DC4H HS Flashcards Deck 1

1
Q
  1. The horse is not the fastest animal on foot, but possesses great endurance. - HS 5
A

TRUE

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2
Q
  1. Horses can not see what they are eating. - HS 5
A

TRUE

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3
Q
  1. A grazing horse can see almost all the way around its body. - HS 5
A

TRUE

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4
Q
  1. A high-headed horse can see almost all the way around its body. - HS 5
A

FALSE

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5
Q
  1. The back feet and legs serve primarily to support the horse at rest. - HS 6
A

FALSE

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6
Q
  1. In motion the front feet and legs pull the horse forward. - HS 6
A

TRUE

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7
Q
  1. To keep the feet healthy, a horse must have plenty of exercise. - HS 6
A

TRUE

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8
Q
  1. The healthy horse at rest shifts its weight from one front foot to the other. - HS 6
A

FALSE

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9
Q
  1. The horse is suspended between its front legs. - HS 6
A

TRUE

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10
Q
  1. The front legs are not attached to the main skeleton by any joints. - HS 6
A

TRUE

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11
Q
  1. The hind feet and legs catch weight at the end of flight in motion. - HS 7
A

TRUE

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12
Q
  1. Less lameness and unsoundness occurs in the hind feet and legs because they support more weight and do more work. - HS 7
A

FALSE

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13
Q
  1. The hind feet grow faster than the front feet. - HS 7
A

TRUE

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14
Q
  1. The center of motion is rather fixed. - HS 6
A

TRUE

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15
Q
  1. The center of gravity is rather fixed. - HS 7
A

FALSE

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16
Q
  1. The horse can shift the center of gravity by raising, lowering or extending its head. - HS 7
A

TRUE

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17
Q
  1. The head should be long from the eyes to the nostrils. - HS 9
A

TRUE

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18
Q
  1. Large prominent eyes are considered weak. - HS 9
A

FALSE

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19
Q
  1. All breathing of air by the horse must be done through the nostrils. - HS 9
A

TRUE

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20
Q
  1. All horses, both long and short necked ones, have seven cervical vertebrae. - HS 9
A

TRUE

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21
Q
  1. The neck should be long, lean, and attached low on shoulders with prominent withers. - HS 9
A

FALSE

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22
Q
  1. A thick neck adds excess weight to the front end. - HS 9
A

TRUE

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23
Q
  1. A thick neck increases head movement. - HS 9
A

FALSE

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24
Q
  1. The withers should be prominent, high, and well defined. - HS 9
A

TRUE

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25
Q
  1. The withers should be long, flat and smooth. - HS 9
A

FALSE

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26
Q
  1. The shoulder should be long, flat and smooth. - HS 9
A

TRUE

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27
Q
  1. In a steep-shouldered horse, the arm does not extend very far forward during movement. - HS 9
A

TRUE

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28
Q
  1. The best combination of length for the various parts of the front quarters calls for a long shoulder, short forearm, long arm and short cannon. - HS 10
A

FALSE

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29
Q
  1. Steep shoulders and short, steep pasterns decrease shock absorption. - HS 10
A

TRUE

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30
Q
  1. A long sloping shoulder forms a more desirable base for neck attachment. - HS 10
A

TRUE

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31
Q
  1. The trunk of the horse should be deep and broad. - HS 10
A

TRUE

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32
Q
  1. The loin has no bone structure for support. - HS 10
A

TRUE

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33
Q
  1. The loin is the weakest part of the top line. - HS 10
A

TRUE

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34
Q
  1. The back is the weakest part of the top line. - HS 10
A

FALSE

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35
Q
  1. The back gets support from the rib cage. - HS 10
A

TRUE

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36
Q
  1. A long underline insures a large body capacity. - HS 10
A

FALSE

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37
Q
  1. Length of underline affects freedom of leg movement. - HS 10
A

TRUE

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38
Q
  1. The croup should be long, wide and level. - HS 11
A

TRUE

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39
Q
  1. The slope of the loin differs with breeds. - HS 11
A

FALSE

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40
Q
  1. Excess lateral movement of the feet and legs reduces efficiency. - HS 11
A

TRUE

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41
Q
  1. Action is affected by the set of the feet and legs as well as by anatomical characteristics. - HS 11
A

TRUE

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42
Q
  1. Length of shoulders and pasterns is related to length of stride. - HS 11
A

TRUE

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43
Q
  1. When points of the hocks turn outward, often a defect in action called limber hock occurs. - HS 11
A

TRUE

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44
Q
  1. A lame horse “nods” when the sound limb strikes the ground. - HS 13
A

TRUE

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45
Q
  1. Horses with faulty confirmation are more subject to unsoundness. - HS 13
A

TRUE

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46
Q
  1. Roman nose is an undesirable dished profile of the nose area. - HS 13
A

FALSE

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47
Q
  1. Age determination is made by studying the molars. - HS 14
A

FALSE

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48
Q
  1. The dental star is used for accurate age determination. - HS 14
A

FALSE

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49
Q
  1. Canine teeth appear in the male horse at age 6. - HS 14
A

FALSE

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50
Q
  1. Compared to temporary teeth, the permanent teeth are flatter. - HS 15
A

TRUE

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51
Q
  1. Compared to permanent teeth, temporary teeth have parallel grooves and ridges on the face of the incisors. - HS 15
A

FALSE

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52
Q
  1. Parrot mouth is when the upper incisors overhang the lower incisors. - HS 15
A

TRUE

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53
Q
  1. Cups in the lower teeth are deeper than those in the upper teeth. - HS 16
A

FALSE

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54
Q
  1. Genes and chromosomes are able to reproduce themselves. - HS 19
A

TRUE

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55
Q
  1. Before the cell divides, each chromosome duplicates itself. - HS 19
A

TRUE

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56
Q
  1. Much of the reproductive process is regulated by secretions from the pituitary gland. - HS 22
A

TRUE

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57
Q
  1. The primary sex organ of the stallion is the scrotum. - HS 22
A

FALSE

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58
Q
  1. The testicles produce sperm and testosterone. - HS 22
A

TRUE

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59
Q
  1. Testosterone regulates and maintains the male reproductive tract in its functional state. - HS 22
A

TRUE

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60
Q
  1. Testosterone is responsible for the masculine appearance and behavior of the gelding. - HS 22
A

FALSE

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61
Q
  1. The inner surface of the tubules produce sperm. - HS 22
A

TRUE

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62
Q
  1. Sperm formation in the male is a fairly continuous process. - HS 22
A

