Day 5 Flashcards
56 year old female presents to the general practitioner with a three month history of a persistent cough, dyspnoea and left-sided pleuritic chest pain.
She works as a teacher and is not aware of any previous exposure to asbestos or other occupational carcinogens.
She has no significant past medical history and is a life-long non-smoker.
Full blood count reveals a thrombocytosis.
A chest X-ray is requested which shows a peripheral opacity in the left lower zone.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
What is a likely complication?
Adenocarcinoma of the lung
Adenocarcinoma is the most common type of lung cancer seen in non-smokers and women.
It arises from mucus cells in the bronchial epithelium and is typically found in the peripheral airways.
It commonly invades the pleura, causing pleuritic chest pain and can present with pleural effusion.
A 65 year old woman presents with an episode of haemoptysis to the GP.
She reports that this has happened several times over the past three months and she has noticed some weight loss.
She does not smoke and has worked as a secretary for all her adult life.
Her only significant past medical history was that of breast cancer when she was 40, for which she was treated with wide local excision and radiotherapy.
She has a family history of breast cancer.
What is the single most important risk factor for the development of lung cancer within her history?
previous radiotherapy
A 75 year old gentlemen with known multiple myeloma presents to the A&E with increasing confusion.
He has an AMTS of 6/10 when you see him and you obtain a collateral history from his carer who reports that over the past two days he has become increasingly disorientated in time, place and person.
His cognition is persistently poor and is not fluctuating.
He complains of pain in his thigh and reports that he has become increasingly constipated over the past week.
There are no signs or symptoms of infection.
What is the single most likely cause of his confusion?
Hypercalcaemia
There is a diverse range of causes for confusion in oncology patients:
- Metabolic disturbance (hypoglycaemia, hypercalcaemia)
- Infection (pneumonia, UTI)
- Metastatic spread to the brain
- Anaemia
- Intense pain
- Side effects of pain medication
A 21 year old lady visits the GP to discuss contraception. She is three weeks postpartum and is currently breast-feeding. She has no other relevant medical history. Previously, she used the combined oral contraceptive pill and would like to go back to that.
Which is the most appropriate form of contraception to offer?
Progesterone only pill
This is the only suitable option for a postpartum woman actively breast-feeding.
A 55 year old man presents to A&E with dyspnoea and stridor.
He has a background of bronchial carcinoma.
On examination he has distended veins over his chest, there is inspiratory stridor heard and Pemberton’s test is positive.
What is Pemberton’s sign?
Examination of the chest is otherwise normal.
What is the single most likely diagnosis?
Superior vena cava obstruction
The patient presents with classical symptoms of superior vena cava obstruction given his background of bronchial carcinoma with dyspnea and distended veins.
He is Pemberton’s sign positive; the diagnostic test for this condition.

A 21 year old woman attends the sexual health clinic requesting emergency contraception after having unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI) eight days ago. She is currently on day 17 of a regular 30 day cycle.
Which of the following is the most appropriate management option?
Copper intrauterine device (IUD)
The IUD is licensed for use either five days post UPSI or five days post earliest possible ovulation - whichever is later. Earliest possible ovulation date is worked out by length of cycle - 14 days. In this patient, it is day 16 (30-14). Therefore, she falls within this five day window.
A 73-year-old man with a diagnosis of Stage III non-small cell lung cancer with mediastinal nodal involvement is being followed up in the lung cancer clinic. He has a notable past medical history of chronic kidney disease and is approaching end-stage renal impairment. The patient reports a three month history of gradually worsening headaches and double vision. A neurological exam is performed which reveals an ataxic gait, but no other focal neurology.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Which investigation is the best investigation to confirm the underlying diagnosis?
Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the brain
This patient is presenting with signs and symptoms of raised intracranial pressure (ICP), likely secondary to brain metastases of his lung cancer. More specifically, these are likely cerebellar metastases which have resulted in diplopia and ataxia.
Brain metastases are typically best visualised using a contrast-enhanced computed tomography (CT scan). However, contrast is nephrotoxic, and therefore contraindicated in this patient due to their significant renal impairment.
