DCICT - CCNA DC test 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Q1) Which of these data center-related components typically would not be used in the SAN infrastructure design? (Source: Examining Cisco Data Center Functional Layers)

A) access
B) aggregation
C) core
D) collapsed core

A

Q1) Which of these data center-related components typically would not be used in the SAN infrastructure design? (Source: Examining Cisco Data Center Functional Layers)

B) aggregation,
slide 40 shows the typical Core-Edge SAN design

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2
Q

Q2) Which type of flow control is used in the SAN environment? (Source: Examining Cisco Data Center Functional Layers)

A) Credit-based flow control is used.
B) The sender controls when frames are sent.
C) Flow control is not required.
D) Sliding window-based flow control is used.

A

Q2) Which type of flow control is used in the SAN environment? (Source: Examining Cisco Data Center Functional Layers)

A) Credit-based flow control is used.
FibreChannel uses a credit-based strategy.
slide 26

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3
Q

Q3) FCoE is part of which main component of the data center architecture? (Source: Examining Cisco Data Center Functional Layers)

A) virtualization
B) unified fabric
C) unified computing
D) unified data center

A

Q3) FCoE is part of which main component of the data center architecture? (Source: Examining Cisco Data Center Functional Layers)

B) unified fabric
There are two primary approaches to deploying a unified data center fabric: Fibre Channel over Ethernet (FCoE) and Internet Small Computer Systems Interface (iSCSI). Both are supported on the unified fabric, which provides a reliable 10 Gigabit Ethernet foundation.
slide 32

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4
Q

Q4) Which of these provides the most efficient use of ports in a SAN infrastructure because fewer or no ports are consumed for ISLs? (Source: Examining Cisco Data Center Functional Layers)

A) core-edge
B) multitier
C) collapsed aggregation
D) collapsed core

A

Q4) Which of these provides the most efficient use of ports in a SAN infrastructure because fewer or no ports are consumed for ISLs? (Source: Examining Cisco Data Center Functional Layers)

D) collapsed core
The main advantage of this topology is the degree of scalability that is offered at a very efficient effective port usage. The collapsed-core design aims to offer very high port density while eliminating a separate physical layer of switches and their associated ISLs.
slide 43

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5
Q

Q5) Which Cisco Nexus product supports unified ports? (Source: Reviewing the Cisco Nexus Product Family)

A) Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches
B) Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches
C) Cisco Nexus 5500 Platform switches
D) Cisco Nexus 2000 Series Fabric Extenders

A

Q5) Which Cisco Nexus product supports unified ports? (Source: Reviewing the Cisco Nexus Product Family)

C) Cisco Nexus 5500 Platform switches
The initial release of the Cisco Nexus 5500 Platform switches was the Cisco Nexus 5548P Switch, which was followed by the release of the Cisco Nexus 5548UP Switch, supporting unified ports.
slide 81

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6
Q

Q6) Which product supports a front-to-back airflow to address the requirements for hot- aisle and cold-aisle deployments without additional complexity? (Source: Reviewing the Cisco Nexus Product Family)

A) Cisco Nexus 9-Slot Switch
B) Cisco Nexus 10-Slot Switch
C) Cisco Nexus 18-Slot Switch
D) Cisco Nexus 3000 Series Switch

A

Q6) Which product supports a front-to-back airflow to address the requirements for hot- aisle and cold-aisle deployments without additional complexity? (Source: Reviewing the Cisco Nexus Product Family)

B) Cisco Nexus 10-Slot Switch
The 10-slot chassis has front-to-back airflow, making it a good solution for hot aisle and cold aisle deployments.
slide 50

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7
Q

Q7) Which license is required to support VDCs on the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches? (Source: Reviewing the Cisco Nexus Product Family)

A) Base license
B) Enterprise license
C) Advanced LAN Enterprise license
D) Scalable Services license

A

Q7) Which license is required to support VDCs on the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches? (Source: Reviewing the Cisco Nexus Product Family)

C) The Advanced LAN Enterprise License enables next- generation functions such as VDCs and the Cisco TrustSec solution.
slide 59

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8
Q

Q8) How many ports are there on the Cisco Nexus 7000 40 Gigabit Ethernet module? (Source: Reviewing the Cisco Nexus Product Family) 


A) 2
B) 4
C) 6
D) 8

A

Q8) How many ports are there on the Cisco Nexus 7000 40 Gigabit Ethernet module? (Source: Reviewing the Cisco Nexus Product Family) 


C) 6
The first two Cisco Nexus 7000 M2-Series I/O modules are the Cisco Nexus 7000 M2-Series 6- Port 40 Gigabit Ethernet Module and the Cisco Nexus 7000 M2-Series 2-port 100 Gigabit Ethernet module.
slide 65

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9
Q

Q9) Which power supply redundancy mode provides grid redundancy only? (Source: Reviewing the Cisco Nexus Product Family)

A) combined
B) power supply and input source redundancy
C) power supply redundancy
D) input source redundancy

A

Q9) Which power supply redundancy mode provides grid redundancy only? (Source: Reviewing the Cisco Nexus Product Family)

D) input source redundancy
slide 70

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10
Q

Q10) How many expansion slots are there for the Cisco Nexus 5548 Switch? (Source: Reviewing the Cisco Nexus Product Family)


A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4

A

Q10) How many expansion slots are there for the Cisco Nexus 5548 Switch? (Source: Reviewing the Cisco Nexus Product Family)


A) 1 GEM2 expansion slot
slide 81

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11
Q

Q11) How many ports on the Cisco Nexus 5010 Switch support 1 Gb/s connectivity on the base module? (Source: Reviewing the Cisco Nexus Product Family) 


A) 4
B) 8
C) 12
D) 16

A

Q11) How many ports on the Cisco Nexus 5010 Switch support 1 Gb/s connectivity on the base module? (Source: Reviewing the Cisco Nexus Product Family) 


B) 8
 Support for 1 Gigabit Ethernet on the first eight ports if required
slide 74

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12
Q

Q12) How many Cisco Nexus 2000 Series Fabric Extenders can be connected to a Cisco Nexus 5500 Platform switch with no Layer 3 daughter card or expansion module? (Source: Reviewing the Cisco Nexus Product Family)


A) 8
B) 12
C) 24
D) 32

A

Q12) How many Cisco Nexus 2000 Series Fabric Extenders can be connected to a Cisco Nexus 5500 Platform switch with no Layer 3 daughter card or expansion module? (Source: Reviewing the Cisco Nexus Product Family)

C) 24
Supports up to 8 fabric extenders (FEXs) with L3 daughter card
slide 74 and 84 and 103 (contradictory data)

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13
Q

Q13) Which product has a fixed module and one slot for an I/O module? (Source: Reviewing the Cisco MDS Product Family)

A) Cisco MDS 9148 Multilayer Fabric Switch
B) Cisco MDS 9506 Multilayer Director Switch
C) Cisco MDS 9124 Multilayer Fabric Switch
D) Cisco MDS 9222i Multiservice Modular Switch

