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APK CI > DAY 10 > Flashcards

DAY 10 Flashcards

1
Q

Gait patterns between young (20-40 y.o.) and old (60-80 y.o.) people differ in their gait performance
as follows, EXCEPT: _______________.
a. Stride length is significantly greater in the younger persons
b. Peak knee extension is significantly less in the older persons
c. Peak hip flexion exhibit a slightly increase in the older persons
d. Stride time is shorter for the young than the old

A

d. Stride time is shorter for the young than the old

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2
Q

This muscle is a pure flexor of the elbow when the forearm is in midposition.
a. Pronator teres
b. Biceps brachii
c. Brachialis
d. Brachioradialis
e. Anconeus

A

d. Brachioradialis

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3
Q

Following are changes in the mechanical properties of muscle fibers occurring in patients with
spasticity, EXCEPT: __________________.
a. Increase muscle tone in the antigravity muscles
b. Increased levels of muscle fiber atrophy
c. Structural changes such as the appearance of target fibers
d. Contraction times of hand muscles and gastrocnemius muscles are diminished

A

d. Contraction times of hand muscles and gastrocnemius muscles are diminished

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4
Q

Tumor located at the premotor cortex will give rise to ________ side.
a. Incoordination of the contralateral side
b. Paralysis of the ipsilateral
c. Paralysis of the contralateral
d. Tremors of the ipsilateral side

A

a. Incoordination of the contralateral side

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5
Q

The posterior deltoid muscle fibers produce which of the following shoulder motions?
a. Abduction, external rotation and extension
b. Extension and external rotation
c. Flexion and extension
d. Extension and abduction

A

b. Extension and external rotation

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6
Q

What starts when foot contacts the floor and ends with subsequent floor contact on the same foot?
a. Gait cycle
b. Walking speed
c. Cadence
d. Normal gait

A

a. Gait cycle

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7
Q

A physical therapist uses a S.O.A.P note format for all of his daily documentation. The following will
be found in the assessment section of a S.O.A.P. note EXCEPT: ______.
a. Discussion of a client’s progress in therapy.
b. Short and long term goals.
c. Client’s rehabilitation potential
d. Client’s equipment needs and equipment ordered

A

d. Client’s equipment needs and equipment ordered

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8
Q

A therapist completes a daily progress note utilizing S.O.A.P. format. Which of the following entries
does NOT belong in the objective section?
a. Incision on the left anterior forearm covered with sterile strips
b. Left lower extremity range of motion within normal limits
c. Will receive continuous ultrasound to the right anterior shoulder at 1.5 W/cm2 for 5 minutes
d. Tenderness to palpation in L1-L2 area

A

c. Will receive continuous ultrasound to the right anterior shoulder at 1.5 W/cm2 for 5 minutes

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9
Q

A therapist complete daily documentation using S.O.A.P. note format. The following entries typically
belong to the subjective section, EXCEPT: ________.
a. Patient goal: return home without assistance
b. Complains of pain when reaching for his shoes
c. Hip hiking reproduces knee pain
d. Denies pain with cough or sneeze

A

c. Hip hiking reproduces knee pain

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10
Q

These lung segments can be auscultated anteriorly EXCEPT the ________ lobe.
a. Inferior lingual of the upper
b. Apical segment of the upper
c. Lateral segment of the middle
d. Medial segment of the lower

A

d. Medial segment of the lower

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11
Q

In proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation, the following statements are TRUE, EXCEPT:
_________.
a. When performing functional training using PNF, activities are broken down into parts and
the parts are practiced
b. The use of approximation promotes stability and balance while traction and stretch
increase the ability to move
c. When using PNF in gait training, resistance is used to increase the patient’s ability to
balance but not the ability to move
d. The use of a firm, large, pliant, smooth mat is ideal when performing PNF mat activities

A

c. When using PNF in gait training, resistance is used to increase the patient’s ability to
balance but not the ability to move