TRUE

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63
Q
  1. The scrotum regulates the temperature of the testicle and epidiymides. - HS 22
A

TRUE

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64
Q
  1. Scrotal temperature is several degrees warmer than that of the body cavity. - HS 22
A

FALSE

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65
Q
  1. From the epididymis, the sperm move through a tube, the urethra, into the vas deferens. - HS 22
A

FALSE

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66
Q
  1. Along the urethra are the accessory glands. - HS 22
A

TRUE

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67
Q
  1. During mating, the accessory glands discharge their fluids into the epididymis. - HS 23
A

FALSE

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68
Q
  1. Puberty occurs in the stallion at the age of approximately one year. - HS 23
A

TRUE

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69
Q
  1. The female produces the ova. - HS 23
A

TRUE

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70
Q
  1. The primary sex organ of the mare is the uterus. - HS 23
A

FALSE

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71
Q
  1. Each ovary is somewhat bean-shaped. - HS 23
A

TRUE

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72
Q
  1. The oviduct carries the egg to the uterus. - HS 23
A

TRUE

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73
Q
  1. The breaking of the navel cord stimulates the animal to breathe. - HS 26
A

TRUE

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74
Q
  1. The colostrum is exhausted and replaced gradually with normal milk by about three days after the initial nursing. - HS 26
A

FALSE

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75
Q
  1. The foal is by its dam. - HS 26
A

FALSE

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76
Q
  1. The foal is out of its dam. - HS 26
A

TRUE

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77
Q
  1. The sons and daughters of a mare are her produce. - HS 26
A

TRUE

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78
Q
  1. The horse evolved as a non-ruminant, gut fermenting herbivore. - HS 27
A

TRUE

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79
Q
  1. The horse has a compartmentalized rumen. - HS 27
A

FALSE

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80
Q
  1. The horse is capable of fermenting in its hind gut. - HS 27
A

TRUE

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81
Q
  1. The horse’s digestive tract is approximately 100 feet in length. - HS 27
A

TRUE

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82
Q
  1. Digestion begins with parturition. - HS 27
A

FALSE

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83
Q
  1. Water is drawn into the mouth by the action of a curled tongue. - HS 27
A

TRUE

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84
Q
  1. Prehension is the chewing of feed. - HS 27
A

FALSE

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85
Q
  1. Mastication is the chewing of feed. - HS 27
A

TRUE

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86
Q
  1. Horses salivate at the sight or smell of feed. - HS 27
A

FALSE

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87
Q
  1. Swallowing is also known as deglutition. - HS 28
A

TRUE

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88
Q
  1. Horses are unable to belch or vomit. - HS 28
A

TRUE

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89
Q
  1. Feeding the horse too much all at once can dangerously overload the capacity of the stomach and cause illness. - HS 28
A

TRUE

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90
Q
  1. The horse does not have a sense of “feeling full” after a meal. - HS 28
A

TRUE

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91
Q
  1. The horse does not need a gall bladder. - HS 29
A

TRUE

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92
Q
  1. Digestion of fiber is by fermentation. - HS 30
A

TRUE

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93
Q
  1. Food moves rapidly through the large intestine. - HS 30
A

FALSE

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94
Q
  1. Bacteria synthesize amino acids and vitamin K. - HS 31
A

TRUE

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95
Q
  1. As bacteria die, they break open and release their contents which are toxic to the horse and may cause endotoxemia. - HS 31
A

TRUE

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96
Q
  1. Endotoxemia may cause laminitis. - HS 31
A

TRUE

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97
Q
  1. Gut sounds on the left side of the horse near the flank are usually related to activity in the cecum. - HS 31
A

FALSE

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98
Q
  1. The cecum is a blind pouch, meaning that digesta passes in and out of practically the same opening. - HS 31
A

TRUE

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99
Q
  1. A horse can manage to survive for a few weeks without feed. - HS 32
A

TRUE

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100
Q
  1. A horse cannot live for more than a few days without water. - HS 32
A

TRUE

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101
Q
  1. Energy in itself is not actually a nutrient. - HS 32
A

TRUE

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102
Q
  1. Carotene is a plant pigment that is the precursor of vitamin A. - HS 33
A

TRUE

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103
Q
  1. Energy nutrients are cabohydrates and fats. - HS 33
A

TRUE

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104
Q
  1. Fats are the primary energy nutrient for the horse. - HS 33
A

FALSE

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105
Q
  1. Simple carbohydrates include sugars and starches. - HS 33
A

TRUE

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106
Q
  1. Sugars and starches are easily digested by enzymes in the large intestine. - HS 33
A

FALSE

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107
Q
  1. Complex carbohydrates include cellulose and starches. - HS 33
A

FALSE

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108
Q
  1. Cellulose is digested by bacteria that live in the cecum and large intestine. - HS 33
A

TRUE

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109
Q
  1. Excess carbohydrates consumed are stored as muscle glycogen or fat. - HS 33
A

TRUE

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110
Q
  1. Fats are a very energy dense group of nutrients. - HS 33
A

TRUE

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111
Q
  1. Fats and oils are chemically alike. - HS 33
A

TRUE

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112
Q
  1. Fats are liquid at body temperature. - HS 33
A

FALSE

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113
Q
  1. Fats contain more carbon and hydrogen atoms than carbohydrates. - HS 33
A

TRUE

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114
Q
  1. Of the amino acids, threonine has been found to be the most essential to the horse. - HS 33
A

FALSE

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115
Q
  1. Proteins are considered higher quality when they contain more of the essential amino acids. - HS 33
A

TRUE

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116
Q
  1. Excess protein consumed is stored as fat. - HS 34
A

FALSE

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117
Q
  1. The primary increased need with performance is protein: - HS 34
A

FALSE

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118
Q
  1. The feed that you choose should contain a protein level that complements the protein concentration in your forage. - HS 34
A

TRUE

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119
Q
  1. Vitamins are organic compounds. - HS 34
A

TRUE

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120
Q
  1. Excess water soluble vitamins are stored in the liver. - HS 34
A

FALSE

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121
Q
  1. Minerals are inorganic. - HS 35
A

TRUE

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122
Q
  1. Thyroid hormones regulate the rate of metabolism. - HS 36
A

TRUE

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123
Q
  1. Concentrates may serve as the only feed for idle horses. - HS 37
A

FALSE

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124
Q
  1. The most important factor affecting the nutrient composition of grasses and legumes is the stage of maturity. - HS 37
A

TRUE

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125
Q
  1. Prairie hay is much lower in protein than most other grass hays. - HS 38
A