A

Q13) Which product has a fixed module and one slot for an I/O module? (Source: Reviewing the Cisco MDS Product Family)

D)  The Cisco MDS 9222i Multiservice Modular Switch is a semimodular switch with one fixed module and a flexible slot for any available I/O module. 
slide 129
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14
Q

Q14) Which supervisor module meets the minimum requirements that are required to support FCoE on the Cisco MDS 9000 Series Switches? (Source: Reviewing the Cisco MDS Product Family)

A) Supervisor-3
B) Supervisor-2A
C) Supervisor-2
D) Supervisor-1

A

Q14) Which supervisor module meets the minimum requirements that are required to support FCoE on the Cisco MDS 9000 Series Switches? (Source: Reviewing the Cisco MDS Product Family)

B) Supervisor-2A introduces FCoE support in the chassis of the Cisco MDS 9500 Series Multilayer Directors.
slide 114

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15
Q

Q15) What is the total aggregate bandwidth that is provided on the Cisco MDS 9513 Multilayer Director switch? (Source: Reviewing the Cisco MDS Product Family)

A) 760 Gb/s
B) 1.1 Tb/s
C) 2.2 Tb/s
D) 4.1 Tb/s

A

Q15) What is the total aggregate bandwidth that is provided on the Cisco MDS 9513 Multilayer Director switch? (Source: Reviewing the Cisco MDS Product Family)

C) Up to 2.2-Tb/s aggregate internal bandwidth on the Cisco MDS 9513 Multilayer Director switch
slide 110

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16
Q

Q16) For how many days may licensed features be evaluated on the Cisco MDS Series switch? (Source: Reviewing the Cisco MDS Product Family)

A) 120
B) 90
C) 60
D) 30

A

Q16) For how many days may licensed features be evaluated on the Cisco MDS Series switch? (Source: Reviewing the Cisco MDS Product Family)

A) 120, All licensed features may be evaluated for up to 120 days before a license is required.
slide 120

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17
Q

Q17) How many ports are enabled in the port-based license on a Cisco MDS 9124 Multilayer Fabric Switch? (Source: Reviewing Cisco MDS Product Family)

A) 4
B) 8
C) 16
D) 24

A

Q17) How many ports are enabled in the port-based license on a Cisco MDS 9124 Multilayer Fabric Switch? (Source: Reviewing Cisco MDS Product Family)

B)  8 
• 24 line-rate 4-Gb/s Fibre Channel ports
• 8-port base configuration
• 8-port incremental licensing
• NPV and NPIV support
slide 127
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18
Q

Q18) Which management port on the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches provides lights-out RMON and management without the need for separate terminal servers? (Source: Monitoring the Cisco Nexus 7000 and 5000 Series Switches)

A) console port
B) management 0 port
C) any physical interface
D) CMP

A

Q18) Which management port on the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches provides lights-out RMON and management without the need for separate terminal servers? (Source: Monitoring the Cisco Nexus 7000 and 5000 Series Switches)

D) The connectivity management processor (CMP) enables lights-out Remote Monitoring (RMON) and management of the supervisor module, all other modules, and the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series system without the need for separate terminal servers.
slide 136

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19
Q

Q19) Which command would be used to connect to the CMP from the control processor on a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series switch? (Source: Monitoring the Cisco Nexus 7000 and 5000 Series Switches)

A) switch# attach cmp
B) switch# connect cmp
C) switch# cmp attach
D) switch# cmp connect

A

Q19) Which command would be used to connect to the CMP from the control processor on a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series switch? (Source: Monitoring the Cisco Nexus 7000 and 5000 Series Switches)

A) switch# attach cmp (~, to exit/detach)
You can access the connectivity management processor (CMP) from the active supervisor module. Before you begin, ensure that you are in the default virtual device context (VDC).
slide 137

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20
Q

Q20) Which command would be used to identify the impact of an ISSU event? (Source: Monitoring the Cisco Nexus 7000 and 5000 Series Switches)

A) switch# show all install impact
B) switch# show install all
C) switch# show impact install all
D) switch# show install all impact

A

Q20) Which command would be used to identify the impact of an ISSU event? (Source: Monitoring the Cisco Nexus 7000 and 5000 Series Switches)

D) switch# show install all impact
This command allows the administrator to determine which components of the system will be affected by the upgrade before performing the upgrade of the Cisco NX-OS Software.
slide 145

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21
Q

Q21) Which command is a valid command for viewing the details of a 10-Gigabit Ethernet interface? (Source: Monitoring the Cisco Nexus 7000 and 5000 Series Switches)

A) switch# show interface Gigabit Ethernet 1/3
B) switch# show interface 10Gigabit Ethernet 1/3
C) switch# show interface Ethernet 1/3
D) switch# show interface

A

Q21) Which command is a valid command for viewing the details of a 10-Gigabit Ethernet interface? (Source: Monitoring the Cisco Nexus 7000 and 5000 Series Switches)

C) switch# show interface Ethernet 1/3

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22
Q

Q22) Which of these best describes the function of Cisco Fabric Services in a vPC domain? (Source: Describing vPCs and Cisco FabricPath in the Data Center)

A) synchronizes vPC control plane information
B) synchronizes vPC data plane information
C) synchronizes vPC control and data plane information
D) assists in the election of the vpc primary switch

A

Q22) Which of these best describes the function of Cisco Fabric Services in a vPC domain? (Source: Describing vPCs and Cisco FabricPath in the Data Center)

A)  Cisco Fabric Services is used to synchronize vPC control plane information:
- MAC address learning
- IGMP snooping
- Configuration consistency checking 
- vPC member port status
- ARP cache
slide 181
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23
Q

Q23) Which command would you use to verify the status of configured virtual port channels on the switch? (Source: Describing vPCs and Cisco FabricPath in the Data Center) 


A) switch# show vpc summary
B) switch# show vpc brief

C) switch# show vpc database
D) switch# show vpc global

A

Q23) Which command would you use to verify the status of configured virtual port channels on the switch? (Source: Describing vPCs and Cisco FabricPath in the Data Center) 


B) switch# show vpc brief

displays the following operational information:
 vPC domain ID
 Peer-link status
 Keepalive message status
 Status of the successful configuration consistency
 Status of whether the peer link is formed
 Status of the individual vPCs that are configured on the switch (including the result of the consistency checks)
slide 185

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24
Q

Q24) Which link is used in a virtual port channel to create the illusion of a single control plane? (Source: Describing vPCs and Cisco FabricPath in the Data Center)

A) vPC peer
B) vPC peer keepalive
C) vPC peer link
D) vPC link

A

Q24) Which link is used in a virtual port channel to create the illusion of a single control plane? (Source: Describing vPCs and Cisco FabricPath in the Data Center)

C) The vPC peer link is the most important connectivity element in the vPC system. This link creates the illusion of a single control plane by forwarding bridge protocol data units (BPDUs) and Link Aggregation Control Protocol (LACP) packets to the primary vPC switch from the secondary vPC switch.
slide 177

