Day 3 ILE & CQP Flashcards
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Immediate Action Item
You are notified of smoke coming out of the aft galley oven.
- What is the immediate action item?
- What checklist do you call for?
- Oxygen Masks & Regulators…ON, 100%
Smoke Goggles (if required)…ON
Smoke, Fire or Fumes in Passenger Cabin or Flight Deck Checklist
Immediate Action Item
Level at FL240, you notice stabilizer trim wheel moving continuously in a nose down direction
- What is the immediate action item?
- What checklist do you call for?
- Control Column - Hold Firmly
- AP (if engaged) - Disengage
- AT (if engaged) - Disengage
- Control Column & Thrust Levers - Control aircraft pitch attitude and airspeed
- Main Electric Stabilizer Trim - Reduce Control Column Forces
- If the runaway stops after the AP is disengaged:
DO NOT re-engage the AP or the AT… - If the runaway trim continues after the AP is disengaged:
STAB TRIM Cutout Switches (both) - CUTOUT
If the runaway condition continues:
Stabilizer Trim Wheel - Grasp & Hold
Runaway Stabilizer Checklist
Immediate Action Item
At FL350, an intermittent warning horn sounds
1. What is the immediate action item?
2. What checklist do you call for?
- Oxygen Masks & Regulators - On, 100%
- Crew Communication - Establish
CABIN ALTITUDE WARNING or Rapid Depressurization Checklist
Immediate Action Item
During departure you suspect the airspeed indications to be unreliable:
1. What is the immediate action item?
2. What checklist do you call for?
- AP (if engaged) - Disengage
- AT (if engaged) - Disengage
- FD (both) - OFF
- Set the following gear up pitch attitude and thrust
-If flaps extended, 10 deg, 80% N1
-If flaps up, 4 deg, 75% N1
Airspeed Unreliable Checklist
LIMITATIONS
What is the maximum tailwind component for takeoff and landing?
15 KTS
LIMITATIONS
What is the maximum operating altitude?
41,000 ft
LIMITATIONS
What is the Maximum Takeoff and Landing Altitude?
8,400 ft
LIMITATIONS
What is the Minimum Takeoff and Landing Temperature?
-54 C
LIMITATIONS
What is the Maximum Operating Speed Limit?
Observe Vmo/Mmo and Gear/Flap Placards
LIMITATIONS
What is the Severe Turbulence Penetration Target Speed?
280kts/.76M, whichever is lower
LIMITATIONS
With either one or both engine BLEED air switches ON, do not operate air condition in HIGH for ____.
Takeoff, approach, or landing
LIMITATIONS
The engine anti-ice system must be ON during all ground and flight operations when icing conditions exist or are anticipated, except ____.
during cruise and climb below -40C SAT.
LIMITATIONS
Engine anti-ice must be ON prior to and during descent ____.
In all icing conditions including temperatures below -40C SAT.
LIMITATIONS
[MAX] Engine anti-ice (EAI) must be ____ when not in actual or anticipated icing conditions.
OFF
LIMITATIONS
What is the earliest you can engage autopilot on takeoff?
1,000 ft AGL
LIMITATIONS
When is the latest you would have to disengage the AP on a single channel approach?
50 ft AGL
LIMITATIONS
When must the AP be disengaged on an HGS AIII approach?
By 500’ AGL
LIMITATIONS
Can you use aileron trim with the AP engaged?
No.
LIMITATIONS
What is the minimum warm-up time for operating the engines?
3 minutes
LIMITATIONS
What is the minimum cool-down time for shutting down the engines?
3 minutes
LIMITATIONS
What is the Maximum Time Limit for Takeoff Thrust?
5 minutes, but 10 minutes allowed in the event of loss of thrust on one engine during takeoff.
LIMITATIONS
What is the minimum engine oil temperature before setting takeoff thrust on the 737 MAX?
+31 C
LIMITATIONS
When must the Engine Start switches be in the CONT position?
During takeoff, landing, anti-ice operation, and operation in hail, sleet or moderate to heavy rain.
