day1

Question 1

The distance of the Earth to the most remote normal galaxy is calculate to be

Answer 1

9x10^25 m

Question 2

distance from earth to nearest known galaxy (Andromeda)

Answer 2

2x10^22 m

Question 3

distance from Earth to most remote known Quasar

Answer 3

1.4x10^26 m

Question 4

Distance from Earth to nearest known star (Proxima Centauri)

Answer 4

4x10^16 m

Question 5

determination of nitrogen based on the conversion of organic nitrogen to ammonia, which is then separated by distillation and determined by titration

Answer 5

kjeldahl method

Question 6

which of the following pairs will form a buffer solution in the course of a titration?

a. nitric acid, sodium hydroxide
b. sulfuric acid, potassium hydroxide
c. acetic acid, sodium hydroxide
d. hydrochloric acid, potassium hydroxide

Answer 6

c. acetic acid, sodium hydroxide

Question 7

When a can of soda is opened and CO2 is released to the atmosphere, what is the resultant pH of the soda?

a. decreases
b. increases
c. the same
d. all these

Answer 7

b. increases

Question 8

define a salt in terms of acid and base

a. a salt is a compound that follows Le Chatelier’s Principle in reactions with other compounds
b. all of these
c. a salt is a compound formed when the nucleus of a hydrogen tom enters a quantity of water
d. a salt is a compound (other than water) produced by the reaction of an acid and a base

Answer 8

d. a salt is a compound (other than water) produced by the reaction of an acid and a base

Question 9

when benzoic acid dissolves in water, it partially reacts with water and ionizes to form benzoate and hydronium ions. in this reaction, what is the conjugate acid?

a. benzoate ions
b. hydronium ions
c. water
d. benzoic acid

Answer 9

b. hydronium ions

Question 10

water at room temperature usually has a slightly acidic pH. this is largely attributed to what compound(s)?

a. sulfuric acid
b. dissolved metals
c. carbonic acid
d. nitric acid

Answer 10

c. carbonic acid

Question 11

are galvanic cells and electrolytic cells the same? why?

a. no, because galvanic cells are electrochemical cells in which chemical cells occur simultaneously; while in electrolytic cells. the chemical reaction is caused by an externally applied potential difference.
b. no, because galvanic cells need a constant supply of electricity while electrolytic cells depend on intermittent source of power
c. yes, because they are both electrochemical cells and their uses are common to each other
d. yes, because galvanic cells and electrolytic cells are both electrochemical cells

Answer 11

a. no, because galvanic cells are electrochemical cells in which chemical cells occur simultaneously; while in electrolytic cells. the chemical reaction is caused by an externally applied potential difference.

Question 12

what is the significance of colligative property in physical chemistry?

a. it refers to the freezing point depression, boiling point elevation osmotic pressure and lowering of the vapor pressure by a nonvolatile solute.
b. it refers to the temperature, pressure and energy of fusion of volatile solutes in phase equilibrium
c. it refers to the non-existence of pressure among molecules within the solute
d. it refers to the temperature differentials exhibited by non-volatile solutes in reactions

Answer 12

a. it refers to the freezing point depression, boiling point elevation osmotic pressure and lowering of the vapor pressure by a nonvolatile solute.

Question 13

which of the following statements is true?

a. trouton’s rule fails for highly polar liquids
b. it is impossible to go from vapor phase to liquid phase without condensation
c. for C compounds and P phases, there are a total of CP intensive variables to be specified
d. at high pressures, the latent heat of vaporization is a measure of the strength of the intermolecular forces of the liquid

Answer 13

a. trouton’s rule fails for highly polar liquids

Question 14

among the following, which compound will produce the lowering of the vapor pressure of a solution?

a. sucrose, c12h22o11
b. aluminum chloride, alcl3
c. table salt, nacl
d. sodium sulfate, na2so4

Answer 14

a. sucrose, c12h22o11

Question 15

when a solute is introduced to a liquid system the entropy of the said system

a. increases
b. decreases
c. stays the same
d. can’t be determined

Answer 15

a. increases

Question 16

in a process involving osmosis, at equilibrium, the chemical potential of the pure solvent side should be _____ the chemical potential of the side with solute

a. less than
b. more than
c. equal to
d. can’t be determined

Answer 16

c. equal to

Question 17

all colligative properties stem from the ____ of the chemical potential of the liquid solvent as a result of the presence of the solute

a. reduction
b. change
c. enlargement
d. a or b or c, depending on the identities of the solute and solvent