TRUE

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126
Q
  1. Legume hays are generally higher in protein than grass hays, but lower in calcium. - HS 38
A

FALSE

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127
Q
  1. Leaves carry most of the nutrients in hay. - HS 38
A

TRUE

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128
Q
  1. Good hay is a bright leafy green. - HS 38
A

TRUE

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129
Q
  1. Pure legume hays tend to have less dust than grass or mixed hays. - HS 38
A

FALSE

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130
Q
  1. Pastures can reduce feed costs and provide plenty of nutrition. - HS 39
A

TRUE

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131
Q
  1. An overgrazed pasture of short forage can be a serious source of internal parasite infestation. - HS 39
A

TRUE

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132
Q
  1. Pasture forages may be laxative in early spring. - HS 39
A

TRUE

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133
Q
  1. Wheat bran, rice bran, wheat middling and rye middlings are the most important energy-rich grains. - HS 39
A

FALSE

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134
Q
  1. Cracking corn improves its digestibility. - HS 40
A

FALSE

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135
Q
  1. Always feed grain concentrates by volume, not weight. - HS 40
A

FALSE

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136
Q
  1. One quart of corn weighs more than one quart of oats. - HS 40
A

TRUE

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137
Q
  1. Molasses contains some energy, very little minerals, no fiber and no digestible protein. - HS 40
A

TRUE

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138
Q
  1. The most commonly used protein supplement is cottonseed meal. - HS 40
A

FALSE

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139
Q
  1. Linseed meal is the lowest in protein of the protein feeds. - HS 40
A

TRUE

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140
Q
  1. Mixed feeds are more commonly fed than single grains. - HS 41
A

TRUE

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141
Q
  1. Salt is best provided to horses in loose form. - HS 41
A

TRUE

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142
Q
  1. Cold weather requires feeding more hay. - HS 41
A

TRUE

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143
Q
  1. Gradual weight changes, due to overfeeding or underfeeding, aren’t always apparent until changes are severe. - HS 42
A

TRUE

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144
Q
  1. A horse’s well-being depends largely on its nutrition. - HS 45
A

TRUE

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145
Q
  1. If the level of nutrition is high, the body defenses against diseases will be weaker. - HS 45
A

FALSE

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146
Q
  1. Disease organisms often grow and thrive in organic waste. - HS 45
A

TRUE

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147
Q
  1. Removing the source of the disease organism lessens the chance of disease. - HS 45
A

TRUE

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148
Q
  1. Most respiratory troubles develop from keeping horses in tight barns which are too warm and humid. - HS 45
A

TRUE

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149
Q
  1. Contagious diseases are caused by microorganisms that your horses cannot develop defenses against. - HS 46
A

FALSE

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150
Q
  1. Vaccination after your horses have been exposed to disease will seldom give them enough time to build up their defenses to a large enough degree. - HS 46
A

TRUE

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151
Q
  1. Internal parasites can cause stunting, illness, and even death if not controlled. - HS 46
A

TRUE

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152
Q
  1. Fit horses are better equipped to ward off disease and unsoundnesses. - HS 46
A

TRUE

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153
Q
  1. Preventing disease is more effective than treating your horses after they become ill. - HS 46
A

TRUE

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154
Q
  1. All infectious diseases are contagious, but not all contagious diseases are infectious. - HS 47
A

FALSE

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155
Q
  1. All contagious diseases are infectious, but not all infectious diseases are contagious. - HS 47
A

TRUE

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156
Q
  1. Tetanus is contagious since it is transmitted directly from one animal to another. - HS 47
A

FALSE

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157
Q
  1. Even though disease-producing organisms reach a host animal, the animal may not necessarily develop disease. - HS 47
A

TRUE

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158
Q
  1. A collection of horses: - HS 4
A

CAVY

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159
Q
  1. Biting or setting teeth against manger or some other object while sucking air: - HS 4
A

CRIBBING

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160
Q
  1. A third eyelid or membrane in front of eye, which removes foreign bodies from the eye: - HS 4
A

HAW

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161
Q
  1. Standing with a front leg extended more than normal, a sign of lameness: - HS 4
A

POINTING

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162
Q
  1. The horse evolved in stages to its present form. - HS 4
A

3

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163
Q
  1. Eohippus was only about inches high. - HS 4
A

12

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164
Q
  1. Mesohippus was ____ inches high with ___ toes on each foot. - HS 4
A

24;3

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165
Q
  1. Horses did not return to North America until brought by the . - HS 5
A

SPANIARDS

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166
Q
  1. In which century did the horse return to North America? - HS 5
A

16th

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167
Q
  1. The horse can see anything behind it that is not narrower than its body. - HS 5
A

TRUE

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168
Q
  1. For the horse to use binocular vision, the object must not be closer than feet. - HS 5
A

4

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169
Q
  1. At rest, the front feet and legs support % more weight than the hind legs. - HS 6
A

9-10

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170
Q
  1. The rearhand assembly is the horse’s powerhouse. - HS 7
A

TRUE

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171
Q
  1. The horse’s center of motion is located approximately over the vertebra. - HS 7
A

15th

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172
Q
  1. Eye protruding: - HS 8
A

BUGEYED

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173
Q
  1. Proper balance or relationship of all parts: - HS 8
A

SYMMETRICAL

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174
Q
  1. A long narrow head indicates: - HS 9
A

A long narrow body

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175
Q
  1. The ear should be size. - HS 9
A

MEDIUM

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176
Q
  1. All horses have cervical vertabrae. - HS 9
A

7

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177
Q
  1. The withers should extend rearward about of the distance from the point of the shoulder to the rear flanks. - HS 9
A

1/4.