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25
Q

Q25) Which command would be used to find specific parameters that caused a consistency check to fail during a vPC configuration? (Source: vPCs and Cisco FabricPath in the Data Center)

A) switch# show vpc interface
B) switch# show vpc global
C) switch# show vpc brief
D) switch# show vpc consistency-parameters global

A

Q25) Which command would be used to find specific parameters that caused a consistency check to fail during a vPC configuration? (Source: vPCs and Cisco FabricPath in the Data Center)

D) switch# show vpc consistency-parameters global
slide 186

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26
Q

Q26) Cisco FabricPath provides ECMP capabilities. How many ECMP paths does it support? (Source: Describing vPCs and Cisco FabricPath in the Data Center) 


A) 4
B) 6
C) 8
D) 16

A

Q26) Cisco FabricPath provides ECMP capabilities. How many ECMP paths does it support? (Source: Describing vPCs and Cisco FabricPath in the Data Center) 


D) 16
Because Equal-Cost Multipath (ECMP) can be used at the data plane, the network can use all the links that are available between any two devices. The first-generation hardware supporting Cisco FabricPath can perform 16-way ECMP, which, when combined with 16-port 10-Gb/s port channels, represents a potential bandwidth of 2.56 Tb/s between switches.
slide 191

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27
Q

Q27) Which protocol is used as the control protocol for Cisco FabricPath? (Source: Describing vPCs and Cisco FabricPath in the Data Center)

A) Layer 2 IS-IS
B) Layer 3 IS-IS
C) Layers 2 and 3 IS-IS
D) IS-IS

A

Q27) Which protocol is used as the control protocol for Cisco FabricPath? (Source: Describing vPCs and Cisco FabricPath in the Data Center)

A) Layer 2 IS-IS
slide 192

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28
Q

Q1) How many VDCs are supported on a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series switch? (Source: Virtualizing Network Devices) 


A) 4
B) 3
C) 2
D) 1

A

Q1) How many VDCs are supported on a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series switch? (Source: Virtualizing Network Devices) 


A) 4, The use of VDCs currently allows one Cisco Nexus 7000 Series switch to be partitioned into as many as 4 logical switches: the default VDC and three additional VDCs.
slide 236

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29
Q

Q2) Which two features can be configured only in the default VDC? (Choose two.) (Source: Virtualizing Network Devices)

A)  VLANs 
B)  CoPP 
C)  VDC resource allocation 
D)  VRFs 
E)  management IP address
A

Q2) Which two features can be configured only in the default VDC? (Choose two.) (Source: Virtualizing Network Devices)

B) CoPP
C) VDC resource allocation
Systemwide parameters such as Control Plane Policing (CoPP), VDC resource allocation, and Network Time Protocol (NTP) may be configured from the default VDC.
slide 236

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30
Q

Q3) Which ports comprise a port group on the N7K-M132XP-12 module? (Source: Virtualizing Network Devices)

A) 1–4
B) 1–8
C) 1, 3, 5, and 7
D) 1 and 2

A

Q3) Which ports comprise a port group on the N7K-M132XP-12 module? (Source: Virtualizing Network Devices)

C) 1, 3, 5, and 7
Interfaces on the 32-port N7K-M132XP-12 and F1 and F2 I/O modules must be assigned to VDCs on a per-port group basis.
- On the N7K-M132XP-12 module,a port group consists of 4 consecutive odd or even ports.
slide 239

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31
Q

Q4) Which command do you use to move from the default VDC to a nondefault VDC on the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series switch? (Source: Virtualizing Network Devices)

A) changeto vdc
B) moveto vdc
C) skipto vdc
D) switchto vdc

A

Q4) Which command do you use to move from the default VDC to a nondefault VDC on the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series switch? (Source: Virtualizing Network Devices)

D) switchto vdc NAME (switchback)
slide 246

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32
Q

Q5) How many days are available in the grace license period on the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series switch? (Source: Virtualizing Network Devices)

A) 180
B) 120
C) 90
D) 60

A

Q5) How many days are available in the grace license period on the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series switch? (Source: Virtualizing Network Devices)

B) 120

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33
Q

Q6) Which command must you enable in the default VDC on a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series switch to enable a Cisco Nexus 2000 Fabric Extender to be attached and configured in a nondefault VDC? (Source: Virtualizing Network Devices)

A) feature-set fex
B) feature fex
C) install feature fex
D) install feature-set fex

A

Q6) Which command must you enable in the default VDC on a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series switch to enable a Cisco Nexus 2000 Fabric Extender to be attached and configured in a nondefault VDC? (Source: Virtualizing Network Devices)

D) install feature-set fex
Before any FEX can be configured in any VDC, the services that the FEX feature requires must be installed in the default VDC. After the FEX feature set has been installed in the default VDC, you can enable the feature set in any VDC by using the feature-set fex command.
slide 257

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34
Q

Q7) In which mode are interfaces that connect to the Cisco Nexus 2000 Fabric Extender listed in the show interface brief command on a Cisco Nexus 5000 or 7000 Series switch? (Source: Virtualizing Network Devices)

A) fabric
B) access
C) trunking
D) host

A

Q7) In which mode are interfaces that connect to the Cisco Nexus 2000 Fabric Extender listed in the show interface brief command on a Cisco Nexus 5000 or 7000 Series switch? (Source: Virtualizing Network Devices)

A) fabric

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35
Q

Q8) Which feature do you configure on storage arrays to provide basic LUN-level security? (Source: Virtualizing Storage)

A) LUN masking
B) LUN mapping
C) LUN zoning
D) LUN access control

A

Q8) Which feature do you configure on storage arrays to provide basic LUN-level security? (Source: Virtualizing Storage)

A) LUN masking, a feature of enterprise storage arrays, provides basic LUN-level security by allowing LUNs to be seen only by selected servers that are identified by their port world wide name (pWWN).
slide 268

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36
Q

Q9) Which form of server virtualization simulates some, but not all, of the hardware environment? (Source: Virtualizing Server Solutions)

A) partial virtualization
B) paravirtualization
C) full virtualization
D) host virtualization

A

Q9) Which form of server virtualization simulates some, but not all, of the hardware environment? (Source: Virtualizing Server Solutions)

A) partial virtualization
When some (but not all) of the hardware environment is simulated, certain guest software might need to be modified to run in the environment.
slide 287

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37
Q

Q10) Which feature requires VMware vCenter Server? (Source: Virtualizing Server Solutions)

A) NIC teaming
B) vSwitch
C) port groups
D) vDS

A

Q10) Which feature requires VMware vCenter Server? (Source: Virtualizing Server Solutions)

D) vNetwork Distributed Switch (vDS) was introduced by VMware vSphere 4. With vDS, multiple vSwitches within an ESX or ESXi cluster can be configured from a central point.
slide 313