Answer 17

a. reduction

Question 18

for miscible systems, the boiling point of the solution is

a) lower than the boiling point of the liquid with the lower boiling point
b. between the boiling points of the two liquids
c. above the boiling point of the liquid with the higher boiling point
d. cannot be determined

Answer 18

b. between the boiling points of the two liquids

Question 19

the coexistence curve where the plot of pressure versus temp along which the two phases coexist was shown by clausius clapeyron. what did clausius postulate?

a) the clapeyron equation was simplified by assuming that the vapor obeys the ideal gas law and by neglecting the molat volume of the liquid in comparison with the molar volume of the gas
b. the clausius-clapeyron equation does not apply to this situation
c. the clausius-clapeyron theory is applicable only for vaporization and sublimation condition
d. both scientists apply their postulates to linear and curvilinear representation

Answer 19

a) the clapeyron equation was simplified by assuming that the vapor obeys the ideal gas law and by neglecting the molat volume of the liquid in comparison with the molar volume of the gas

Question 20

what is the clapeyron equation?

a. any of these
b. it postulates that the colligative properties, freezing point depression, boiling point elevation, osmotic pressure, and vapor pressures are all dependent on the number f particles in the solution and any change thereof is described
c. it postulates that if two components systems consisting of solid and liquid phases are miscible in the liquid state and immiscible in the solid state, only the pure solid systems will separate out on cooling solutions
d. it postulates that if the temperature and pressure are both change in such a way as to keep the chemical potentials of two phases equal to each other, the rates of change are given by the equation.

Answer 20

d. it postulates that if the temperature and pressure are both change in such a way as to keep the chemical potentials of two phases equal to each other, the rates of change are given by the equation.

Question 21

the clausius-clapeyron equation does NOT apply to

a) S-V equilibrium
b. L-V equilibrium
c. S-L equilibrium
d. None of these

Answer 21

c. S-L equilibrium

Question 22

the clapeyron equation gives the slope

a) dv/dt
b) dt/dp
c) dt/dv
d) dp/dt

Answer 22

d) dp/dt

Question 23

it is the property of a fluid that is caused by shearing effect of a fluid layer moving past another layer

a. density
b. viscosity
c. flow.
d. compressibility

Answer 23

b. viscosity

Question 24

which of the following does not have a zero enthalpy of formation at 298.15 K

a. Li (g)
B. He (g)
c. Hg (l)
d) Br2 (l)

Answer 24

a. Li (g)

Question 25

choose the process that occurs with a decrease in entropy a. freezing of water b. boiling of water c. dissolving salt in water d. sublimation of dry ice

Answer 25

a. freezing of water

Question 26

define entropy a. entropy is a function of the state of the system and determines whether a physical change or chemical reaction can occur simultaneously in a closed system b. entropy is the opposite of enthalpy c. entropy determines the time required for a reaction to proceed and complete d. all of these

Answer 26

d. all of these

Question 27

an adiabatic process is one in which the system under investigation is thermally isolated so that there is no exchange of heat with the surroundings. thus, the work done on a closed system in an adiabatic process is ____ a. equal to zero b. not equal to the exchange of heat with surroundings c. equal to the increase in internal energy of the system d. not equal to the increase in internal energy of the system

Answer 27

c. equal to the increase in internal energy of the system

Question 28

the fugacity of a real gas is equal to: a. the pressure of an ideal gas which has the same chemical potential as the real gas b. the pressure of a real gas which has the same chemical potential as the ideal gas c. the chemical potential of an ideal gas which has the same pressure as the real gas d. the chemical potential of a real gas which has the same pressure as the ideal gas

Answer 28

a. the pressure of an ideal gas which has the same chemical potential as the real gas

Question 29

the equilibrium intensive state of a system is described by specifying the temp pressure and a. mole fractions b. number of moles c. volume d. chemical potential

Answer 29

a. mole fractions

Question 30

the general statement of the Third Law of Thermodynamics is attributed to a. Nikolaus Otto b. Jacobus Clapeyron c. William Clausius d. Walther Nernst

Answer 30

d. Walther Nernst

Question 31

Which of the following statements is/are true? 1. the criterion of equilibrium at constant temp and pressure id dG= 0 2. for a reversible process, ds=dQ/T a. 1 only b. both 1 and 2 c. 2 only d. none of the above

Answer 31

b. both 1 and 2

Question 32

heat required to raise the temp of 1 lbm of water by 1F a. calorie b. BTU c. specific heat d. heat capacity

Answer 32

b. BTU

Question 33

the amount of heat absorbed when co2 gas reacts with a solid CaO to form solid CaCO3 is measured in a bomb calorimeter. the data obtained give a direct measure of a. delta U b. VdeltaP c. delta H d. Cp