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178
Q
  1. The front feet should be set at the same angle as the: - HS 10
A

PASTERN

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179
Q
  1. The and together make up the top line. - HS 10
A

Back;Loin

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180
Q
  1. The is a bridge between the rib cage and the hips. - HS 10
A

Loin

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181
Q
  1. A position of the front legs gives a pounding gait and hard concussion. - HS 11
A

CALF-KNEED

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182
Q
  1. Any mark or deformity that diminishes the beauty, but does not affect usefulness. - HS 12
A

BLEMISH

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183
Q
  1. To limp slightly: - HS 12
A

FAVOR

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184
Q
  1. Inflammation of the feet causing lameness: - HS 12
A

FOUNDER

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185
Q
  1. Which is an unsoundness? a. Cataract b. Ewe-neck c. Shoe boil d. Splint - HS 13
A

Cataract

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186
Q
  1. Which is an unsoundness? a. Defective eyes b. Blood spavin c. Thrush d. Capped elbow- HS 13
A

Defective Eyes

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187
Q
  1. Which is an unsoundness? a. Roman nose b. Ewe-neck c. Buck knee d. Poll evil- HS 13
A

Poll evil

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188
Q
  1. Which is an unsoundness? a. Roman nose b. Parrot mouth c. Splint d. Calf-kneed- HS 13
A

Parrot mouth

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189
Q
  1. Which is an unsoundness? a. Sway back b. Blood spavin c. Undershot jaw d. Splint- HS 13
A

Undershot jaw

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190
Q
  1. Atrophy or decrease in size of a single muscle or group of muscles: - HS 13
A

SWEENY

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191
Q
  1. Which is a blemish? - HS 13
A

SHOE BOIL

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192
Q
  1. Which is a blemish? - HS 13
A

SPLINT

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193
Q
  1. Which is an unsoundness? - HS 13
A

WIND PUFF

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194
Q
  1. Puffy swellings occurring either around the pastern or fetlock: - HS 13
A

WIND PUFF

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195
Q
  1. Fistula of the hoofhead: - HS 13
A

QUITTOR

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196
Q
  1. Difficult breathing, lung damage: - HS 13
A

HEAVES

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197
Q
  1. Difficult breathing due to an obstruction, usually in larynx: - HS 13
A

ROARING

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198
Q
  1. Nervous disorder characterized by excessive jerking of the hind leg: - HS 13
A

STRINGHALT

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199
Q
  1. Enlargement on point of hock: - HS 13
A

CAPPED HOCK

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200
Q
  1. Meaty, soft swelling occurring on inner front part of hock: - HS 13
A

BOG SPAVIN

201
Q
  1. Bony growth usually found on the inside lower point of hock: - HS 13
A

JACK SPAVIN

202
Q
  1. Hard swelling on the back surface of the rear cannon about four inches below the point of hock: - HS 13
A

CURB

203
Q
  1. Teeth that appear in the interdental space on the male horse at 5 years of age: - HS 14
A

CANINE TEETH

204
Q
  1. Third set of incisors: - HS 14
A

CORNERS

205
Q
  1. The top of a tooth protruding above the gum: - HS 14
A

CROWN

206
Q
  1. The hollow space on the wearing surface of an incisor: - HS 14
A

CUPS

207
Q
  1. At what age does a horse have a full mouth? - HS 14
A

5

208
Q
  1. How many sets of teeth do horses have? - HS 15
A

2

209
Q
  1. The front incisor teeth may be evident at birth or within days of life. - HS 15
A

8

210
Q
  1. A foal will have the intermediate incisors by the week of life - HS 15
A

8th

211
Q
  1. The third pair of incisors erupt in the foal by the month of life. - HS 15
A

8th

212
Q
  1. The foal’s temporary premolar teeth appear by the time it is weeks old. - HS 15
A

2

213
Q
  1. Permanent center incisors erupt at years. - HS 15
A

2 1/2.

214
Q
  1. Permanent intermediate incisors erupt at years. - HS 15
A

3 1/2.

215
Q
  1. Permanent corner incisors erupt at years. - HS 15
A

4 1/2.

216
Q
  1. The gum space between the incisor teeth and molar teeth: - HS 15
A

INTERDENTAL SPACE

217
Q
  1. The second set of incisors: - HS 15
A

INTERMEDIATES

218
Q
  1. The part of the tooth located at the surface of the gums: - HS 15
A

NECK

219
Q
  1. The small teeth that may appear in front of the upper molars, generally found in male horses: - HS 15
A

WOLF TEETH

220
Q
  1. A dovetail notch is formed on the upper Corner Incisors at years of age. - HS 17
A

7

221
Q
  1. An abnormal condition that an animal possesses at birth: - HS 18
A

CONGENITAL

222
Q
  1. These are located along the urethra of the male and produce fluids that nourish and preserve the sperm: - HS 22
A

ACCESSORY GLANDS

223
Q
  1. To castrate a male horse, to geld: - HS 22
A

ALTER

224
Q
  1. Includes the cervix and vagina of the female: - HS 22
A

BIRTH CANAL

225
Q
  1. This is the narrow passage or doorway between the vagina and uterus: - HS 22
A

CERVIX

226
Q
  1. A solid mass that forms in the follicle after the egg has left: - HS 22
A

CORPUS LUTEUM

227
Q
  1. A mass of tubes connected to the testicle: - HS 22
A

ESTROGENIC EPIDIDYMIS

228
Q
  1. Hormones that stimulate the development and maintenance of female sexual characters: - HS 22
A

HORMONES

229
Q
  1. A bubble-like structure on the ovary which contains an egg: - HS 22
A

FOLLICLE

230
Q
  1. Comes from the pituitary and causes follicle growth: - HS 22
A

Follicle stimulating hormone

231
Q
  1. Which is the largest of the female reproductive organs? - HS 23
A

UTERUS

232
Q
  1. The gestation period is usually about months. - HS 23
A

11

233
Q
  1. A body-regulating chemical secreted by a gland into the blood stream: - HS 23
A

HORMONE

234
Q
  1. The funnel-like membrane that surrounds the ovary: - HS 23
A

INFUNDIBULUM

235
Q
  1. A female organ that produces eggs: - HS 23
A

OVARY

236
Q
  1. The tube which carries the egg from the ovary to the uterus: - HS 23
A

OVIDUCT

237
Q
  1. The membrane by which the fetus is attached to the uterus: - HS 23
A

PLACENTA

238
Q
  1. A steroid hormone secreted by the hypertrophied cells of the corpus luteum: - HS 23
A

PROGESTERONE

239
Q
  1. The sac-like pouch that suspends the testicles outside the body: - HS 24
A

SCROTUM

240
Q
  1. The male gland that produces sperm: - HS 24
A

TESTICLE

241
Q
  1. A mare that did not produce a foal during the current season: - HS 24
A

YELD MARE

242
Q
  1. The average length of the estrous cycle is: - HS 24
A

21 Days

243
Q
  1. The average length of estrus is days. - HS 24
A

6

244
Q
  1. Many mares are capable of first reproduction at years of age. - HS 24
A

3

245
Q
  1. At approximately weeks of pregnancy, the placenta attaches to the wall of the uterus and provides for the nourishment of the fetus. - HS 25
A

6

246
Q
  1. The fetus develops gradually although the most rapid period of growth takes place during the last months of pregnancy. - HS 25
A

3-4.

247
Q
  1. Saliva is produced by pair(s) of salivary glands. - HS 27
A

3

248
Q
  1. Approximately gallons of saliva are produced and swallowed each day. - HS 28
A

8-10.