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12
Q

What percent is the energy expenditure in a single below knee amputee?
a. 20
b. 90
c. 50
d. 10
e. 30

A

a. 20

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13
Q

Which of the following examples therapeutically increase the pressure on a given area?
a. Frequent body weight shifts
b. Use of closed-cell foam shoe inserts for walking
c. Decreasing the force arm length in orthotics
d. Prescribing a wearing schedule for a prosthesis
e. Use of orthotics to increase the force arm length

A

c. Decreasing the force arm length in orthotics

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14
Q

Which hip-repair surgical procedure severs hip muscles and tendons around joint to decrease
pressure and pain within the joint? The success rate is low and return to full weight status is a lengthy
process.
a. Muscle release
b. Displacement osteotomy
c. Double-cup arthroplasty
d. Femoral prosthesis
e. Arthrodesis

A

a. Muscle release

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15
Q

You were training a patient to perform bed to chair transfer. If he was able to accomplish majority of
the transfer without assistance, how will your rate his performance?
a. Dependent with supervision
b. Independent
c. Dependent with close guarding
d. Dependent with minimum assistance

A

b. Independent

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16
Q

Sudden, violent, hurling movements of a limb may indicate a lesion of the ____________.
a. Basal Ganglia
b. Corticospinal tract
c. Cerebellum, cerebellum
d. Cerebral cortex
e. Corticobulbar tract

A

a. Basal Ganglia

17
Q

When measuring for a wheelchair seat height / leg length, measure from the user’s
a. toes to the fibular head.
b. height and divide by two.
c. heel to the fibular head and add 4 inches to clear the footrest.
d. heel to the popliteal fold and add 2 inches to allow clearance of the footrest
e. heel to the greater trochanter, divide by three add 2 inches to allow clearance of the
footrest.

A

d. heel to the popliteal fold and add 2 inches to allow clearance of the footrest

18
Q

What level of amputation must be avoided in a patient who will wear a prosthesis?
a. Knee disarticulation
b. Upper one third of the leg
c. Hemipelvectomy
d. Distal one-third of the leg

A

c. Hemipelvectomy

19
Q

The greatest socket pressure in the above knee amputee is felt over the _______.
a. Popliteal fossa
b. Anterior superior iliac spine
c. Patellar tendon
d. Ischial tuberosity

A

d. Ischial tuberosity

20
Q

This type of burn involves only the outer epidermis, which may be red with slight edema, and
healing occurs without any evidence of scarring.
a. Full-thickness burn
b. Superficial partial-thickness burn
c. Subdermal burn
d. Deep partial-thickness burn
e. Superficial burn

A

e. Superficial burn

21
Q

A graft that contains only superficial layers of the dermis in addition to the epidermis.
a. Heterograft
b. Split thickness skin graft
c. Mesh graft
d. Autograft
e. Allograft

A

b. Split thickness skin graft

22
Q

A client with chronic low back pain has failed to make any progress toward meeting established
goals in over three weeks of treatment. The therapist has employed a variety of treatment techniques,
but has yet to observe any sign of subjective or objective improvement in the client’s condition. The
most appropriate action would be to:
a. Alert the referring physician of the client’s status
b. Continue to modify the client’s treatment plan
c. Re-examine the client and establish new goals
d. Transfer the client to another therapists schedule.

A

a. Alert the referring physician of the client’s status

23
Q

The terminal branches of an axon come in contact with the dendrites of the succeeding
neuron at which junction points?
a. Receptor
b. Synapse
c. Effector
d. End-organ

A

b. Synapse

24
Q

Paralysis of the median nerve will manifest the following conditions, EXCEPT
a. the index and middle fingers lose their ability to flex.
b. the digits on the radial side are affected more than the medial side.
c. thumb flexion and opposition are lost and the thenar muscle atrophy.
d. the adductor (thenar muscle) remains useful, enabling the thumb and index finger to hold a
small object with the assistance of the 1st interossei.
e. an active grasp may be accomplished by extending the wrist as far as possible.