Answer 33

a. delta U

Question 34

if the entropy of a system decreases, the entropy of its surroundings a. must always increase b. must always decrease c. may increase or decrease d. not enough information to answer the question

Answer 34

a. must always increase

Question 35

increasing the temperature of the cold reservoir ___ the carnot efficiency a. increases b. decreases c. does not change d. NOTA

Answer 35

b. decreases

Question 36

An isentropic process is a. isothermal and adiabatic b. reversible and isothermal c. reversible and adiabatic d. reversible and isochoric

Answer 36

c. reversible and adiabatic

Question 37

which of the following is not conserved in any process? a. mass b. energy c. momentum d. entropy

Answer 37

d. entropy

Question 38

a sample of an ideal gas has an internal energy of U and is then compressed to 1/2 of its original volume while the temperature stays the same. what is the new internal energy of the ideal gas in terms of U? a. U b. U/2 c. U/4 d. 2U

Answer 38

a. U

Question 39

which of the following is a characteristic of an adiabatic process? a. delta U = 0 b. W = 0 c. Q=0 d. delta V =0

Answer 39

c. Q=0

Question 40

the internal energy of an ideal gas depends on a. volume b. absolute temperature c. pressure d. number of moles

Answer 40

c. pressure

Question 41

this is the pressure exerted by the gas molecules that are in equilibrium with the liquid a. partial pressure b. atmospheric pressure c. total pressure d. vapor pressure

Answer 41

d. vapor pressure

Question 42

when gas molecules collide, they experience _ collision a. perfectly elastic b. imperfect elastic c. perfectly inelastic d. imperfect inelastic

Answer 42

a. perfectly elastic

Question 43

which of the following is false with KMT? a. gas molecules move in random motion b. due to collision of gas molecules with each other, some kinetic energy is lost c. the temperature of the whole system does not change with time d. the size of the molecules are negligible

Answer 43

b. due to collision of gas molecules with each other, some kinetic energy is lost

Question 44

for a real gas, what causes the deviation from the ideal pressure at a molecular level? a. energy is lost for each collision against the sides of the container b. energy is lost due to the collision of molecules with one another c. intermolecular forces of attraction of the molecules with one another d. molecules randomly hit the sides of the wall with less force than usual

Answer 44

c. intermolecular forces of attraction of the molecules with one another

Question 45

an ideal gas will only be considered in the following operating parameters a. high temp, high pressure b. high temp, low pressure c. low temp, high pressure d. low temp, low pressure

Answer 45

b. high temp, low pressure

Question 46

which of the following is false regarding absolute zero? a. all molecules will stop moving b. absolute zero can be achieved c. temp is 0K d, temp is 0R

Answer 46

b. absolute zero can be achieved

Question 47

which among the following radioactive nuclides is often attributed as the greatest source of radiation that affects most of the population? a. strontium-90 b. americium-241 c. polonium-218 d. radon-222

Answer 47

d. radon-222

Question 48

which among the following statements regarding nuclear fission is false? a. nuclear fission is a nuclear reaction in which a heavy nucleus splits into lighter nucleus and energy is released b. a series of self-sustaining nuclear fissions is called a nuclear chain reaction c. nuclear fission is the main proponent of nuclear power plants, atomic bombs, and hydrogen bombs d. critical mass is the minimum amount of a fissionable material that can cause a nuclear chain reaction

Answer 48

c. nuclear fission is the main proponent of nuclear power plants, atomic bombs, and hydrogen bombs

Question 49

in which among the following can a Cherenkov Radiation be observed? a. in the water surrounding the core of a nuclear reactor b. in the mushroom cloud produced after a hydrogen bomb explosion c. in a particle accelerator after the bombardment of two nuclides d. in the sun's corona during solar eclipse

Answer 49

a. in the water surrounding the core of a nuclear reactor

Question 50

determine the number of days it will take for 1 mg of Rubidium to decay to 0.6 mg a.132 b. 98 c. 64 d. 211

Answer 50

c. 64

Question 51

which among the following is the phosphor of scintillation counter intended for the detection of gamma radiation? a. zinc sulfide b. metastable technetium-99 c. NaI crystals containing Thallium (II) Iodide d. Buckminsterfullerene

Answer 51

c. NaI crystals containing Thallium (II) Iodide

Question 52

which among the following can detect the neutrons produced by U-235 undergoing nuclear fission? a. A geiger counter containing fluorine gas b. a scintillation counter containing zinc sulfide and xenon c. a geiger counter containing argon and boron trifluoride d. a scintillation counter containing tungsten carbide