249
Q
  1. The esophagus is approximately feet long. - HS 28
A

5

250
Q
  1. The stomach can hold gallons of digesta. - HS 28
A

2-4.

251
Q
  1. The action of the stomach is such that it works best when about % full. - HS 29
A

75

252
Q
  1. The small intestine is approximately feet long. - HS 29
A

65

253
Q
  1. The small intestine holds about gallons of digesta. - HS 29
A

12

254
Q
  1. The is the primary site of digestion and absorption of nutrients. - HS 29
A

SMALL INTESTINE

255
Q
  1. The duodenum is the most active site of digestion. - HS 29
A

TRUE

256
Q
  1. A greenish solution that is secreted by the liver: - HS 29
A

BILE

257
Q
  1. works to assist the in the digestion of proteins into peptides and amino acids. - HS 29
A

TRYPSIN

258
Q
  1. Digesta makes its way through the small intestine at a rate of approximately inches per minute. - HS 30
A

12

259
Q
  1. Digesta may reach the large intestine as soon as after a meal. - HS 30
A

AN HOUR

260
Q
  1. The large intestine is approximately feet in length. - HS 30
A

25

261
Q
  1. The large intestine holds about gallons. - HS 30
    32
A

32

262
Q
  1. Digesta leaves the small intestine and enters the cecum through the: - HS 31
A

Ileo-cecal valve

263
Q
  1. What is the primary site of fiber breakdown? - HS 31
A

CECUM

264
Q
  1. The cecum is approximately feet in length. - HS 31
A

4

265
Q
  1. The cecum holds about gallons of digesta. - HS 31
A

8

266
Q
  1. Where in the large intestine is the largest portion of water absorbed? - HS 31
A

CECUM

267
Q
  1. The large colon is feet in length. - HS 31
A

12

268
Q
  1. The large colon holds about gallons. - HS 31
A

20

269
Q
  1. Which portion of the digestive tract holds the most digesta? - HS 31
A

LARGE COLON

270
Q
  1. Where is the pelvic flexure located? - HS 31
A

LARGE COLON

271
Q
  1. The small colon is approximately feet in length. - HS 31
A

10

272
Q
  1. The small colon holds about gallons of material. - HS 31
A

4

273
Q
  1. A 1,000-pound horse normally produces between pounds of manure each day. - HS 31
A

40-50

274
Q
  1. The rate of food passage from mouth to anus is usually between days. - HS 31
A

2-3.

275
Q
  1. Between percent of adult horse body weight is water. - HS 33
A

65-75

276
Q
  1. Between percent of foal body weight is water. - HS 32
A

75-80

277
Q
  1. A loss of percent of body water is fatal. - HS 32
A

12-15.

278
Q
  1. A non-working horse requires gallons of water. - HS 32
A

6-8.

279
Q
  1. A pregnant horse requires gallons of water. - HS 32
A

7-9.

280
Q
  1. A horse at peak lactation requires gallons of water. - HS 32
A

10-15.

281
Q
  1. A horse in moderate work requires gallons of water. - HS 32
A

10-15.

282
Q
  1. A horse in heavy work requires gallons of water. - HS 32
A

12-15+

283
Q
  1. Feeds that are low in fiber and high in TND: - HS 32
A

CONCENTRATES

284
Q
  1. Feeds that are high in fiber and low in TDN. - HS 32
A

FORAGES

285
Q
  1. A feed constituent that aids in the support of life: - HS 32
A

NUTRIENT

286
Q
  1. The less digestible form of carbohydrates found in feedstuffs: - HS 32
A

FIBER

287
Q
  1. Mainly supply building material for the body: - HS 32
A

PROTEINS

288
Q
  1. Mainly supply energy to the body: - HS 32
A

CARBOHYDRATES

289
Q
  1. Amount of a nutrient found in feed: - HS 32
A

CRUDE NUTRIENT

290
Q
  1. That which is left in a feed sample after the water has been removed: - HS 32
A

DRY MATTER

291
Q
  1. The part of the ration that is a concentrated form of one or more of the essential nutrients: - HS 33
A

SUPPLEMENT

292
Q
  1. Feedstuff produced as a secondary product in the manufacturing of another feed, usually a grain: - HS 33
A

BY PRODUCT FEED

293
Q
  1. amino acids are essential to the horse’s diet. - HS 33
A

10

294
Q
  1. What two vitamins are essential in the diet because they cannot be manufactured in the horse’s body? - HS 34
A

A and E

295
Q
  1. What vitamin is required for eye function, bone development and the proper formation of cells? - HS 35
A

A

296
Q
  1. What vitamin is required for bone formation, proper absorption and body use of calcium and phosphorus? - HS 35
A

D

297
Q
  1. Which vitamin maintains and protects the membranes of all body cells from oxidation and enhances immunity? - HS 35
A

E

298
Q
  1. Which vitamin aids in blood clotting? - HS 35
A

K

299
Q
  1. Vitamin or ascorbic acid works to protect the body and all cells from oxidation. - HS 35
A

C

300
Q
  1. Which is not a B-complex vitamin? - HS 35
A

LEUCINE

301
Q
  1. Which is not a macro-mineral? - HS 35
A

IRON

302
Q
  1. Which is not a micro-mineral? - HS 35
A

SULFUR

303
Q
  1. Which mineral is essential to bone formation and maintenance and the strength of the skeletal system? - HS 36
A

