Day 8 Test (January 2023) Flashcards

1
Q

The captain must conduct the takeoff (ground roll through clean-up) when visibility is less than _________ ft. RVR for any RVR on that runway, or 1⁄4 statue mile (if no RVR is reported for that runway.

A

1600 RVR or 1/4 SM

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2
Q

The Takeoff and Approach Legality Tables can be found in:

A

FOM and QRH on some fleets.

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3
Q

If established ____________________ and ATC issues a microburst alert for the runway of intended landing, a go-around must be executed, and if necessary, accomplish windshear escape procedures

A

On the final approach segment of an approach.

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4
Q

For extended ground delays, the Tarmac Delay clock starts _________________.

A

When the last cabin entry door used for passengers is closed.

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5
Q

Should the required equipment fail prior to entering RVSM airspace ________________.

A

Contact ATC to get clearance that avoids flight within RVSM airspace

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6
Q

ATC Phraseology for taxiing into position for takeoff on the departure runway and waiting for takeoff clearance is:

A

Line up and wait.

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7
Q

What are the minimums for the circle-to-land maneuver?

A

1000 ft / 3 miles.

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8
Q

The FOM sets forth corporate policies, procedures, ________________.

A

FARs and AA operations specifications.

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9
Q

The following operational priorities, which must be taken into consideration to ensure operating integrity and consistency in American Airlines’ system of service are:

A

Safety, customer service, and operating economics.

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10
Q

___________ come at the crew, ___________ come from the crew.

A

Threats; Errors.

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11
Q

In reference to the Threat and Error Management (TEM) Model, what does it mean to be in the yellow?

A

You are marginal and your focus has narrowed.

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12
Q

The ABCs in the Threat and Error Management (TEM) Model stand for?

A

ACTIVELY monitor and assess
BALANCE available barriers
COMMUNICATE
SOPs (follow)

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13
Q

Air Total Halon extinguisher can be used on _________ type fires.

A

Class A, B, and C.

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14
Q

When operating any of the Halon fire extinguishers, the first step is to:

A

Break the safety wire holding the pin or lever on the handle.

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15
Q

Notes direct the pilot to review the Attention All Users Page. This page is to be reviewed when?

A

Prior to conducting a PRM approach.

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16
Q

Regarding ILS/PRM breakout procedures, if you receive instructions from the controller that conflict with a TCAS RA vertical guidance, you should…

A

Follow RA vertical guidance and comply with the controller’s lateral instructions.

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17
Q

The No Transgression Zone (NTZ) is…

A

An area at least 2000 ft wide between the simultaneous parallel approach courses.

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18
Q

A person with a communicable disease cannot be refused boarding as long as he/she has a letter from the _________________ certifying travel is not a danger to others.

A

Center for Disease Control (CDC) or a physician.

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19
Q

American Airlines ___________ limit the number of disabled individuals and _________ refuse transportation to a person based on their disability.

A

cannot; cannot.

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20
Q

For general thunderstorms with radar tops between 25,000-30,000 feet, avoid all detectable precipitation and visible cloud by:

A

At least 5 miles.

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21
Q

The ________________ is recognized as potentially the most dangerous form of windshear.

A

Microburst Windshear.

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22
Q

Volcanic Ash:

A

Can cause rapid damage to the engine.

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23
Q

What is FLT 649’s planned takeoff weight? (refer to load plan given during test)

A

177.3

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24
Q

If the temperature stays the same on FLT 649 with the current TPS, Departing on runway 07L, which of the following intersections can you accept for departure?