Answer 52

c. a geiger counter containing argon and boron trifluoride

Question 53

which among the following radioactive decay series does not occur naturally? a. actinium series b. uranium series c. neptunium series d. thorium series

Answer 53

c. neptunium series

Question 54

protium is a/an ____ of hydrogen while protium, deuterium, and tritium comprise the hydrogen ____ a. isotope, isotopes b. nuclide, nuclides c. nuclide, isotopes d. isotope, nuclides

Answer 54

c. nuclide, isotopes

Question 55

which among the following scientists discovered radioactivity? a. marie curie b. henri becquerel c. otto hahn d. ernest rutherford

Answer 55

b. henri becquerel

Question 56

positive electron

Answer 56

positron

Question 57

has a higher penetrating power than gamma rays

Answer 57

neutrons

Question 58

ghost particle

Answer 58

neutrino

Question 59

which of the acid combination is the dominant composition of acid rain? a. nitric acid and carbonic acid b. nitric acid and sulfuric acid c. carbonic acid and sulfuric acid d. none of the above

Answer 59

b. nitric acid and sulfuric acid

Question 60

the rate at which temp changes with altitude is called a. temperature change b. thermal rate c. lapse rate d. vertical rate

Answer 60

c. lapse rate

Question 61

pick out the wrong statement a. the concentric atmosphere layer just above troposphere is called stratosphere, which is rich in ozone b. mesosphere is characterized by very low atmosphere pressure and low temp c. troposphere is a dusty zone containing water vapor and clouds d. the radio waves used in long distance radio communication are reflected to earth by stratosphere

Answer 61

d. the radio waves used in long distance radio communication are reflected to earth by stratosphere

Question 62

it is an odorless gas that is lethal to humans with exposure as short as a few minutes to concentrations exceeding 5000 ppm. it reacts with hemoglobin in the blood rendering the latter incapable of carrying oxygen to the body a. carbon monoxide b. hydrogen supplied c. sulfur dioxide d. sulfur trioxide

Answer 62

a. carbon monoxide

Question 63

collective term for the initial POPS identified by the stockholm convention a. Dirty 12 b. 12 POPS c. Dirty Dozens d. EDCs

Answer 63

c. Dirty Dozens

Question 64

a global treaty that aims to diminish and eventually phase out chlorofluorocarbons a. stockholm convention b. kyoto protocal c. montreal protocol d. none of these

Answer 64

c. montreal protocol

Question 65

regulate emmisions of greenhouse gases

Answer 65

kyoto protocol

Question 66

aims to diminish and eventually phase out chlorofluorocarbons

Answer 66

montreal protocol

Question 67

aims to protect human health and the environment from persistent organic pollutants

Answer 67

stockholm convention

Question 68

"smokey mountain" is a typical example of a facility for solid waste. it is classified as a. open dumping site b. sanitary landfill c. transfer station d. material recovery facility

Answer 68

a. open dumping site

Question 69

an act to control toxic substances and hazardous and nuclear wastes providing penalties for violation thereof

Answer 69

RA6969

Question 70

ecological solid waste management act

Answer 70

RA 9003

Question 71

clean air act of the philippines

Answer 71

RA 8749

Question 72

A code for plastics used for food wrapping, trash bags, grocery bags and baby diapers a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5

Answer 72

c. 4

Question 73

water treatment that destroys disease-causing bacteria, nuisance bacteria, parasites and other organisms and removes soluble irons, manganese and hydrogen sulfide from water a. disinfection b. flocculation c. chlorination d. coagulation

Answer 73

c. chlorination

Question 74

process whereby coarse matter of a certain size can be strained out of flowing water with the aid of bars, fines wires or rocks a. screening b. sedimentation c. flotation d. flocculation

Answer 74

a. screening

Question 75

removal of all settleable particles rendered settleable under the influence of gravity, basically the theory of gravity under the influence of which all particles heavier than water tend to settle down a. screening b. flotation c. sedimentation d. flocculation

Answer 75

c. sedimentation

Question 76

hard water can be softened by a. letting the calcium or magnesium ions settle out b. passing it through an ion exchanger c. chlorination d. filtration

Answer 76

b. passing it through an ion exchanger

Question 77

type of wastewater treatment that employs physical and chemical treatment methods to remove or reduce a high percentage of suspended solids and toxic materials a. primary treatment b. secondary treatment c. tertiary treatment d. minor treatment