CALCIUM

304
Q
  1. Which mineral works closely with calcium is building and maintaining bone? - HS 36
A

PHOSPHORUS

305
Q
  1. Which mineral is a component of bones and teeth and plays an important role in muscle contraction? - HS 36
A

MAGNESIUM

306
Q
  1. Which mineral is a component of insulin? - HS 36
A

SULFER

307
Q
  1. Which mineral is required for regulation of the osmotic pressure of cells? - HS 36
A

SODIUM

308
Q
  1. Which mineral helps to keep bone and blood vessels elastic? - HS 36
A

COPPER

309
Q
  1. Which mineral plays a role in the production of melanin? - HS 36
A

COPPER

310
Q
  1. Which mineral works to help bone grow and is involved with protein and carbohydrate utilization? - HS 36
A

ZINC

311
Q
  1. Which mineral is required for the hemoglobin molecule? - HS 36
A

IRON

312
Q
  1. Which mineral is needed for carbohydrate and fat metabolism and helps build cartilage? - HS 36
A

MANGANESE

313
Q
  1. Which mineral is needed for the production of hormones in the thyroid gland? - HS 36
A

IODINE

314
Q
  1. Which mineral works with vitamin E to protect body tissues? - HS 36
A

SELENIUM

315
Q
  1. A selenium deficiency results in muscular dystrophy in the young foal. - HS 36
A

TRUE

316
Q
  1. Brans contain about percent of TDN. - HS 39
A

65

317
Q
  1. What is the most readily available and most economical grain in most sections of the country? - HS 40
A

CORN

318
Q
  1. What is usually the most expensive feed grain but is the safest and easiest to feed? - HS 40
A

OATS

319
Q
  1. What grain may cause colic if fed alone? - HS 40
A

BARLEY

320
Q
  1. Which grain should be crushed or ground and fed with bran? - HS 40
A

MILO

321
Q
  1. It takes approximately quarts of snow to equal one quart of water. - HS 41
A

12

322
Q
  1. Drugs that cause contraction of infected areas: - HS 45
A

ASTRINGENT

323
Q
  1. A diseased condition: - HS 45
A

PATHOLOGICAL

324
Q
  1. is a term applied to a horse that is sensitive about the head and jerks away when touched. - HS 4
A

HEADSHY

325
Q
  1. A horse that refuses to leave a group of other horses is . - HS 4
A

HERDBOUND

326
Q
  1. An acquired habit that is annoying or may interfere with the horse’s usefulness is a(n) . - HS 4
A

VICE

327
Q
  1. What was the horse’s principle role until World War II? - HS 4
A

WAR MACHINE

328
Q
  1. What three characteristics of the horse have made it possible for man to obtain performance from the horse far beyond what is possible with any other animal? HS 4
A

1)Anatomical structure and function, 2)speed and endurance, and 3)fear of being hurt (any order)

329
Q
  1. The original ancestor of the horse is . - HS 4
A

EOHIPPUS

330
Q
  1. The second stage of the horse was . - HS 4
A

MESOHIPPUS

331
Q
  1. In which two continents did the horse complete development and become domesticated?
A

Asia, Europe

332
Q
  1. The most important feature of the head and neck is the . - HS 5
A

EYE

333
Q
  1. The eyes of the horse are large and set wide apart on the head, giving the horse vision. - HS 5
A

MONOCULAR

334
Q
  1. The ability to see separate objects with each eye is . - HS 5
A

Monocular Vision

335
Q
  1. Areas not in the horse’s eye sight are called . - HS 5
A

Blind Spots

336
Q
  1. When looking at the same thing with both eyes at once, the horse is using . - HS 5
A

Binocular Vision

337
Q
  1. The horse’s center of gravity is located at a point about inches behind the elbow. - HS 6
A

SIX (6)

338
Q
  1. The horse’s center of is located at a point about six inches behind the elbow. - HS 6
A

GRAVITY

339
Q
  1. The front legs are held in position by . - HS 6
A

Muscular Structures

340
Q
  1. The center of motion on a mature horse is about inches behind the center of gravity. - HS 7
A

TEN (10)

341
Q
  1. The horse can alter its center of by raising, lowering or extending its head. - HS 7
A

GRAVITY

342
Q
  1. What is the basis of horse training? - HS 7
A

Power of Association

343
Q
  1. The power of association is the basis of . - HS 7
A

Horse Training

344
Q
  1. The forelegs, head and shoulders are referred to as the . - HS 8
A

FOREHAND

345
Q
  1. The head should be broad in the . - HS 8
A

FOREHEAD

346
Q
  1. The head should be short from the eyes to the . - HS 9
A

NOSTRILS

347
Q
  1. The head should be deep in the . - HS 9
A

JAWS

348
Q
  1. The ear should be carried at a degree angle to the axis of the head. - HS 9
A

45

349
Q
  1. Large allow for a maximum air intake. - HS 9
A

NOSTRILS

350
Q
  1. All breathing of air by the horse must be done through the . - HS 9
A

NOSTRILS

351
Q
  1. All horses have seven vertebrae. - HS 9
A

CERVICAL

352
Q
  1. The should be clean cut and free from thick, meaty or fatty tissue to facilitate movement of the head at the poll and allow easy breathing. - HS 9
A

THROATLATCH

353
Q
  1. Length of plays an important part in length of stride. - HS 9
A

NECK

354
Q
  1. The muscles that control leg movements terminate at the . - HS 9
A

KNEE

355
Q
  1. Cannon, pastern and foot action is controlled by ligaments and . - HS 9
A

TENDONS

356
Q
  1. The withers should extend rearward about of the distance from the point of the shoulder to the rear flanks. - HS 9
A

QUARTER (1/4)

357
Q
  1. The shoulder should have a -degree slope. - HS 9
    45
A

HS 9

45

358
Q
  1. A steep-shouldered horse has a stride. - HS 9
    Short
A

SHORT

359
Q
  1. When viewed from the front, the cannons should descend from the center of the . - HS 10
    Knee
A

KNEE

360
Q
  1. Cannon bones should give the appearance of being when viewed from the side. - HS 10
    Flat
A

FLAT

361
Q
  1. The front feet should be set at the same angle as the . - HS 10
    Pastern
A

PASTERN

362
Q
  1. A long sloping forms a more desirable base for neck attachment. - HS 10
    Shoulder
A

SHOULDER

363
Q
  1. The of the horse should be deep and broad. - HS 10
    Trunk or Body
A

BODY

364
Q
  1. The back and loin together make up the . - HS 10
    Top Line
A

LINE

365
Q
  1. The top line must be strong for three reasons. What are they? -HS 10
A

protect internal organs, bear the weight of the rider, transmit propulsion from the hind legs to the front end.

