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AAL Basic Indoc > Day 8 Test (January 2023) > Flashcards

Day 8 Test (January 2023) Flashcards

1
Q

The captain must conduct the takeoff (ground roll through clean-up) when visibility is less than _________ ft. RVR for any RVR on that runway, or 1⁄4 statue mile (if no RVR is reported for that runway.

A

1600 RVR or 1/4 SM

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2
Q

The Takeoff and Approach Legality Tables can be found in:

A

FOM and QRH on some fleets.

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3
Q

If established ____________________ and ATC issues a microburst alert for the runway of intended landing, a go-around must be executed, and if necessary, accomplish windshear escape procedures

A

On the final approach segment of an approach.

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4
Q

For extended ground delays, the Tarmac Delay clock starts _________________.

A

When the last cabin entry door used for passengers is closed.

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5
Q

Should the required equipment fail prior to entering RVSM airspace ________________.

A

Contact ATC to get clearance that avoids flight within RVSM airspace

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6
Q

ATC Phraseology for taxiing into position for takeoff on the departure runway and waiting for takeoff clearance is:

A

Line up and wait.

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7
Q

What are the minimums for the circle-to-land maneuver?

A

1000 ft / 3 miles.

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8
Q

The FOM sets forth corporate policies, procedures, ________________.

A

FARs and AA operations specifications.

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9
Q

The following operational priorities, which must be taken into consideration to ensure operating integrity and consistency in American Airlines’ system of service are:

A

Safety, customer service, and operating economics.

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10
Q

___________ come at the crew, ___________ come from the crew.

A

Threats; Errors.

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11
Q

In reference to the Threat and Error Management (TEM) Model, what does it mean to be in the yellow?

A

You are marginal and your focus has narrowed.

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12
Q

The ABCs in the Threat and Error Management (TEM) Model stand for?

A

ACTIVELY monitor and assess
BALANCE available barriers
COMMUNICATE
SOPs (follow)

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13
Q

Air Total Halon extinguisher can be used on _________ type fires.

A

Class A, B, and C.

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14
Q

When operating any of the Halon fire extinguishers, the first step is to:

A

Break the safety wire holding the pin or lever on the handle.

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15
Q

Notes direct the pilot to review the Attention All Users Page. This page is to be reviewed when?

A

Prior to conducting a PRM approach.

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16
Q

Regarding ILS/PRM breakout procedures, if you receive instructions from the controller that conflict with a TCAS RA vertical guidance, you should…

A

Follow RA vertical guidance and comply with the controller’s lateral instructions.

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17
Q

The No Transgression Zone (NTZ) is…

A

An area at least 2000 ft wide between the simultaneous parallel approach courses.

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18
Q

A person with a communicable disease cannot be refused boarding as long as he/she has a letter from the _________________ certifying travel is not a danger to others.

A

Center for Disease Control (CDC) or a physician.

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19
Q

American Airlines ___________ limit the number of disabled individuals and _________ refuse transportation to a person based on their disability.

A

cannot; cannot.

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20
Q

For general thunderstorms with radar tops between 25,000-30,000 feet, avoid all detectable precipitation and visible cloud by:

A

At least 5 miles.

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21
Q

The ________________ is recognized as potentially the most dangerous form of windshear.

A

Microburst Windshear.

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22
Q

Volcanic Ash:

A

Can cause rapid damage to the engine.

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23
Q

What is FLT 649’s planned takeoff weight? (refer to load plan given during test)

A

177.3

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24
Q

If the temperature stays the same on FLT 649 with the current TPS, Departing on runway 07L, which of the following intersections can you accept for departure?

A

E4

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25
Q

If FLT 649 plans to depart RWY 07L, what are the V1, VR, and V2 speeds?

A

156, 164, 164.

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26
Q

Holdover time is defined as the:

A

Estimated time between the start of the fluid application and fluid failure.

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27
Q

The primary source for holdover time calculations is the:

A

HOT iPad app.

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28
Q

Per CFR 121.629 and the Winter Ops Part I CBT, Clean Aircraft policy states:

A

No person may dispatch…

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29
Q

If, inflight, you recognize the onset of any of the symptoms of hypoxia:

A

Don your oxygen mask immediately.

30
Q

The onset of hypoxia can be affected by ____________ and overall health condition.

A

Age, Weight, Being a smoker.

31
Q

Compliance with an RA is required unless:

A

In the captain’s opinion, doing so would compromise the safe operation of the flight.

32
Q

When responding to a resolution advisory, the pilot must:

A

Disconnect AP and hand fly.

33
Q

The “LEVEL OFF, LEVEL OFF” RA requires crew to:

A

Reduce vertical speed of the aircraft to 0 fpm.

34
Q

Pilots must be proficient at _____________ of automation.