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38
Q

Q11) How many VSMs can be installed in the Cisco Nexus 1000V virtual chassis? (Source: Using the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch) 


A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4

A

Q11) How many VSMs can be installed in the Cisco Nexus 1000V virtual chassis? (Source: Using the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch) 


B) 2 
• Virtual chassis is a logical representation of Cisco Nexus 1000V and contains up to:
- 2 VSMs
- 64 VEMs
- Virtual service blades
slide 330
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39
Q

Q12) How many VEMs does the Cisco Nexus 1000V virtual chassis support? (Source: Using the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch)

A) 128
B) 64
C) 32
D) 16

A

Q12) How many VEMs does the Cisco Nexus 1000V virtual chassis support? (Source: Using the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch)

B)  64 
• Virtual chassis is a logical representation of Cisco Nexus 1000V and contains up to:
- 2 VSMs
- 64 VEMs
- Virtual service blades
slide 330
40
Q

Q13) What defines a logical group of ports with the same configuration as on the VMware vCenter Server? (Source: Using the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch)

A) port profiles
B) network connection policy
C) port groups
D) group policies

A

Q13) What defines a logical group of ports with the same configuration as on the VMware vCenter Server? (Source: Using the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch)

C) port groups
In vCenter Server, the port profile is represented as a port group. Both virtual and physical interfaces are assigned in vCenter Server to a port profile and perform these functions:
 Define port configuration by policy
 Apply a single policy across a large number of ports
 Support both virtual Ethernet and Ethernet ports
slide 333

41
Q

Q14) What is the maximum number of network ports that can be assigned to a VMware vSwitch? (Source: Using the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch)

A) 64
B) 32
C) 16
D) 8

A

Q14) What is the maximum number of network ports that can be assigned to a VMware vSwitch? (Source: Using the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch)

B) 32
Zero, one, or multiple (as many as 32) network ports can be assigned to a vSwitch. If more ports exist than are assigned, the result is both greater bandwidth and reliability.
slide 306

42
Q

Q15) Which method is preferred for installing the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series switch? (Source: Verifying Setup and Operation of the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch)

A) OVA file
B) OVF file
C) manual installation
D) ISO file

A

Q15) Which method is preferred for installing the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series switch? (Source: Verifying Setup and Operation of the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch)

A) Open Virtualization Appliance (OVA) file is preferred

43
Q

Q16) Which is the first slot in which a VEM is installed on the Cisco Nexus 1000V virtual chassis? (Source: Verifying Setup and Operation of the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch)


A) 3
B) 2
C) 3 or 2
D) 1

A

Q16) Which is the first slot in which a VEM is installed on the Cisco Nexus 1000V virtual chassis? (Source: Verifying Setup and Operation of the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch)


A) 3
Slots 1 and 2 are reserved for VSMs. New host VEMs start from slot 3.
slide 344

44
Q

Q17) Which three port groups need to be configured on vCenter to support the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series switch? (Source: Verifying Setup and Operation of the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch)

A) management, control, packet
B) management, control, data
C) control, packet, data
D) control, packet, default

A

Q17) Which three port groups need to be configured on vCenter to support the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series switch? (Source: Verifying Setup and Operation of the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch)

A) Management, control, packet port groups are required to provide connectivity between vCenter, the VSM, and the VEMs.
slide 346

45
Q

Q18) On which two devices can you install a Cisco Nexus 1000V Series switch? (Choose two.) (Source: Verifying Setup and Operation of the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch)

A) desktop computer
B) standalone server
C) VM
D) Cisco Nexus 1010 appliance

A

Q18) On which two devices can you install a Cisco Nexus 1000V Series switch? (Choose two.) (Source: Verifying Setup and Operation of the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch)

C) VM
D) Cisco Nexus 1010 appliance
The VSM can reside on a VM or a Cisco Nexus 1010 appliance.
slide 328

46
Q

Q1) Which two protocols are file-based? (Choose two.) (Source: Comparing Storage- Connectivity Options in the Data Center)

A)  CIFS 
B)  Fibre Channel 
C)  SCSI 
D)  NFS 
E)  iSCSI
A

Q1) Which two protocols are file-based? (Choose two.) (Source: Comparing Storage- Connectivity Options in the Data Center)

A) CIFS
D) NFS
CIFS and NFS are file-based protocols used for reading and writing files across a network.
• CIFS is used primarily on Windows servers.
- Samba service implements CIFS on UNIX systems.
• NFS is used primarily on UNIX and Linux servers.
slide 10

47
Q

Q2) Which protocol is used primarily on UNIX or Linux operating systems to provide access to remote storage devices? (Source: Comparing Storage-Connectivity Options in the Data Center) 


A) CIFS

B) Fibre Channel
C) TCP/IP

D) NFS

A

Q2) Which protocol is used primarily on UNIX or Linux operating systems to provide access to remote storage devices? (Source: Comparing Storage-Connectivity Options in the Data Center) 


D) NFS
CIFS and NFS are file-based protocols used for reading and writing files across a network.
• CIFS is used primarily on Windows servers.
- Samba service implements CIFS on UNIX systems.
• NFS is used primarily on UNIX and Linux servers.
slide 10

48
Q

Q3) At which layer of the OSI protocol stack does NFS reside? (Source: Comparing Storage-Connectivity Options in the Data Center)

A) Layer 7
B) Layer 6
C) Layer 5
D) Layer 4

A

Q3) At which layer of the OSI protocol stack does NFS reside? (Source: Comparing Storage-Connectivity Options in the Data Center)

A) NFS is a service that resides at the application layer (Layer 7) of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) protocol stack. Similar to the way that network nodes communicate with one another based on the seven-layer architecture, NFS uses an interprocess communication method that is called a remote procedure call (RPC).
slide 14

49
Q

Q4) How many devices can be daisy-chained on a parallel SCSI bus? (Source: Comparing Storage-Connectivity Options in the Data Center) 


A) 4
B) 8
C) 16
D) 32

A

Q4) How many devices can be daisy-chained on a parallel SCSI bus? (Source: Comparing Storage-Connectivity Options in the Data Center) 


C) 16
The parallel SCSI specification contains these elements:  Bus length of as much as 82 feet (25 m)
 Shared channel bandwidth of as much as 320 MB/s  As many as 16 devices per SCSI bus
 Half-duplex operation
slide 20

50
Q

Q5) A word is the smallest unit of data that Fibre Channel uses. How many bits does a word consist of? (Source: Comparing Storage-Connectivity Options in the Data Center)

A) 16
B) 32
C) 64
D) 128

A

Q5) A word is the smallest unit of data that Fibre Channel uses. How many bits does a word consist of? (Source: Comparing Storage-Connectivity Options in the Data Center)

B) The smallest unit of data is a word. Words consist of 32 bits (4 bytes) of data that are encoded into a 40-bit form by the 8-bit/10-bit encoding process.
slide 26