A

E4

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25
If FLT 649 plans to depart RWY 07L, what are the V1, VR, and V2 speeds?
156, 164, 164.
26
Holdover time is defined as the:
Estimated time between the start of the fluid application and fluid failure.
27
The primary source for holdover time calculations is the:
HOT iPad app.
28
Per CFR 121.629 and the Winter Ops Part I CBT, Clean Aircraft policy states:
No person may dispatch...
29
If, inflight, you recognize the onset of any of the symptoms of hypoxia:
Don your oxygen mask immediately.
30
The onset of hypoxia can be affected by ____________ and overall health condition.
Age, Weight, Being a smoker.
31
Compliance with an RA is required unless:
In the captain’s opinion, doing so would compromise the safe operation of the flight.
32
When responding to a resolution advisory, the pilot must:
Disconnect AP and hand fly.
33
The “LEVEL OFF, LEVEL OFF” RA requires crew to:
Reduce vertical speed of the aircraft to 0 fpm.
34
Pilots must be proficient at _____________ of automation.
All levels
35
Regaining aircraft control ______________.
Should never be delayed by the use of automation.
36
The pilot flying is incapacitated if they fail to respond to ___________ verbal requests for a checklist item:
2
37
The key to early recognition of pilot incapacitation is ______________.
The regular use of the appropriate crew resource management concept.
38
If the pilot flying is confirmed to be incapacitated, ______________.
Take over control and declare an emergency.
39
Dimensions of RVSM airspace extend from:
FL290 - FL410
40
You have leveled off in cruise and are accomplishing your altimeter check. Maximum divergence between both primary altimeter systems is:
200 ft
41
Where can the flight crew find the total souls on board count info?
TSOB number listed on the load closeout.
42
What is the closeout zero fuel weight for Flight 42?
120,680
43
The flight crew will use the _________________ as the final weight and balance for each flight.
Load Closeout
44
A weight restricted flight is designated via a warning issued on the TPS Departure Plan when the planned weight of the aircraft is within ______________ lbs of any structural or inflight weight restriction.
1500
45
When an enroute clearance is received, it is the flight crew’s responsibility to ensure that the clearance is in conformance with such factors as _____________ for terrain clearance.
MEAs, MOCAs, and MORAs.
46
What are your MINIMUM safe altitudes for IFR operations on airways?
Minimum Enroute Altitude (MEA) & Minimum Obstacle Clearance Altitude (MOCA)
47
Flight 649, what is the Min TO fuel?
26691
48
Flight 649, what is the total fuel burn from PHX to DFW?
14102
49
Flight 649, what is the initial planned top of climb altitude?
FL250
50
Notify ___________ as soon as possible of a decision to divert to any airport other than the intended destination.
Dispatch
51
A flight may not land at an airport that is not the destination or a designated alternate on the original dispatch release unless:
An amended dispatch release is obtained or the captain exercises emergency authority.
52
An MEL with a follow-up action will be shown on the release as ______________.
“*F”
53
A ______________ placard is used for MEL/CDL/NEF items if they are continuing maintenance actions or repetitive checks.
Yellow
54
Prior to the first flight on a particular aircraft, all flight crewmembers shall review the AML. What should this include?
At least 3 calendar days worth of the AML pages.
55
Driftdown decision points and enroute alternate information will appear in ___________, if applicable
The body section of the flight plan/dispatch release.
56
Per TSA regulations, the Gate Reader is the preferred method of verifying a crewmember’s ID. If the Gate Reader is not operable, and the captain is present, the __________ may advise the gate agent that they have checked the identity and flight assignment of each working crewmember present prior to the crewmember entering the jetbridge.
Captain
57
Who is designated the Inflight Security Coordinator
Only the Captain.
58
FAMs _________________ in a passenger disturbance in the cabin.
May or may not intervene.
59
ICAO standard intercept signals are located in the…
FOM
60
What is the threat level category for disruptive or suspicious behavior?
Level 1
61
An attempted breach of the flight deck would be classified as what threat level?
Level 4
62
What actions by the flight crew are required for a threat level 4 in flight?
Declare an emergency with ATC, squawk 7500, expect intercept intervention, and land as soon as possible at the nearest suitable airport.
63
If a suspect device is discovered aboard the aircraft while in flight, follow the least risk bomb location (LRBL)/ bomb on board procedures located in the ___________.
Quick Reference Handbook (QRH)
64
Watch for suspicious behavior any time the door is open and call out ____________ anytime the door needs to be closed immediately.
“Door! Door! Door!”
65
To return to the flight deck, the pilot will:
Use the interphone and then wait to have their presence confirmed through the flightdeck door viewer (peep hole).
66
_______________ will fly the approach and land the aircraft when the reported visibility is less than CAT I minimums.
Captain / PIC
67
Published Cat II ILS approaches may be conducted when the reported RVR is less than ___________, but not less than _______________,
RVR 1800 / RVR 1000
68
An aircraft with a “Limited Extended Overwater” placard on the AML can operate no more than ___________ NM from shore in the Gulf of Mexico
162
69
American Airlines policy is to change the altimeter setting from QNH to QNE when:
Climbing and approaching the transition altitude
70
The ICAO Standard for altimeter setting units of measurement is _____________.
Hectopascals
71
Max dry ice limit
440 lbs or 200 kg