A

All levels

35
Q

Regaining aircraft control ______________.

A

Should never be delayed by the use of automation.

36
Q

The pilot flying is incapacitated if they fail to respond to ___________ verbal requests for a checklist item:

A

2

37
Q

The key to early recognition of pilot incapacitation is ______________.

A

The regular use of the appropriate crew resource management concept.

38
Q

If the pilot flying is confirmed to be incapacitated, ______________.

A

Take over control and declare an emergency.

39
Q

Dimensions of RVSM airspace extend from:

A

FL290 - FL410

40
Q

You have leveled off in cruise and are accomplishing your altimeter check. Maximum divergence between both primary altimeter systems is:

A

200 ft

41
Q

Where can the flight crew find the total souls on board count info?

A

TSOB number listed on the load closeout.

42
Q

What is the closeout zero fuel weight for Flight 42?

A

120,680

43
Q

The flight crew will use the _________________ as the final weight and balance for
each flight.

A

Load Closeout

44
Q

A weight restricted flight is designated via a warning issued on the TPS Departure Plan when the planned weight of the aircraft is within ______________ lbs of any structural or inflight weight restriction.

A

1500

45
Q

When an enroute clearance is received, it is the flight crew’s responsibility to ensure that the clearance is in conformance with such factors as _____________ for terrain clearance.

A

MEAs, MOCAs, and MORAs.

46
Q

What are your MINIMUM safe altitudes for IFR operations on airways?

A

Minimum Enroute Altitude (MEA) & Minimum Obstacle Clearance Altitude (MOCA)

47
Q

Flight 649, what is the Min TO fuel?

A

26691

48
Q

Flight 649, what is the total fuel burn from PHX to DFW?

A

14102

49
Q

Flight 649, what is the initial planned top of climb altitude?

A

FL250

50
Q

Notify ___________ as soon as possible of a decision to divert to any airport other than the intended destination.

A

Dispatch

51
Q

A flight may not land at an airport that is not the destination or a designated alternate on the original dispatch release unless:

A

An amended dispatch release is obtained or the captain exercises emergency authority.

52
Q

An MEL with a follow-up action will be shown on the release as ______________.

A

“*F”

53
Q

A ______________ placard is used for MEL/CDL/NEF items if they are continuing maintenance actions or repetitive checks.

A

Yellow

54
Q

Prior to the first flight on a particular aircraft, all flight crewmembers shall review the AML. What should this include?

A

At least 3 calendar days worth of the AML pages.

55
Q

Driftdown decision points and enroute alternate information will appear in ___________, if applicable

A

The body section of the flight plan/dispatch release.

56
Q

Per TSA regulations, the Gate Reader is the preferred method of verifying a crewmember’s ID. If the Gate Reader is not operable, and the captain is present, the __________ may advise the gate agent that they have checked the identity and flight assignment of each working crewmember present prior to the crewmember entering the jetbridge.

A

Captain

57
Q

Who is designated the Inflight Security Coordinator

A

Only the Captain.

58
Q

FAMs _________________ in a passenger disturbance in the cabin.

A

May or may not intervene.

59
Q

ICAO standard intercept signals are located in the…

A

FOM

60
Q

What is the threat level category for disruptive or suspicious behavior?

A

Level 1

61
Q

An attempted breach of the flight deck would be classified as what threat level?

A

Level 4

62
Q

What actions by the flight crew are required for a threat level 4 in flight?

A

Declare an emergency with ATC, squawk 7500, expect intercept intervention, and land as soon as possible at the nearest suitable airport.

63
Q

If a suspect device is discovered aboard the aircraft while in flight, follow the least risk bomb location (LRBL)/ bomb on board procedures located in the ___________.

A

Quick Reference Handbook (QRH)

64
Q

Watch for suspicious behavior any time the door is open and call out ____________ anytime the door needs to be closed immediately.

A

“Door! Door! Door!”

65
Q

To return to the flight deck, the pilot will:

A

Use the interphone and then wait to have their presence confirmed through the flightdeck door viewer (peep hole).

66
Q

_______________ will fly the approach and land the aircraft when the reported visibility is less than CAT I minimums.

A

Captain / PIC

67
Q

Published Cat II ILS approaches may be conducted when the reported RVR is less than ___________, but not less than _______________,

A

RVR 1800 / RVR 1000

68
Q

An aircraft with a “Limited Extended Overwater” placard on the AML can operate no more than ___________ NM from shore in the Gulf of Mexico

A

162

69
Q

American Airlines policy is to change the altimeter setting from QNH to QNE when:

A

Climbing and approaching the transition altitude

70
Q

The ICAO Standard for altimeter setting units of measurement is _____________.

A

Hectopascals

71
Q

Max dry ice limit

A

440 lbs or 200 kg

AAL Basic Indoc (2 decks)

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