366
Q
  1. What is the weakest part of the top line? - HS 10
A

LOIN

367
Q
  1. A underline can cause a horse to forge. - HS 10
A

SHORT

368
Q
  1. Another name for croup is . - HS 11
A

RUMP

369
Q
  1. A thick neck and filled throat latch gives a lack of flexion of the . - HS 11
A

HEAD

370
Q
  1. Any abnormal deviation in the structural function of a horse constitutes a(n) . - HS 12
A

UNSOUNDNESS

371
Q
  1. An example of a(n) is an unsightly scar or rope burn. - HS 12
A

BLEMISH

372
Q
  1. Any time a horse is lame, we can suspects a(n) . - HS 12
A

UNSOUNDNESS

373
Q
  1. is any irregularity in gait which results from moving with pain or difficulty. - HS 12
A

LAMENESS

374
Q
  1. Any mark or blemish that impairs usefulness and another name for unsoundness is . - HS 12
A

DEFECT

375
Q
  1. A blue or whitish eye is called a(n) eye. - HS 12
A

GLASS

376
Q
  1. is free from any abnormal deviation in structure or function. - HS 12
A

SOUND

377
Q
  1. is an undesirable outward arched profile of the nose area. - HS 13
A

Roman Nose

378
Q
  1. Enlarged, stretched flexor tendons behind the cannon bones are tendons. - HS 13
A

BOWED

379
Q
  1. is a displaced patella of stifle joint. - HS 13
    Stifled
A

STIFLED

380
Q
  1. is a puffy swelling which appears on upper part of the hock and in front of the large tendon. - HS 13
A

THOROUGHPIN

381
Q
  1. is the swelling of a vein usually below bog spavin. - HS 13
A

Blood Spavin

382
Q
  1. The science of the structure of the animal body and the relation of its parts is . - HS 14
A

ANATOMY

383
Q
  1. The angle of bite is the outer angle at which the upper and lower meet. - HS 14
A

INCISORS

384
Q
  1. are the centrally located upper and lower incisors. - HS 14
A

CENTERS

385
Q
  1. Canine teeth are sometimes referred to as . - HS 14
A

TUSHES

386
Q
  1. star is a star shaped or circle like structure near the center of the wearing surface of the permanent incisors. - HS 14
A

DENTAL

387
Q
  1. __________ is a slender tooth in front used for biting grass, feed, etc. - HS 14
A

INCISOR

388
Q
  1. Full mouth is when the horse has a complete set of permanent . - HS 14
A

INCISORS

389
Q
  1. There are four major ways to estimate the age of horses by the appearance of their teeth. What are they?
A

Occurrence of permanent teeth, Disappearance of cups, Angle of incidence, and Shape of the surface of the permanent teeth

390
Q
  1. The foal’s temporary teeth appear by the time it is two weeks old. - HS 15
A

PREMOLAR

391
Q
  1. A young horse has a total of temporary teeth. - HS 15
A

24

392
Q
  1. is the term for a pair of teeth when the biting surfaces are in direct contact causing wear on their surfaces. - HS 15
A

In wear

393
Q
  1. is parallel to the long part of the tooth. - HS 15
A

LONGITUDINAL

394
Q
  1. are rear teeth or grinding teeth of the horse. - HS 15
A

MOLARS

395
Q
  1. A horse has a smooth mouth at age . - HS 15
A

11

396
Q
  1. Besides age, the number of permanent teeth also depends on the horse’s . - HS 16
A

Sex/Gender

397
Q
  1. Mares commonly have permanent teeth. - HS 16
A

36

398
Q
  1. Male horses have permanent teeth, not including wolf teeth. - HS 16
A

40

399
Q
  1. The angle of incidence is less that degrees in older horses. - HS 17
A

90

400
Q
  1. From about 8-12 years, the back inside surfaces of the incisors become . - HS 17
A

OVAL

401
Q
  1. The Galvayne’s Groove appears at the gum margin of the upper corner incisor at about __________ years of age. - HS 17
A

YEARS

402
Q
  1. Galvayne’s Groove extends halfway down the tooth at age . - HS 17
A

15

403
Q
  1. Galvayne’s Groove reaches the wearing surface at years old. - HS 17
A

20

404
Q
  1. Galvayne’s Groove completely vanishes after years. - HS 17
A

30

405
Q
  1. Wolf teeth are more common in horses. - HS 17
A

MALE

406
Q
  1. is the practice of trying to replace the cups located on the biting surface of the worn incisors in attempts to make a horse appear more youthful. - HS 17
A

BISHOPING

407
Q
  1. is the female parent of a horse. - HS 18
A

DAM

408
Q
  1. is the progeny of a stallion. - HS 18
A

GET

409
Q
  1. is the progeny of a mare. - HS 18
A

PRODUCE

410
Q
  1. is the male parent of a horse. - HS 18
A

SIRE

411
Q
  1. __________ are long, thread-like structures made of complex protein. - HS 18
A

CHROMOSOMES

412
Q
  1. Horses have _______ pairs of chromosomes. - HS 18
A

32

413
Q
  1. are the units of inheritance. - HS 18
A

GENES

414
Q
  1. are the “brains” of the cell. - HS 18
A

Genes

415
Q
  1. Phenotype is the appearance. - HS 20
A

OUTWARD

416
Q
  1. __________ means genetic makeup. - HS 20
A

GENOTYPE

417
Q
  1. Females sex genotype is . - HS 21
A

XX

418
Q
  1. Males sex genotype is . - HS 21
A

XY

419
Q
  1. A stallion mated to a jennet produces a . - HS 21
A

HINNY

420
Q
  1. A jackass mated to a horse produces a . - HS 21
A

MULE

421
Q
  1. The mule and hinny have chromosomes. - HS 21
A

63

422
Q
  1. A mare that is not in foal is a mare. - HS 22
A

BARREN

423
Q
  1. A male foal is a . - HS 22
A

COLT

424
Q
  1. What are the three estrogenic hormones?
A

Estradiol, Estrone, Estriol

425
Q
  1. is commonly called heat. - HS 22
A

ESTRUS

426
Q
  1. is the sperm entering the egg. - HS 22
A

FERTILIZATION

427
Q
  1. The unborn animal as it develops in the uterus is a . - HS 22
A

FETUS

428
Q
  1. is a female foal up to three years old. - HS 22
A

FILLY

429
Q
  1. is a colt or filly under one year old. - HS 22
A

FOAL

430
Q
  1. is an altered or castrated horse. - HS 22
A

GELDING

431
Q
  1. The egg and sperm are both __________ cells. - HS 22
A

SEX

432
Q
  1. The is the place where sperm are stored while they mature. - HS 22
A

EPIDIDYMIS

433
Q
  1. The testicle and epididymides are located in the . - HS 22
A

SCROTUM

434
Q
  1. The is the tube that carries urine from the bladder through the penis. - HS 22
A

URETHRA

435
Q
  1. The combined fluid from the accessory glands and sperm is called . - HS 23
A

SPERM

436
Q
  1. is the capacity to produce sex cells. - HS 23
A

PUBERTY

437
Q
  1. The primary sex organ of the mare is the . - HS 23
A

OVARY

438
Q
  1. What are the four sections of the duct system in the female reproductive system? -HS 23
A

Oviducts, Uterus, Cervix, Vagina

439
Q
  1. The various parts of the duct system are connected together and attached internally to the upper body wall by a series of . - HS 23
A

