazone often cause edema. Hormones, corticosteroids, and NSAIDs also cause problems.

Unilateral Edema:

Angioedema

Hereditary:

Dx: C4 level and C1 esterase

Drug-induced:

Urticaria

Chronic spontaneous Hx:

123
Q
A