An MRI is therefore the best option to visualise these intracerebral metastases. MRI scans are particularly effective in delineating at high resolution the soft tissue structure within the cerebellum. As such, they are often used in preference to contrast CT scans for cerebellar metastases, especially when assessing the resectability of a tumour.
A 75 year old man presents to his GP with increasingly problematic diarrhoea for the past two weeks.
He complains that it is associated with pain on defecation and there is occasionally blood present on the outside of his stool.
He has tried loperamide over the counter but reports that this has not had any effect.
He denies any fever or vomiting and has not had any unexplained weight loss over the past couple of months.
He reports that he is currently receiving external beam radiotherapy for prostate cancer. He has no other past medical history.
What is the single most likely cause?
Radiotherapy
This is the correct answer. A common side effect of radiotherapy to the prostate region would be mucositis in the rectum called proctitis. This can lead to diarrhoea and the presence of blood in the stool.
A 48 year old woman attends the sexual health clinic to discuss contraception.
She tells you she thinks she’s going through ‘the change’, as she stopped having periods 12 months ago, and asks whether she still needs contraception.
She has a past medical history of breast cancer, which was successfully treated two years ago.
Her medications include Atorvastatin and Cetirizine as required.
She smokes five cigarettes a day and consumes three units of alcohol a week.
Her observations in clinic today are normal.
Which of the following advice is most appropriate?
Copper intrauterine device (IUD)
The IUD is the only suitable option for this patient due to her history of breast cancer.
A 30-year old woman presents to the Emergency Department with shortness of breath. She has recently returned from holiday in America.
Clinical examination is unremarkable.
A diagnosis of pulmonary embolism is suspected.
What is the most common ECG finding in a pulmonary embolus?
Sinus tachycardia
The most common ECG finding in patients with pulmonary embolism is sinus tachycardia. Other features such as the right axis deviation and right ventricular strain pattern may also be seen. These ECG changes occur due to the dilatation of the right atrium and ventricle, as well as right ventricular ischaemia. Tachycardia can also be secondary to fever and pain.
A 69-year-old man with metastatic prostate cancer on the oncology ward is complaining of worsening pain.
He is currently taking modified release oral Morphine 60 mg twice daily, with 10 mg immediate release Morphine solution as required for breakthrough pain.
He is currently taking two doses of immediate release morphine a day.
The medical team decides to convert this to a subcutaneous administration, because he is frequently vomiting.
What is the correct dose of morphine to give over a 24 hour period using a continuous subcutaneous infusion?
70mg infusion over 24hr
This patient is requiring a daily dose of 140 mg oral Morphine (60x2 + 10x2) for adequate pain control.
Morphine administered subcutaneously is twice the strength of oral Morphine, and therefore 140/2 = 70mg of subcutaneous Morphine represents an equivalent dose.
A 42 year old man with a diagnosis of acute myeloid leukaemia is two days post his initial cycle of chemotherapy.
He presents to A&E with nausea, vomiting and diarrhoea. He is apyrexial and reports that he been going to the toilet less frequently during the past two days.
He reports no headache, dyspnoea or back pain.
He was prescribed no medication prior to the onset of his chemotherapy.
His observations are normal. Routine bloods show that the full blood count is normal.
What is the single most likely diagnosis?
Tumour lysis syndrome
This is the correct answer, given his haematological malignancy and his symptoms.
Common symptoms include nausea, vomiting and muscle pain.
A 65 year old woman presents to the Accident and Emergency Department with a three month history of persistent cough and bloody sputum.
She has complained that she has lost 2 stones unintentionally over the past few months. She has smoked cigarettes for the past forty years. However, last night she developed a headache and noticed her face was swollen more than usual.
On examination, there is a raised JVP, and stridor when she raises her arm above her head.
What is the most appropriate immediate management?