LIGAMENTS

440
Q
  1. The ovaries produce the . - HS 23
A

EGGS

441
Q
  1. Each egg is contained in a bubble called a . - HS 23
A

FOLLICLE

442
Q
  1. The catches the egg when it is released by the ovary. - HS 23
A

INFUNDIBULUM

443
Q
  1. regulates the corpus luteim in the female and testosterone secretion in the male. - HS 23
A

Luteinizing Hormone

444
Q
  1. The is the dense center of a cell that contains the genetic material. - HS 23
A

NUCLEUS

445
Q
  1. is the time when the follicle bursts and the egg is released. - HS 23
A

OVULATION

446
Q
  1. Ovulation is the time when the bursts and the egg is released. - HS 23
A

FOLLICLE

447
Q
  1. The scientific name for egg is . - HS 23
A

OVUM

448
Q
  1. is commonly called the “after-birth.” - HS 23
A

Placenta

449
Q
  1. The is the gland located at the base of the brain that secretes hormones which regulate the body. - HS 23
A

PITUITARY

450
Q
  1. inhibits the action of estrogens. - HS 23
A

PROGESTERONE

451
Q
  1. is the hormone that initiates lactation. - HS 23
A

PROLACTIN

452
Q
  1. A is a male horse that has retained one or both testicles in his body cavity. - HS 23
A

RIDGLING

453
Q
  1. The tube through which both semen and urine pass through the penis of the male is the . - HS 24
A

URETHRA

454
Q
  1. The is the muscular, spongy organ where the unborn animal develops. - HS 24
A

UTERUS

455
Q
  1. The tube that carries sperm from the epididymis to the urethra in the male is . - HS 24
A

Vas deferens

456
Q
  1. What are the three phases of the estrous cycle? -HS 24
A

Diestrus, Proestrus, Estrus

457
Q
  1. The mare is called because she cycles continuously throughout the breeding season in the absence of conception. - HS 24
A

POLYESTRUS

458
Q
  1. Most mares that exhibit no outward signs of estrus during winter months are said to be during that time. - HS 24
A

ANESTROUS

459
Q
  1. The most easily recognized phase of the estrous cycle is . - HS 24
A

ESTRUS

460
Q
  1. Ovulation occurs day(s) before the end of estrus. - HS 24
A

ONE

461
Q
  1. The sperm and the egg unite in the . - HS 25
A

OVIDUCT

462
Q
  1. What are the three portions of the sperm cell? - HS 25
A

Head, Midpiece, Tail

463
Q
  1. The genetic material of the sperm cell is contained in the section. - HS 25
A

HEAD

464
Q
  1. is the time during which the fertilized egg develops in the uterus. - HS 25
A

PREGNANCY

465
Q
  1. Waste products from the fetus are eliminated through the . - HS 25
A

PLACENTA

466
Q
  1. Successful pregnancy ends in birth, also known as . - HS 26
A

PARTURITION

467
Q
  1. The first milk is also called . - HS 26
A

COLOSTRUM

468
Q
  1. A mature non-breeding female is called a mare. - HS 26
A

SPAYED

469
Q
  1. The horse is a , or a plant-eater. - HS 27
A

HERBIVORE

470
Q
  1. What are the six parts that make up the horse’s digestive tract? -HS 27
A

Mouth, Pharynx, Esophagus, Stomach, Small intestine, Large intestine

471
Q
  1. What are the six other organs that aid in digestion? -HS 27
A

Lips, Teeth, Tongue, Salivary glands, Liver, Pancreas

472
Q
  1. Digestion begins with , the grasping of feed by the lips to bring it into the mouth. - HS 27
A

PREHENSION

473
Q
  1. The jaw is slightly wider than the jaw. - HS 27
A

Upper, Lower (specific order)

474
Q
  1. The horse must in order for salivation to occur. - HS 27
A

CHEW

475
Q
  1. What are the three pairs of salivary glands? -HS 28
A

Parotid, Submaxillary, Sublingual

476
Q
  1. Saliva consists primarily of . - HS 28
A

WATER

477
Q
  1. Deglutition occurs when the feed is pushed into place by the tongue and forced through the pharynx into the . - HS 28
A

ESOPHAGUS

478
Q
  1. The is a muscular passage where both air and feed cross. - HS 28
A

PHARYNX

479
Q
  1. The keeps feed from entering the windpipe. - HS 28
A

EPIGLOTTIS

480
Q
  1. Feed is pushed through the esophagus by , wave-like muscular contractions. - HS 28
A

PERISTALSIS

481
Q
  1. The esophagus is located on the side of the neck. - HS 28
A

LEFT

482
Q
  1. At the end of the esophagus, feed is passed through the sphincter into the stomach. - HS 28
A

CARDIAC

483
Q
  1. What muscle prevents horses from belching or vomiting?- HS 28
A

Cardiac Sphincter

484
Q
  1. In the stomach, mixes with the digesta and acidifies it. - HS 29
A

Hydrochloric acid

485
Q
  1. is an enzyme that works to digest protein. - HS 29
A

PEPSIN

486
Q
  1. Pepsin is an enzyme that works to digest . - HS 29
A

PROTEIN

487
Q
  1. is an enzyme that helps digest fats. - HS 29
A

Gastric lipase

488
Q
  1. Gastric lipase is an enzyme that helps digest . - HS 29
A

FATS

489
Q
  1. A horse’s stomach is rarely emptied completely, unless feed is withheld for hours or longer. - HS 29
A

24

490
Q
  1. What are the three regions of the small intestine? -HS 29
A

Duodenum, Jejunum, Ileum

491
Q
  1. Digesta leaving the stomach passes through the , a muscle at the junction of the stomach and small intestine. - HS 29
A

Pyloric Sphincter

492
Q
  1. The first section of the small intestine, the , is the most active site of digestion. - HS 29
A

DUODENUM

493
Q
  1. The bile duct from the liver and pancreatic duct from the pancreas deposit digestive secretions into the . - HS 29
A

DUODENUM

494
Q
  1. Bile assists in the digestion of . - HS 29
A

FATS

495
Q
  1. What are the three enzymes secreted by the pancreas? -HS 29
A

Trypsin, Pancreatic Amylase, Pancreatic Lipase

496
Q
  1. Pancreatic amylase digests . - HS 29
A

STARCHES

497
Q
  1. Pancreatic lipase works with bile to digest . - HS 29
A

FATS

498
Q
  1. is the pancreatic hormone. - HS 29
A

INSULIN

499
Q
  1. The jejunum is the region of the small intestine. - HS 29
A

MIDDLE