LIMITATIONS
When must the Engine Start switches be in the FLT position?
In severe turbulence
LIMITATIONS
Intentional selection of reverse thrust in flight ____.
is prohibited
LIMITATIONS
What is the maximum altitude to use the APU for a Bleed and Electric Load?
10,000 ft
LIMITATIONS
What is the maximum altitude to use the APU for Bleed Only?
17,000 ft
LIMITATIONS
What is the maximum altitude to use the APU for Electric Only?
41,000 ft
LIMITATIONS
What is the Maximum Operating Altitude for the APU?
41,000 ft
LIMITATIONS
Ensure APU BLEED air switch is closed for 2 minutes ____
and for 1 minute ____.
after start, prior to shutdown
LIMITATIONS
APU bleed valve may be open during engine start but avoid engine power ____.
above idle
LIMITATIONS
Except for engine start, the APU bleed valve must be closed when another source is pressurizing ____.
the left bleed air duct
LIMITATIONS
What is the maximum flap extension altitude?
20,000 ft
LIMITATIONS
Holding in icing conditions with flaps extended is ____.
Prohibited
LIMITATIONS
Do not deploy speed brakes in flight ____.
Below 1,000 ft AGL
LIMITATIONS
In flight, do not extend the SPEED BRAKE lever ____.
Beyond the flight detent
LIMITATIONS
Do not deploy speed brakes with ____.
More than flaps 10 extended
LIMITATIONS
In the 700W/900ER, manually overriding the Load Alleviation System ____.
is not authorized
LIMITATIONS
What is the minimum fuel temperature?
-37C unless the actual fuel freezing point is known
LIMITATIONS
Allowable lateral imbalance between Main Tanks 1 and 2 must be scheduled to be ____.
Zero
LIMITATIONS
Fuel imbalance must not exceed 1000 lbs for ____.
taxi, takeoff, flight, or landing
LIMITATIONS
Main Wing Tanks must be scheduled to be full if the Center Tank contains more than ____.
1,000 lbs
LIMITATIONS
For ground operation, Center Tank FUEL PUMP switches must not be positioned to ON unless the Center tank fuel quantity exceeds
1,000 lbs, except when defueling or transferring fuel
LIMITATIONS
Center Tank Fuel Pumps must not be ON unless personnel are available in the Flight Deck to monitor ____.
The low pressure light
LIMITATIONS
For ground and flight operations, the corresponding Center Tank Fuel Pump switch must be positioned to OFF when the ____.
LOW PRESSURE light illuminates
LIMITATIONS
If the Center Tank is empty, position both Center Tank FUEL PUMP switches to ____.
OFF
LIMITATIONS
Ground operation of electric hydraulic pump requires minimum ____.
1,675 lbs of fuel in respective fuel tank
The STAB OUT OF TRIM (amber) light is:
- Armed when?
- Illuminated when?
- Armed when AP is engaged
- Illuminated when not trimming the stabilizer properly
If windshear is encountered during an ILS approach, what will the FD command?
Glideslope and LOC; no windshear guidance will be provided until TO/GA is pressed.
After the VOR/LOC and G/S are both captured, the APP mode can be exited by: ____.
- Pushing a TO/GA switch
- Disengaging A/P
- Turning off both F/D switches
- Re-tuning a VHF NAV receiver.
The Bank Angle Selector (rotate) sets maximum bank angle for AFDS operation in what modes?
HDG SEL or VOR modes
The Speed Trim improves flight characteristics during manual flight operations at ____, ____, ____, and ____.
- Low Airspeed
- Low Gross Weight
- Aft center of gravity
- High thrust
How many degrees of control wheel displacement initiates spoiler deflection?
When the control wheel is displaced more than approximately 10 degrees (1.6 units), spoiler deflection is initiated.
What happens when a FLT CONTROL switch is positioned to STBY RUD?
- It activates the Standby Hydraulic System, and
- Opens the Standby Rudder Shutoff Valve allowing Standby Hydraulic System pressure to the Standby Rudder PCU.