A

e. an active grasp may be accomplished by extending the wrist as far as possible.

25
Q

Accurate, clear, and concise documentation is becoming increasingly important for all health care
providers. The following suggestions to improve documentation would be useful, EXCEPT:
a. Co-sign the entries of other medical personnel when necessary according to state and
facility requirements
b. avoid empty or open lines between entries in the medical record
c. make sure all entries in the medical record are typewritten
d. use abbreviations that have been standardized or accepted by a specific facility or the
profession

A

c. make sure all entries in the medical record are typewritten

26
Q

A therapist completes a physical examination of a patient before beginning pulmonary
rehabilitation. If the therapist would like to obtain information on the use of accessory muscles during
ventilation, which area should the therapist observe?
a. Neck and shoulders
b. Neck and abdomen
c. Shoulders and upper thorax
d. Mid thorax

A

a. Neck and shoulders

27
Q

he following responses are part of the withdrawal reflex, EXCEPT:
a. Flexor
b. Extensor
c. Crossed extensor
d. Crossed flexor

A

d. Crossed flexor

28
Q

Suggested dimension (in feet) for a treatment cubicle area is
a. 8 x 12
b. 10 x 10
c. 8 x 10
d. 8 x 8

A

c. 8 x 10

29
Q

Which of the following statements is NOT true of manual techniques?
a. Manual techniques should be applied only over the lung that approximates the chest wall
with full inspiration
b. The medial segment of the right lower lobe is not accessible to manual techniques
c. Commonly accepted anatomic landmarks for percussion and vibration include the level of
the 10th thoracic vertebra posteriorly and the xiphoid process anteriorly with normal respiration
d. Manual technique is contraindicated for patients with severe brain injury because they do
not increase intracranial pressure

A

d. Manual technique is contraindicated for patients with severe brain injury because they do
not increase intracranial pressure

30
Q

Which proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation techniques are the most appropriate to achieve the
therapists goals of improving a patient’s lower extremity strength?
a. Contract relax and rhythmic stabilization
b. Repeated contraction and slow reversal
c. Contract relax and hold relax
d. Hold relax and slow reversal

A

b. Repeated contraction and slow reversal

31
Q

A patient rehabilitating from injuries sustained in a motor vehicle accident is referred to physical
therapy for gait training with an appropriate assistive device. The PT attempts to instruct the patient
using axillary crutches, but feels it does not offer the client enough stability or support. Which of the
following assistive devices would be most appropriate for client?
a. Parallel bars
b. Cane
c. Walker
d. Lofstrand crutches

A

c. Walker

32
Q

A therapist examines a patient with cervical pain of unknown etiology and identifies a shortening of the
cervical spine extensors, upper trapezius and levator scapulae, the most probable postural deviation is:
a. Forward shoulders
b. Kyphosis
c. Forward head
d. Lordosis
e. Head leaning to lateral side

A

c. Forward head

33
Q

Energy expenditure for Single BKA?
A. 10%
B. 65%
C. 10-40%
D. 75%

A

C. 10-40%

34
Q

Energy expenditure for Double BKA?
A. 110%
B. 41%
C. 10-40%
D. 65%

A

B. 41%

35
Q

Energy expenditure for wheelchair?
A. 10%
B. 9%
C. 110%
D. 65%

A

B. 9%

36
Q

Energy expenditure for Single AKA?
A. 10%
B. 65%
C. 110%
D. 9%

A

B. 65%

37
Q

Energy expenditure for Double AKA?
A. 10%
B. 9%
C. 110%
D. 65%

A

C. 110%

38
Q

Energy expenditure for Crutch Walking?
A. 10%
B. 75%
C. 60%
D. 65%

A

C. 60%

39
Q

Energy expenditure for Single AKA/BKA?
A. 75%
B. 60%
C. 10%
D. 110%

A

A. 75%

APK CI (8 decks)

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