Immediate oral dexamethasone 8mg
The patient has presented with an oncological emergency of Superior Vena Cava obstruction. 75% of lung tumours are responsible for this complication and it can result in facial plethora, raised JVP and inspiratory stridor upon performing Pemberton’s test. Therefore, the most appropriate immediate management would be to give the patient oral dexamethasone first.
When is Mannitol prescribed?
Mannitol is given for patients with raised intracranial pressure.
Raised intracranial pressure can occur due to metastasis or primary CNS tumours.
A 30 year old woman attends the pre-operative assessment clinic for an elective laparoscopic cholecystectomy procedure in eight weeks’ time. She takes no medications other than the combined oral contraceptive pill (OCP).
Which of the following is the most appropriate advice to give regarding her pill and surgery?
Stop the pill four weeks before surgery, commence an alternative form of contraception in the interim and then restart 2 weeks after surgery
Both surgery and taking the OCP are risk-factors for venous thromboembolism - stopping the OCP (and replacing it with another method) reduces this risk, and continues to protect from pregnancy.
An 89 year old Type 2 diabetic is being treated for a urinary tract infection with IV gentamicin.
He has a small peripheral cannula placed in the back of his hand.
During his admission his capillary blood glucose measurements are repeatedly >15mmol/L.
His gliclazide is therefore increased from 80mg BD to 160mg BD.
The next evening he is noted to become significantly more agitated and confused. A capillary blood glucose measurement returns at 2.9mmol/L.
What is the most appropriate initial management of this patient?
Carton of fruit juice
This is an ideal choice for mild hypoglycaemia because it contains plenty of short chain carbohydrates which will rapidly increase blood glucose.
A 50-year-old man with a diagnosis of diffuse large B-cell lymphoma is brought into A&E by his wife after experiencing abdominal pain, cramps and vomiting.
He is three days post his second cycle of chemotherapy consisting of Rituximab, Cyclophosphamide, Doxorubicin, Vincristine and Prednisolone.
On questioning, he has no other symptoms apart from not having passed urine in the last 13 hours.
His observations are as follows: Heart rate 110 beats per minute, Blood pressure 90/55, Respiratory rate 25, Oxygen saturation 95% on room air, Temperature 37.4oC.
Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management?
Fluid resuscitation with 500 mL 0.9% sodium chloride
This is the correct answer. This man is presenting with symptoms of tumour lysis syndrome. This is a condition which typically presents a few days after chemotherapy and is common for haematological malignancies, particularly non-Hodgkin lymphomas. The administration of chemotherapy can cause significant cell death in mitotically active tumours, resulting in the extravasation of intracellular contents such as nucleic acids into the circulation. These are then broken down into uric acid and phosphate. Uric acid can precipitate in renal tubules leading to an acute kidney injury, which may cause the anuria as reported by this patient. Raised phosphate levels sequester free Ca2+ ions in the bloodstream, leading to hypocalcaemia and its characteristic symptoms, such as tetany (cramps) and vomiting.
This man has significant risk factors for tumour lysis syndrome and combined with anuria means that he may have an acute kidney injury. The most appropriate management for this should be fluid resuscitation in the first instance, particularly given his hypotension.
A 85-year-old man with a known diagnosis of Stage II squamous cell lung cancer presents to A&E with a one week history of severe progressive back pain and difficulty walking.
He has a background of severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease with frequent exacerbations and two previous myocardial infarctions which required stenting.
He is admitted and an urgent magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan of the spine reveals metastatic cord compression at multiple vertebral levels.
Which of the following options represent the most appropriate management for this patient’s condition?
Refer to the clinical oncology team for radiotherapy
This patient has presented with metastatic spinal cord compression and will require intervening to prevent further cord compression and neurological loss.
As the patient has multiple severe cardiopulmonary co-morbidities, and because the compression is at multiple levels rather than a single level, they are unlikely to be a candidate for neurosurgical intervention.
Radiotherapy is the most appropriate management option to help decompress the spinal metastases and palliate this patient’s symptoms.
A 47 year old man with a known adrenal mass presents complaining of severe headache and sweating.
He is mildly pyrexial and his BP is 231/143mmHg.