51
Q

Q6) How many sequences make up a single exchange in a SCSI-FCP write operation? (Source: Comparing Storage-Connectivity Options in the Data Center) 


A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4

A

Q6) How many sequences make up a single exchange in a SCSI-FCP write operation? (Source: Comparing Storage-Connectivity Options in the Data Center) 


D) 4 sequences for write operation (3 for read)
slide 28

52
Q

Q7) How many usable addresses are on an FC-AL for servers and storage devices? (Source: Describing Fibre Channel Storage Networking)

A) 32
B) 64
C) 126
D) 127

A

Q7) How many usable addresses are on an FC-AL for servers and storage devices? (Source: Describing Fibre Channel Storage Networking)

C) 126
The FC-AL protocol provides for only 127 unique addresses, one of which is reserved for attaching the loop to a Fibre Channel switched fabric. The other 126 addresses are usable by nodes (servers and storage devices).
slide 44

53
Q

Q8) Which type of fabric port supports one or more node loop ports? (Source: Describing Fibre Channel Storage Networking)

A) F port
B) E port
C) NP port
D) FL port

A

Q8) Which type of fabric port supports one or more node loop ports? (Source: Describing Fibre Channel Storage Networking)

D) Fabric loop port (FL Port): In FL Port mode, an interface functions as a fabric loop port. This port connects to one or more NL Ports (including FL Ports in other switches) to form a public FC-AL.
slide 49

54
Q

Q9) Which type of port is used to create an ISL on a Fibre Channel SAN? (Source: Describing Fibre Channel Storage Networking) 


A) E
B) TE
C) TN
D) NP

A

Q9) Which type of port is used to create an ISL on a Fibre Channel SAN? (Source: Describing Fibre Channel Storage Networking) 


A) Expansion port (E Port): In E Port mode, an interface functions as a fabric expansion port. This port connects to another E Port to create an interswitch link (ISL) between two switches.
slide 49

55
Q

Q10) Which process allows an N Port to exchange information about ULP support with its target N Port, to ensure that the initiator and target process can communicate? (Source: Describing Fibre Channel Storage Networking)

A) FLOGI
B) PLOGI
C) PRLI
D) PRLO

A

Q10) Which process allows an N Port to exchange information about ULP support with its target N Port, to ensure that the initiator and target process can communicate? (Source: Describing Fibre Channel Storage Networking)

C) PRLI
The N Port must exchange information about ULP support with its target N Port, to ensure that the initiator and target process can communicate. This process is known as the process login (PRLI).
slide 57

56
Q

Q11) Which feature is used to ensure that the initiator (server) has access to the correct storage device and cannot corrupt data from other initiators? (Source: Describing Fibre Channel Storage Networking)

A) zoning
B) VSANs
C) ACLs
D) VLANs

A

Q11) Which feature is used to ensure that the initiator (server) has access to the correct storage device and cannot corrupt data from other initiators? (Source: Describing Fibre Channel Storage Networking)

A) The zoning service within a Fibre Channel fabric is designed to provide security between devices that share the same fabric. The primary goal is to prevent certain devices from accessing other devices within the fabric.
slide 70

57
Q

Q12) Which mapping table is inside the front-end array controller and determines which LUNs are advertised through which storage array ports? (Source: Describing Fibre Channel Storage Networking)

A) LUN mapping
B) LUN masking
C) zoning
D) LUN zoning

A

Q12) Which mapping table is inside the front-end array controller and determines which LUNs are advertised through which storage array ports? (Source: Describing Fibre Channel Storage Networking)

B) LUN masking provides LUN security:
• Configured on the storage array
• Ensures that hosts cannot access the wrong LUN
• Ensures that hosts do not share the same LUN
• Determines which LUNs are advertised on which ports
slide 73

58
Q

Q13) For how many days may a licensed feature be evaluated before a license must be installed to ensure continual operation of that feature? (Source: Verifying Fibre Channel Communications on Cisco MDS 9000 Series Multilayer Switches)

A) 180
B) 120
C) 60
D) 30

A

Q13) For how many days may a licensed feature be evaluated before a license must be installed to ensure continual operation of that feature? (Source: Verifying Fibre Channel Communications on Cisco MDS 9000 Series Multilayer Switches)

B) 120

59
Q

Q14) Which database stores name entries for all hosts in the fabric? (Source: Verifying Fibre Channel Communications on Cisco MDS 9000 Series Multilayer Switches)

A) FLOGI
B) distributed device
C) FCNS
D) zoning

A

Q14) Which database stores name entries for all hosts in the fabric? (Source: Verifying Fibre Channel Communications on Cisco MDS 9000 Series Multilayer Switches)

C) The Fibre Channel Name Server (FCNS) stores name entries for all hosts in the FCNS database. The name server permits an Nx Port to register attributes during a FLOGI (to the name server) to obtain attributes of other hosts. These attributes are deregistered when the Nx port logs out either explicitly or implicitly.
slide 100

60
Q

Q1) Which enhancement provides lossless delivery for selected CoSs? (Source: Describing DCB)

A) TRILL
B) QCN
C) PFC
D) ETS

A

Q1) Which enhancement provides lossless delivery for selected CoSs? (Source: Describing DCB)

C) Priority Flow Control (PFC) PFC allows priority to be provided to the FCoE channel, to ensure lossless transport of packets across DCB links and no loss of frames on the DCB links during congestion.
slide 134

61
Q

Q2) What is the default CoS value for FCoE traffic over a 10-Gb/s Ethernet connection? (Source: Describing DCB) 


A) 2
B) 3
C) 5
D) 7

A

Q2) What is the default CoS value for FCoE traffic over a 10-Gb/s Ethernet connection? (Source: Describing DCB) 


B) 3 is the default Class for FCoE and FC Traffic
slide 135

62
Q

Q3) Which enhancement provides differentiation of traffic by creating priority groups? (Source: Describing DCB)

A) ETS
B) QCN
C) TRILL
D) PFC

A

Q3) Which enhancement provides differentiation of traffic by creating priority groups? (Source: Describing DCB)

A) Enhanced Transmission Selection (ETS) is an IEEE 802.1Qaz standard that enables optimal QoS strategy for DCB links and bandwidth management of virtual links. ETS allows differentiation among traffic of the same priority class, thus creating priority groups.
slide 137

63
Q

Q4) Which protocol is used to discover the DCB-capable devices in the network? (Source: Describing DCB)

A) SNMP
B) TRILL
C) LACP
D) DCBX

A

Q4) Which protocol is used to discover the DCB-capable devices in the network? (Source: Describing DCB)

D) DCBX
The IEEE 802.1Qab standard provides a protocol for exchanging parameters between DCB-capable devices and for leveraging functions that the Link Layer Discovery Protocol (LLDP) provides.
slide 133 and 139

64
Q

Q5) Which version of DCBX is supported on T11-compliant second-generation CNAs? (Source: Describing DCB)

A) CIN-DCBX
B) CEE-DCBX

A

Q5) Which version of DCBX is supported on T11-compliant second-generation CNAs? (Source: Describing DCB)

B) CEE-DCBX is supported on all T11-compliant second-generation CNAs.

