DDMetabolismExcretion Flashcards

1
Q

Phase I enzyme action

A

Often P450. Usually inserts/unmasks a functional group [mostly -OH. Also -NH2 or -SH]. This increases water solubility and also allows Phase II RXN. Phase I RXNs include oxidation; reduction; hydrolysis.

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2
Q

Phase II enzyme action (conjugation)

A

Endogenous substrate combines with pre-existing or metabolically inserted functional group (via Phase I RXN). Forms a highly water-soluble conjugate that is readily excreted. Can also precede phase I RXNs

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3
Q

Most common Phase II RXNs?

A

Glucuronidation; acetylation; glutathione/glycine/sulfate conjugation

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4
Q

What is the most common pharmacologial consequences of drug metabolism?

A

Usually a detoxifying process (turns active drug to inactive or less active compound). Sometimes also can activate or turn the drug into a toxic metabolite

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5
Q

What are examples of active drugs that become further activated with metabolism?

A

Codeine to Morphine. Hydrocodone (vicadin) to hydromorphone (dilaudid)

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6
Q

What are examples of inactive drugs (prodrugs) that become the active ingredient (designed) with metabolism?

A

Omeprazole to a sulfenamide. Enalapril to enalaprilat. Valacyclovir to acyclovir

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7
Q

What is an example of a drug that gets converted to a toxic metabolite with metabolism?

A

Acetaminophen to N-acetyl-benzoquinoneimine (hepatotoxic)

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8
Q

What are the 4 types of metabolic RXNs?

A

Oxidations; Reductions; Hydrolysis (all Phase I). Conjugations (Phase II)

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9
Q

What group of enzymes does oxidations?

A

CYP450

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10
Q

What group of enzymes does hydrolysis?

A

Esterases-Amidases

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11
Q

What group of enzymes does reduction?

A

Reductases

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12
Q

What group of enzymes does conjugations?

A

Transferases

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13
Q

Where is most cytochrome P450?

A

Liver smooth ER (aka microsomal enzymes)

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14
Q

What else is part of the oxidation system that Cytochrome P450 is involved in?

A

The cofactor NADPH; the flavoprotein NADPH-cytochrome P450 reductase; and molecular O2.

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15
Q

Amplichip CYP450 Test

A

Analyzes blood DNA to detect genetic polymorphisms in the activity of CYP2D6 and CYP2C19. Note: clinical effect depends on whether metabolism is detoxifying or activating and whether polymorphism results in increased (UM-ultra metabolizer) or decreased (PM-poor metabolizer) enzyme activity

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16
Q

CYP3A4

A

Major drug metabolizing enzyme (found in gastric mucosa)

17
Q

CYP2E1

A

Turns acetomenaphin into toxic metabolite

18
Q

CYP2D6

A

Major metabolizers of opiod analgesics; antipsychotics; antidepressants. Genetic polymorphisms

19
Q

What does CYP2D6 do to antipsychotics/antidepressants? What effects are there if you are PM? UM?

A

It detoxyfies. PMs see increased antipsychotic drug toxicity. Ums see nonresponse to antidepressants

20
Q

What does CYP2C19 do to proton pump inhibitors (for peptic ulcer disease)? What effect is there if you are a PM?

A

It activates PPIs. PMs have decreased efficacy of PPIs

21
Q

What effect does CYP2D6 do to codeine? What effect is seen with PMs? With UMs?

A

CYP2D6 activates codeine. PMs have insufficient analgesia with codeine due to failure to metabolize to morphine. UMs have condeine intoxication due to rapid metabolism to morphine

22
Q

Which enzymes are more saturable/in limited supply (phase I or II enzymes)? Why?

A

Phase II enzymes in limited supply and RXN more easily saturable. B/C drug is conjugated to endogenous biochemical unit (highly reactive) provided by a coenzyme

23
Q

Products of Phase II are usually�

A

highly water-soluble and readily excreted

24
Q

Glucoronidation - type of enzymes

A

Glucoronyl transferases. Present in liver; kidney; GI tract. Inducible (but not to the extent as CYP450 enzymes)

25
Q

Enterohepatic recirculation

A

Some intenstinal bacteria can hydrolyze the glucoronides (drug+conjugate from Phase II) and put the free drug back into circulation. Drug gets secreted by liver into bile as drug-conjugate and then bacteria in intestine cut the glucoronides. May be source of drug interactions (antibiotics and oral contraceptives)

26
Q

Enzyme induction

A

Quantitative (or qualitative) increase in activity in response to certain compounds. Mainly due to increased synthesis of enzyme protein (decreased turnover also occurs). Generally requires 48-72 hrs to see onset

27
Q

Is Phase I or Phase II more susceptible to induction?

A

Mostly CYP450 enzymes (some forms of phase II enzymes also).

28
Q

What is induction/inhibition analagous to?

A

Poor metabolizers/ultra metabolizers. Both mostly effect Phase I. Clinical effects depend on whether metabolic RXN in inactivating or activating

29
Q

Therapeutic consequences of induction

A

Sometimes see drugs having effects on their own metabolism. Also can have clinical implications of resulting drug interactions. (Reduced therapeutic effect if inactivation accelerated; increased toxicity if activation is accelerated; increased toxicity if toxic metabolite produced)

30
Q

Clinically relevant inducers (7)

A

Phenobarbital; phenytoin; carbamazepine; rifampin; ethanol; St.John’s Wort; Tobacco smoke

31
Q

Clinically relevant inhibitors (7)

A

Cimetidine; erythromycin/clarithromycin; azole antifungals; fluoxetine (other SSRIs); Grapefruit juice; HIV protease inhibitors; omeprazole

32
Q

Is Phase I or Phase II more likely to be saturated?

A

Phase II

33
Q

1st order kinetics vs. zero order kinetics

A

At low doses drug metabolism is 1st order (proportional to the drug dose. As dose goes up; so does rate of metabolism). At high doses drug metabolism is zero order (rate is constant and independent of the drug dose)

34
Q

What most often causes zero order kinetics/saturation

A

Most often due to saturation of hepatic metabolic processes (phase II). Unlikely to occur with renal excretory processes

35
Q

P-glycoproteins

A

Transports that play a role in elimination of things from cells (including drugs). AKA MDR1 gene - member of ABC family of transporters (ATP binding cassettes). When they remove things from cells at sites of entry (GI tract) they decrease absorption. At sites of exit (liver-kidney) they enhance elimination

36
Q

What do inhibitors/inducers of p-glycoproteins do?

A

Inhibitors increase plamsa levels of drug substrates. Inducers decrease plasma levels