In the MAX, the rudder pressure will return to normal system operating pressure when:
- An engine failure is detected, or
- With both engine operating, airspeed is reduced below approximately 132 kts.
In the MAX, a SPOILERS (amber) Light indicates the Spoiler Control Electronic Unit has discovered what?
A Spoiler System Fault
The STANDBY PWR OFF (amber) light when illuminated,
indicates one or more of the following busses are unpowered: ____ or ____ or ____
AC Standby Bus
or
DC Standby Bus
or
Battery Bus
When does the BAT DISCHARGE light (amber) illuminate?
When excessive battery discharge is detected on the main battery and/or auxiliary battery.
When will the Generator DRIVE (amber) light illuminate?
- When there is a IDG failure
- Engine shutdown
- IDG disconnected by activation of the DISCONNECT switch
- IDG auto-decouple due to high oil temperature (182 C).
How long will two fully-charged batteries provide standby power?
Two fully-charged batteries have sufficient capacity to
provide standby power for a minimum of 60 minutes.
What does the BUS TRANSFER switch, in the AUTO (guarded) position, allow?
Allows the Bus Tie Breakers (BTB) to operate automatically to maintain power to AC transfer busses from any operating generator or external power.
The Center Switch on the EFIS control Panel must be in
which mode for the VSD to display?
MAP
The AOA Disagree Alert (amber) indicates the left and right AOA values disagree by more than ____ for more than ____ continuous seconds.
10°, 10
When does the ALTITUDE DISAGREE (amber) alert appear?
When CA and FO altitude indications disagree by more than 200 ft for more than 5 continuous seconds.
A vertical (amber) bar extending up from the top of the Minimum Speed Bar indicates what on the PFD?
Minimum Maneuvering (Vmvr) Speed
How is the HGS controlled on the MAX?
MCDU
The purpose of the PTU is to provide Hydraulic System B fluid at a flow rate (approximately 6.5 GPM) and pressure sufficient to provide normal rates of operations for the ____ and ____ in the event the Hydraulic System B Engine-Drive Pump output press drops below a specific value.
- Autoslats
- Leading Edge Devices (LED)
When is the automatic operation for Standby Hydraulic System initiated?
- When flaps are extended
- Airborne, or
- Wheel speed greater than 60kts, and loss of System A or B while FLT CONTROL switch positioned to ON - OR - the main PCU Force Flight Monitor (FFM) trips.
What pressurizes both System A and System B hydraulic reservoirs?
Regulated Bleed Air
When do the letters RF (white) appear?
REFILL (RF) indication is displayed (white) when hydraulic quantity is below 76%.
This indication is valid only when:
* the aircraft is on the ground with both engines shutdown, or
* after landing with flaps up during taxi-in.
How do you display the Hydraulics in the MAX?
MFS SYS Button
The Alternate Brake System is powered by ____.
Hydraulic System A
With RTO selected, if the takeoff is rejected prior to wheel speed reaching 90 kts: ____ and ____.
- Autobraking is not initiated, and
- The RTO autobrake function remains armed
How is braking available if both Hydraulic Systems A and B are lost?
Trapped hydraulic pressure in the Brake Accumulator (Hydraulic System B) can still provide several (6) brake applications or parking brake application for eight hours.
In the MAX, what are the positions of the Landing Gear Lever?
Up, Down
What kind of brake discs does the MAX have?
Carbon
The DC Fail (amber) light, when illuminated, indicates ____.
DC power for the related IRS is not normal.
What are indications of a left FMC failure?
- FMC alert light illuminates.
- The MENU page appears on both CDUs.
- VTK appears on the left navigation display.
- LNAV and VNAV will disengage, but can be reengaged if Autopilot B is in use or is selected.
LNAV will engage when ____.
laterally positioned within 3nm of the active route leg.
In the MAX, the FMC Alert light includes which new indication?
Runway Disagree
In the MAX, what fuel indications are on the Fuel Progress Page 5/5?
- APU Fuel Used
- Totalizer < ACT >
- Calculated