CIN-DCBX is supported on first-generation CNAs and is used to perform link detection in addition to other functions.
slide 141

65
Q

Q6) Which deployment model for Cisco Nexus 2232 10GE fabric extender connections to the Cisco Nexus 5548 Switch causes the corresponding server ports to fail during a FEX uplink port failure? (Source: Describing Enhanced FCoE Scalability with Cisco Nexus 2232 10GE Fabric Extenders)

A) straight-through using static pinning
B) straight-through using dynamic pinning
C) active/active FEX using vPC
D) active/standby FEX using vPC

A

Q6) Which deployment model for Cisco Nexus 2232 10GE fabric extender connections to the Cisco Nexus 5548 Switch causes the corresponding server ports to fail during a FEX uplink port failure? (Source: Describing Enhanced FCoE Scalability with Cisco Nexus 2232 10GE Fabric Extenders)

A) straight-through using static pinning
If an uplink between the Cisco Nexus 2000 Series fabric extender and the Cisco Nexus 5000 Series switch fails, then the FEX disables the physical server ports that are pinned to that uplink port.
slide 167

66
Q

Q7) On the Cisco Nexus 5548 Switch, which interfaces are created to represent the physical host interfaces on a Cisco Nexus 2232 10GE fabric extender? (Source: Describing Enhanced FCoE Scalability with Cisco Nexus 2232 10GE Fabric Extenders)

A) physical host interfaces
B) physical Ethernet interfaces
C) logical interfaces
D) virtual interfaces

A

Q7) On the Cisco Nexus 5548 Switch, which interfaces are created to represent the physical host interfaces on a Cisco Nexus 2232 10GE fabric extender? (Source: Describing Enhanced FCoE Scalability with Cisco Nexus 2232 10GE Fabric Extenders)

C) logical interfaces
Physical host interfaces on a Cisco Nexus 2000 Series fabric extender are represented with logical interfaces on the parent Cisco Nexus 5000 Series switch.
slide 171

67
Q

Q8) Which show command can you use to verify the fabric interfaces to which the FEX interfaces are pinned? (Source: Describing Enhanced FCoE Scalability with Cisco Nexus 2232 10GE Fabric Extenders)

A) switch# show interfaces detail
B) switch# show fex
C) switch# show interfaces brief
D) switch# show fex detail

A

Q8) Which show command can you use to verify the fabric interfaces to which the FEX interfaces are pinned? (Source: Describing Enhanced FCoE Scalability with Cisco Nexus 2232 10GE Fabric Extenders)

D) switch# show fex detail (show interface fex-intf is appropriate, but not a listed answer).
Provides the description of the FEX, the pinning mode, the number of max-links, and the state of the physical and logical uplink.
slide 176
The port pinning can be verified via show interface fex-intf. The output displays each uplink and the set of FEX interfaces associated to that uplink (fabric interface).
slide 262

68
Q

Q1) Which two items are valid Cisco UCS B-Series blade server models? (Choose two.) (Source: Describing the Cisco UCS B-Series Product Family)

A)  Cisco UCS B210 M2 
B)  Cisco UCS B260 M2 
C)  Cisco UCS B250 M3 
D)  Cisco UCS B250 M2 
E)  Cisco UCS B440 M2
A

Q1) Which two items are valid Cisco UCS B-Series blade server models? (Choose two.) (Source: Describing the Cisco UCS B-Series Product Family)

D) Cisco UCS B250 M2
E) Cisco UCS B440 M2
Comparison of Cisco UCS B-Series Blade Servers
slide 210

69
Q

Q2) What is the maximum number of fixed SFP ports on any Cisco UCS 6100 or 6200 Series fabric interconnect? (Source: Describing the Cisco UCS B-Series Product Family)

A)  64 
B)  48 
C)  40 
D)  32 
E)  20
A

Q2) What is the maximum number of fixed SFP ports on any Cisco UCS 6100 or 6200 Series fabric interconnect? (Source: Describing the Cisco UCS B-Series Product Family)

B) 48
The Cisco UCS 6296UP fabric interconnect is second-generation and includes 48 fixed ports and 3 GEM2 expansion module slots.
slide 196

70
Q

Q3) Which three components are available in the second-generation of Cisco UCS hardware? (Source: Describing the Cisco UCS B-Series Product Family)

A

Q3) Which three components are available in the second-generation of Cisco UCS hardware? (Source: Describing the Cisco UCS B-Series Product Family)

Cisco UCS 5248UP Fabric Interconnect, Cisco UCS 2208XP I/O module, and Cisco UCS Virtual Interface Card 1280
The Cisco UCS 2204XP I/O module is a second-generation module that provides as much as 40 GB/s bandwidth to each fabric. This module is deployed with the second-generation Cisco UCS 6248UP or Cisco UCS 6296UP fabric interconnect and Cisco UCS Virtual Interface Card 1280 or Virtual Interface Card 1240 mezzanine cards. The Cisco UCS 2204XP I/O module can support fabric port channels.
slide 200

71
Q

Q4) How many fixed interfaces are available on the Cisco UCS 6248UP fabric interconnect? (Source: Cisco UCS B-Series Product Family)

A) 48
B) 24
C) 32
D) 16

A

Q4) How many fixed interfaces are available on the Cisco UCS 6248UP fabric interconnect? (Source: Cisco UCS B-Series Product Family)

C) 32
The Cisco UCS 6248UP fabric interconnect is second-generation and includes 32 fixed ports and one GEM2 slot.
slide 194

72
Q

Q5) How many hot-swappable fan modules does the Cisco UCS 5108 Blade Server Chassis include? (Source: Describing the Cisco UCS B-Series Product Family)

A) 4
B) 6
C) 8
D) 12

A

Q5) How many hot-swappable fan modules does the Cisco UCS 5108 Blade Server Chassis include? (Source: Describing the Cisco UCS B-Series Product Family)

C) 8 redundant fan modules
slide 199

73
Q

Q6) Which two items are valid Cisco UCS C-Series rack server models? (Choose two.) (Source: Describing the Cisco UCS C-Series Product Family)

A)  Cisco UCS C230 M2 
B)  Cisco UCS C260 M2 
C)  Cisco UCS C250 M3 
D)  Cisco UCS C250 M2 
E)  Cisco UCS C440 M2
A

Q6) Which two items are valid Cisco UCS C-Series rack server models? (Choose two.) (Source: Describing the Cisco UCS C-Series Product Family)

B) Cisco UCS C260 M2
D) Cisco UCS C250 M2
Cisco UCS C-Series Comparison Summary
slide 235

74
Q

Q7) What is the maximum amount of RAM that can be installed in a Cisco UCS C210 M2 server? (Source: Describing the Cisco UCS C-Series Product Family)