An ECG shows some sub-criteria ST elevation in the lateral leads.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
What is the most appropriate initial management?
Phentolamine
This is the ideal initial management of a symptomatic phaeochromocytoma because it blocks mainly alpha adrenergic receptors leading to vasodilation and reduction in blood pressure.
A 74 year old woman presents to the Emergency Department with pain in her upper back.
The pain started four days ago and is often worse at night and when lying flat.
On examination, there is no swelling or deformity but there is tenderness at the T10 level.
There is bilateral impaired sensation below the groin, global weakness and spastic hypertonia in the legs.
Her observations are stable.
Her past medical history includes breast cancer diagnosed two months ago, for which she underwent a surgical resection.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
What are the red flags?
Malignant spinal cord compression
Given her recent history of breast cancer and the pain being worse at night and when lying flat, malignant spinal cord compression is the most likely diagnosis.
The characteristic pain is often worse at night and when lying flat, as this allows further compression of the spine which exacerbates the symptoms.
The presence of sensory and upper motor neuron neurology in the legs indicates that the cord is being compressed.
A 77-year-old male with a recent diagnosis of Non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL) presents to A&E with shortness of breath and stridor.
Pemberton’s test is positive.
The patient is moved into a sitting position and given high-flow oxygen (15L/min via a non-rebreathe mask).
Given the likely diagnosis, what is the next step in management of the patient in the emergency department?
Dexamethasone
This is the correct answer. This patient likely has superior vena cava syndrome caused by compression of the superior vena cava by a tumour (Non-Hodgkin lymphoma can cause superior vena cava syndrome). Pemberton’s test involves asking the patient to lift their arms above their head. If this causes facial plethora, the patient has Pemberton’s sign (i.e. a positive Pemberton’s test). Dexamethasone can reduce swelling and oedema associated with the tumour, helping to reduce the external compression of the superior vena cava.
A 50-year-old man with Stage I small cell lung cancer presents to his GP with a two week history of tingling in his hands and feet.
He is being treated with chemoradiotherapy consisting of a 30 gray radiation dose, and combination Cyclophosphamide, Doxorubicin, Vincristine and Etoposide.
What is the most likely cause of his current symptoms?
Vincristine administration
Peripheral neuropathy is a significant and common side effect of Vincristine, which acts by inhibiting microtubule formation at the mitotic spindle.
Other chemotherapeutic agents that cause peripheral neuropathy include other vinca alkaloids such as Vinblastine (to a lesser extent than Vincristine), platinum-based agents such as Cisplatin, and taxanes such as Paclitaxel and Docetaxel.
Classical side effects to be aware of include:
Anthracyclines (doxorubicin, daunorubicin)
anti-HER-2 monoclonal antibodies
Platinum agents (cisplatin, carboplatin)
Cyclophosphamides
Tamoxifen
Bleomycin
Cisplatin
Cytarabine
Classical side effects to be aware of include:
Anthracyclines (doxorubicin, daunorubicin) cause cardiomyopathy
anti-HER-2 monoclonal antibodies (e.g. Herceptin)cause cardiomyopathy
Platinum agents (cisplatin, carboplatin) cause peripheral neuropathy and sensorineural hearing loss.
Cyclophosphamides lead to haemmorhagic cystitis and transitional cell carcinoma of the bladder.
Tamoxifen increases the risk of endometrial cancer
Bleomycin can cause lung fibrosis
Cisplatin has a risk of ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity
Cytarabine can cause ataxia
A 50 year old man presents to the clinic with a new diagnosis of hepatocellular carcinoma.
He has a past medical history of chronic hepatitis B, pernicious anaemia, ulcerative colitis and a previous infection with hepatitis A. He smokes 20 cigarettes a day and has a past history of drug abuse including IV heroin.
What is the single risk factor that is most likely to have contributed to the diagnosis of hepatocellular carcinoma?
Chronic Hepatitis B
chronic hepatitis B increases the risk of hepatocellular carcinoma significantly.