Answer 77

a. primary treatment

Question 78

sum of all polyvalent cations

Answer 78

water hardness

Question 79

a trace metal which causes itai-itai diseases is a. cadmium b. silver c. mercury d. chromium

Answer 79

a. cadmium

Question 80

involves the accumulation of trace metals through each species of the food chain a. biomagnification b. denitrification c. anaerobic respiration d. eutrophication

Answer 80

a. biomagnification

Question 81

it is phenomenon that results in the overabundance of algae growth in bodies of water. it is also the natural process of nutrient enrichment that occurs over time in a body of water a. biomagnification b. eutrophication c. anaerobic respiration d. thermal inversion

Answer 81

b. eutrophication

Question 82

which of the following is not a physical characteristic of wastewater a. odor b. turbidity c. color d. hardness

Answer 82

d. hardness

Question 83

in the determination of BOD, the reaction takes place in the dark because a. the microorganisms are sensitive to light b. oxygen is sensitive to light c. the reaction is enhanced in the dark d. algae may be present and produce oxygen

Answer 83

d. algae may be present and produce oxygen

Question 84

in determination of BOD, the reaction takes place at a. 20C b. 30C c. 40C d. 50C

Answer 84

a. 20C

Question 85

a measure of the amount of O2 needed to oxidize organics using strong oxidizing agents in acid media

Answer 85

chemical oxygen demand

Question 86

a measure of the amount of o2 needed by microorganism to decompose biodegradation organics at a specified time, temp and ph

Answer 86

Biological oxygen demand

Question 87

the color of wastewater containing little or no dissolved oxygen is a. gray b. black c. brown d. reddish brown

Answer 87

b. black

Question 88

dissolved oxygen in water is reduced during a. winter b. summer c. spring d. autumn

Answer 88

b. summer

Question 89

actual quantity of free o2 present in water

Answer 89

dissolved oxygen

Question 90

a measure of the amount of o2 needed to oxidize completely an organic matter whose chemical formula is known

Answer 90

theoretical oxygen demand

Question 91

the total solids in water are due to the presence of a. suspended and dissolved solids b. suspended and floating solids c. colloidal and settleable solids d. colloidal and bacterial load

Answer 91

a. suspended and dissolved solids

Question 92

sodium ions contribute to which characteristics of the water a. pH b. color c. hardness d. total dissolved solids

Answer 92

d. total dissolved solids

Question 93

which of the ff is not used in measuring turbidity a. jackson turbidimeter b. secchi disk depth c. photoelectric colorimeter d. none of these

Answer 93

c. photoelectric colorimeter

Question 94

gas responsible for rotten egg odor of wastewater a. ammonia b. amines c. mercaptans d. hydrogen sulfide

Answer 94

d. hydrogen sulfide

Question 95

navigable waters

Answer 95

class SD

Question 96

water quality guidelines and general effluent standards

Answer 96

DAO No. 2016-08

Question 97

Philippine Clean Water Act of 2004

Answer 97

RA9275

Question 98

the electron-group geometry of h2o is a. trigonal planar b. trigonal pyramidal c. bent d. tetrahedral

Answer 98

d. tetrahedral

Question 99

what is the molecular geometry of nh4 a. bent b. trigonal pyramidal c. tetrahedral d. trigonal planar

Answer 99

c. tetrahedral

Question 100

when light of sufficient energy shines on a metal, electrons are knocked off the surface of the metal. what is this phenomenon called? a. electron harvesting b. photoelectric effect c. blackbody radiation d. illumination

Answer 100

b. photoelectric effect

Question 101

which among the following is the third gas that william ramsay isolated with morries travers? a. argon b. krypton c. neon d. xenon

Answer 101

d. xenon

Question 102

who among the following proposed the idea correlating molecular geometry and valence electron pairs that would later become the valence shell electron pair repulsion or VSEPR theory? a. Nevil Sidgwick b. Herbert Powell c. Ronald Nyholm d. Ryutaro Tsuchida

Answer 102

d. Ryutaro Tsuchida

Question 103

which element constituted the need of a new group in the original design of dmitri mendeleev's periodic table a. gallium b. argon c. mercury d. tungsten

Answer 103

b. argon

Question 104

the precision of knowing a particles momentum indicates that its loci would be impossible to determine is one way of interpreting which among the following a. aufbau principle b. pauli exclusion principle c. compton effect d. heisenberg principle

Answer 104

d. heisenberg principle

Question 105

empirical formula of Human dna

Answer 105

C39H50O22N15P3

Question 106

what properties of electrons are used in the operation of an electron microscope?

Answer 106

wave properties

Question 107

only country that is named after an element

Answer 107

argentina