A)  96 GB 
B)  128 GB 
C)  192 GB 
D)  256 GB 
E)  512 GB 
F)  1TB
A

Q7) What is the maximum amount of RAM that can be installed in a Cisco UCS C210 M2 server? (Source: Describing the Cisco UCS C-Series Product Family)

C)  192 GB 
DRAM - Up to 192 GB
Hard drives - Up to 16
CPU - 1 or 2 Intel Xeon 5600 series
slide 223
75
Q

Q8) If you were building a server to host 500 virtual desktops, which Cisco UCS C-Series rack server provides the best performance to memory- and CPU-bound applications? (Source: Describing the Cisco UCS C-Series Product Family)

A

Q8) If you were building a server to host 500 virtual desktops, which Cisco UCS C-Series rack server provides the best performance to memory- and CPU-bound applications? (Source: Describing the Cisco UCS C-Series Product Family)

The Cisco UCS C460 M2 High-Performance Rack Server is a 4-RU, 4-socket rack server with expanded memory capabilities to support memory and CPU-constrained applications such as databases, high-performance computing (HPC), and VDI.
slide 233

76
Q

Q9) How many hard disk slots for local storage are included in the Cisco UCS C210 M2 rack server? (Source: Cisco UCS C-Series Product Family)

A)12
B) 8
C) 20
D) 16

A

Q9) How many hard disk slots for local storage are included in the Cisco UCS C210 M2 rack server? (Source: Cisco UCS C-Series Product Family)

D) 16
DRAM - Up to 192 GB
Hard drives - Up to 16
CPU - 1 or 2 Intel Xeon 5600 series
slide 223
77
Q

Q10) How many hot-swappable power-supply modules can be installed in a Cisco UCS C460 M2 High Performance Rack Mount Server chassis? (Source: Describing the Cisco UCS C-Series Product Family) 


A) 8
B) 4
C) 3
D) 2

A

Q10) How many hot-swappable power-supply modules can be installed in a Cisco UCS C460 M2 High Performance Rack Mount Server chassis? (Source: Describing the Cisco UCS C-Series Product Family) 


B) 4
Cisco UCS C-Series Comparison Summary
slide 235

78
Q

Q11) Which two models are valid Cisco UCS I/O modules? (Choose two.) (Source: Connecting Cisco UCS B-Series Blade Servers)

A)  Cisco UCS 2004XP 
B)  Cisco UCS 2108XP 
C)  Cisco UCS 2104XP 
D)  Cisco UCS 2204XP 
E)  Cisco UCS 2208XP
A

Q11) Which two models are valid Cisco UCS I/O modules? (Choose two.) (Source: Connecting Cisco UCS B-Series Blade Servers)

C) Cisco UCS 2104XP 40 Gbps per fabric
D) Cisco UCS 2204XP 40 Gbps per fabric
E) Cisco UCS 2208XP 80 Gbps per fabric
slide 200

79
Q

Q12) What is the maximum number of connections from a single I/O module to the fabric interconnect, using first-generation Cisco UCS hardware? (Source: Connecting Cisco UCS B-Series Blade Servers) 


A) 1 
B) 2 
C) 3 
D) 4 
E) 6 
F) 8
A

Q12) What is the maximum number of connections from a single I/O module to the fabric interconnect, using first-generation Cisco UCS hardware? (Source: Connecting Cisco UCS B-Series Blade Servers) 


D) 4
The Cisco UCS 2104XP I/O module is a first-generation module that supplies as much as 40 GB/s bandwidth per fabric to blade servers.
slide 200
The number of available links depends on which I/O module is deployed. The Cisco UCS 2104XP I/O module supports as many as four links, and the Cisco UCS 2208XP I/O module supports as many as eight links. Regardless of the I/O module, the number of links must be a power of 2.
slide 254

80
Q

Q13) If you have a requirement for 40 Gb/s bandwidth to a Cisco UCS B-Series blade server, what is required? (Source: Connecting Cisco UCS B-Series Blade Servers)

A

Q13) If you have a requirement for 40 Gb/s bandwidth to a Cisco UCS B-Series blade server, what is required? (Source: Connecting Cisco UCS B-Series Blade Servers)

Cisco UCS 6248UP Fabric Interconnect, Cisco UCS 2208XP I/O module, and Cisco UCS Virtual Interface Card 1280 mezzanine card

81
Q

Q14) How many 10-Gb/s SFP+ slots are included in the Cisco UCS 2208XP I/O module? (Source: Cisco UCS B-Series Connectivity)

A) 10
B) 4
C) 32
D) 8

A

Q14) How many 10-Gb/s SFP+ slots are included in the Cisco UCS 2208XP I/O module? (Source: Cisco UCS B-Series Connectivity)

D) 8
The number of available links depends on which I/O module is deployed. The Cisco UCS 2104XP I/O module supports as many as four links, and the Cisco UCS 2208XP I/O module supports as many as eight links. Regardless of the I/O module, the number of links must be a power of 2.
slide 254

82
Q

Q15) If all the servers in a Cisco UCS 5108 Blade Server Chassis have Cisco UCS Virtual Interface Card 1280 mezzanine cards installed, what is the best possible bandwidth oversubscription ratio with all the interfaces between a Cisco UCS 2208XP I/O module and Cisco UCS 6248UP fabric interconnects? (Source: Connecting Cisco UCS B- Series Blade Servers)

A)  16:1 
B)  8:1 
C)  4:1 
D)  2:1 
E)  1:1
A

Q15) If all the servers in a Cisco UCS 5108 Blade Server Chassis have Cisco UCS Virtual Interface Card 1280 mezzanine cards installed, what is the best possible bandwidth oversubscription ratio with all the interfaces between a Cisco UCS 2208XP I/O module and Cisco UCS 6248UP fabric interconnects? (Source: Connecting Cisco UCS B- Series Blade Servers)

C) 4:1
Eight links between UCS 2208XP I/O module and UCS 6248UP fabric interconnect:
Oversubscription Cisco UCS Virtual Interface Card 1280 = 4:1 All Others = 1:1
slide 259

83
Q

Q16) Which two choices are configuration methods during initial Cisco UCS fabric interconnect configuration? (Choose two.) (Source: Setting up an Initial Cisco UCS B- Series Cluster)

A)  setup 
B)  config 
C)  console 
D)  restore 
E)  serial 
F)  GUI 
G)  Management 0
A

Q16) Which two choices are configuration methods during initial Cisco UCS fabric interconnect configuration? (Choose two.) (Source: Setting up an Initial Cisco UCS B- Series Cluster)

C) console
F) GUI

Enter the configuration method. (console/gui) ? console
Enter the setup mode; setup newly or restore from backup. (setup/restore) ? setup
slide 272

84
Q

Q17) What is the maximum number of peers in a Cisco UCS cluster? (Source: Setting up an Initial Cisco UCS B-Series Cluster) 


A) 1 
B) 2 
C) 4 
D) 6 
E) 8
A

Q17) What is the maximum number of peers in a Cisco UCS cluster? (Source: Setting up an Initial Cisco UCS B-Series Cluster) 


B) 2
slide 270

85
Q

Q18) What must be done before two Cisco UCS fabric interconnects can form a peer relationship? (Source: Configuring Cisco UCS B-Series Initial Cluster Setup)

A

Q18) What must be done before two Cisco UCS fabric interconnects can form a peer relationship? (Source: Configuring Cisco UCS B-Series Initial Cluster Setup)

Cross-connect links L1 to L1 and L2 to L2
This cross-connection requires a straight-through Category 6 Ethernet cable.
slide 270

86
Q

Q19) The _____ and _____ must be configured correctly to enroll with a CA. (Source: Setting up an Initial Cisco UCS B-Series Cluster)

A

Q19) The _____ and _____ must be configured correctly to enroll with a CA. (Source: Setting up an Initial Cisco UCS B-Series Cluster)

Hostname and domain name need to be correctly configured to enroll with a certificate authority (CA). The fully qualified domain name (FQDN) is part of the certificate signing request (CSR). Be certain that the FQDN is unique within your domain.
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87
Q

Q20) Which command shows the cluster link state? (Source: Setting up an Initial Cisco UCS B-Series Cluster)

A) show cluster state
B) show cluster state links
C) show cluster state extended
D) show cluster extended-state

A

Q20) Which command shows the cluster link state? (Source: Setting up an Initial Cisco UCS B-Series Cluster)

D) show cluster extended-state
Before the active node commits a configuration transaction to the data management engine (DME), the node first replicates the transaction to the subordinate node. After the subordinate acknowledges that its DME has committed the transaction, the primary node commits the transaction.
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88
Q

Q21) Which two choices are main configuration elements in the Cisco UCS Manager GUI? (Choose two.) (Source: Describing Cisco UCS Manager Operations)

A)  breadcrumb trail 
B)  configuration pane 
C)  navigation pane 
D)  action pane 
E)  content pane 
F)  management pane
A

Q21) Which two choices are main configuration elements in the Cisco UCS Manager GUI? (Choose two.) (Source: Describing Cisco UCS Manager Operations)

C) navigation pane
E) content pane
The navigation pane consists of a fault summary bar across the top view and a series of six tabs.
The content pane consists of a top toolbar with a back button, new object creation drop-down list, question button, and information button.
slide 285

89
Q

Q22) In which format is configuration data stored in the Cisco UCS Manager database? (Source: Describing Cisco UCS Manager Operations)

A)  SQL 
B)  Sybase 
C)  Oracle 
D)  HTML 
E)  XML
A

Q22) In which format is configuration data stored in the Cisco UCS Manager database? (Source: Describing Cisco UCS Manager Operations)

E) XML
As devices are discovered and enumerated, Cisco UCS Manager adds them to the configuration database as managed objects. All configuration data is stored in XML. Cisco offers a software development kit (SDK) and full documentation to the Cisco UCS Manager XML application programming interface (API).
slide 322

90
Q

Q23) Where in the Cisco UCS manager GUI would you configure VLANs? (Source: Describing Cisco UCS Manager Operations)

A

Q23) Where in the Cisco UCS manager GUI would you configure VLANs? (Source: Describing Cisco UCS Manager Operations)

on the LAN tab in the navigation pane, define quality of service (QoS), create VLANs, policies, and identity pools.
slide 288

91
Q

Q24) Physical components subject to FSM validation include _____ and _____. (Source: Describing Cisco UCS Manager Operations)

A

Q24) Physical components subject to FSM validation include _____ and _____. (Source: Describing Cisco UCS Manager Operations)

chassis and I/O module
• Physical components 
- Chassis
- I/Omodule
- Servers
slide 294
92
Q

Q25) On which tab can you find a list of FSM state transitions in chronological order? (Source: Describing Cisco UCS Manager Operations)

A) FSM tab
B) Admin tab
C) Event tab
D) Equipment tab

A

Q25) On which tab can you find a list of FSM state transitions in chronological order? (Source: Describing Cisco UCS Manager Operations)

C) Click the Event tab to review the log of FSM state transitions. In many cases, the FSM state transitions occur too fast for a human operator to read. Simply click the Events tab to see a detailed list of all the transitions.
slide 296

93
Q

Q26) Which two selections represent identity resources? (Choose two.) (Source: Describing Cisco UCS Manager Pools, Policies, Templates, and Service Profiles)

A)  server name 
B)  slot number 
C)  MAC address 
D)  vNIC 
E)  vHBA 
F)  UUID
A

Q26) Which two selections represent identity resources? (Choose two.) (Source: Describing Cisco UCS Manager Pools, Policies, Templates, and Service Profiles)

C) MAC address
F) UUID
Stateless computing requires unique identity resources for UUID, MAC address, and WWNs for Fibre Channel.
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94
Q

Q27) What is the purpose of a UUID? (Source: Describing Cisco UCS Manager Pools, Policies, Templates, and Service Profiles)

A)  SAN adapter identity 
B)  SAN port identity 
C)  Ethernet identity 
D)  server serial number 
E)  BIOS identity
A

Q27) What is the purpose of a UUID? (Source: Describing Cisco UCS Manager Pools, Policies, Templates, and Service Profiles)

D) server serial number
UUIDs are essentially standardized serial numbers that identify a particular server.
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95
Q

Q28) Where in the Cisco UCS Manager GUI can you configure a UUID? (Source: Describing Cisco UCS Manager Pools, Policies, Templates, and Service Profiles)

A

Q28) Where in the Cisco UCS Manager GUI can you configure a UUID? (Source: Describing Cisco UCS Manager Pools, Policies, Templates, and Service Profiles)

on the Servers tab in the navigation pane, UUID are listed as a resource pool
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96
Q

Q29) MAC addresses are _____ bits and pWWNs are _____ bits. (Source: Describing Cisco UCS Manager Pools, Policies, Templates, and Service Profiles)

A

Q29) MAC addresses are _____ bits and pWWNs are _____ bits. (Source: Describing Cisco UCS Manager Pools, Policies, Templates, and Service Profiles)

48 and 64

Every Fibre Channel port and node has a hard-coded address called a WWN.
- Allocated to manufacturer by IEEE
- Coded into each device when manufactured - 64 or 128 bits (128 bits most common)
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97
Q

Q30) What would you use to create service profiles that use consistent policy and unique hardware identities? (Source: Describing Cisco UCS Manager Pools, Policies, Templates, and Service Profiles)

A) pools
B) Service Profile wizard
C) Servers tab
D) service profile template

A

Q30) What would you use to create service profiles that use consistent policy and unique hardware identities? (Source: Describing Cisco UCS Manager Pools, Policies, Templates, and Service Profiles)

D) service profile template enable Rapid Provisioning and Consistent Application of Policy
• Similar to service profile creation
• Requires server pool (cannot select individual blade)
• Requires pooled identities (UUID, MAC, WWNN, WWPN)
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