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EPST MCC 737 > Day 1 Ground School > Flashcards

Day 1 Ground School Flashcards

1
Q

Autothrottle OFF (takeoff thrust setting)

A

PF: Sets 40% N1, advances thrust levers, removes hands and call: ‘Set takeoff thrust’
PM: Set thrust for T/O and call: ‘Takeoff thrust set’

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2
Q

Autothrottle ON(takeoff thrust setting)

A

PF: sets 40% N1, when stable push TO/GA, remove hand
PM: call ‘Takeoff thrust set’

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3
Q

Autopilot OFF(Flap setting)

A

PF: Set Flaps 5 + Call: ‘Set speed ‘5’
PM Call: Speed ‘5’ set
PF Call: ‘checked’

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4
Q

Autopilot ON(Flap setting)

A

PF: Call: Flaps ‘5’ and Call: Speed ‘5’ set
PM: Call: ‘checked’

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5
Q

‘80 kts’ + ‘Checked’ call on takeoff roll(marks/verifies?):

A
  • Verifies Air Data systems are working
  • Incapacity check on other pilot
  • Marks changeover from Low speed to High speed regime
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6
Q

Metar validity

A

60 min

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7
Q

TAF (short) validity

A

9Hr

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8
Q

TAF (long) validity

A

24Hr

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9
Q

Operating Minima:

CAT IIIA

A 
DH/DA = 50ft
RVR = 200m
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10
Q

Operating Minima:

CAT II

A 
DH/DA = 100ft
RVR = 300m
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11
Q

Operating Minima:

CAT I

A 
DH/DA = 200ft
RVR = 550m
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12
Q

Operating Minima:

NPA

A 
DH/DA = 400ft
RVR = 800m
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13
Q

Operating minima:

T/O Alternate has to be within … Hr flight time with (N-1)

A

1, (which approximates 350NM)

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14
Q

Planning Minima:

CAT II/III

A 
Ceiling = n/a
RVR/Visibility = CAT 1 (550m)
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15
Q

Planning Minima:

CAT I

A 
Ceiling = NPA MDH
RVR/Visibility = NPA Vis/RVR
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16
Q

Planning Minima:

NPA

A 
Ceiling = NPA MDH + 200ft
RVR/Visibility = NPA Vis/RVR + 1000m
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17
Q

Planning Minima:

Circling

A 
Ceiling = Circling MDH
RVR/Visibility = Circling Vis
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18
Q

For Enroute alternate and Destination alternate in the planning phase you use which …. minima?

A

Planning Minima

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19
Q

MEL =

And is used untill:

A

Minimum Equipment List

Used until a/c moves under own power(than QRH is leading)

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20
Q

CDL =

A

Configuration Deviation List

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21
Q

QRH =

A

Quick reference Handbook

22
Q 
Rectification interval MEL items
A =
B =
C =
D =
A

A - No standard interval (before next flight usually)
B - 3 consecutive days
C - 10 consecutive days
D - 120 consecutive days

23
Q

FMC reserve fuel consists of:

A

Final reserve fuel + Alternate fuel

24
Q

Contingency Fuel used at EPST is:

A

3% of trip fuel with an ERA available

25
Q

Other Contingency fuel rules:

A

1 - 5% of planned trip fuel
2 - 20 Min of flying based on planned trip fuel provided the operator has a fuel consumption monitoring programma for individual aeroplanes
3 - a statistical method provided the operator has a fuel consumption monitoring program for each city pair/individual aeroplane combination

or
An amount to fly for 5 minutes at holding speed at 1500ft above Destination in ISA

26
Q

An operator must have at least 1 Dest alternate unless:

A

1 - planned flight time is <6Hr
2 - 2 separate runways are available and usable at Dest
3 - forecasted VIS ≥5000m
4 - cloudbase ≥ circling height +500ft or 2000ft

27
Q

Fuel upon arrival at Dest aerodrome must not be less then:

A

1 - Final reserve fuel + Alternate fuel

2 - Final reserve fuel if no Alternate aerodrome required

28
Q

The commander shall declare emergency when the calculated usable fuel upon landing at the nearest adequate aerodrome , where safe landing can be performed, is less than:

A

Final reserve fuel

29
Q

Threats are defined as:

A

Events or errors that occur beyond the influence of the flight crew, increase operational complexity, and which must be managed to maintain the margin of safety.

30
Q

Name the 3 categories of threats: (TEM model)

A

1 - anticipated threats (known to crew)
2 - unanticipated threats (occur suddenly)
3 - latent threats (not directly obvious/observable by the crew)

31
Q

Threats should be:

A

detected promptly enough to enable the flight crew to respond to them before UAS develops

32
Q

Each threat can be classifies as:

A

1 - environmental (weather, ATC, airport)

2 - organizational (operational pressure, aircraft, cabin)

33
Q

Errors are defined as:

A

Actions or inactions by the flight crew, that lead to deviations from organizational or flight crew intensions or expectations

34
Q

the Human error consists of (2):

A

1 - Skill based error (Slip of action or Memory lapse)

2 - Mistake (Rule-based or knowledge-based)

35
Q

UASs are defined as:

A

A position, attitude, or configuration of an aircraft that: results from flight crew error, actions, or inactions; and clearly reduces safety margins

36
Q

Name the 3 categories of UAS (TEM model)

A

1 - A/C Handling
2 - Ground handling
3 - incorrect A/C configuration

37
Q

The outcome of an UAS can be:

A
  • Incident
  • ASR
  • Accident
38
Q

Up to 70% of crew activities are countermeasures related to (3):

A

1 - planning countermeasures: essential for managing anticipated and unexpected threats
2 - execution countermeasures: essential for error detection and error response
3 - review countermeasures: essential for managing the changing conditions of a flight

39
Q

TSAT:

TSAT window:

A

Target Start-up Time

Window +/-5min

40
Q

TOBT:

A

Target Off-Block Time

41
Q

EOBT:

A

Estimated Off-Block Time

42
Q

CTOT:

CTOT window:

A

Calculated T/O Time

Window +10Min/-5min

43
Q

Wording used for selections on MCP:

(1) …. - Value ‘heading 120’
(2) …. - Mode ‘ ….. heading select’
(3) …. - Mode + Value ‘Select V/S 1000’

A

1 - SET
2 - ENGAGE
3 - SELECT

44
Q

MCP selections are done by:

(1) … with AP on
(2) … with AP off(manual flight)
- HDG + ALT Instructions by ATC are set:
- Speed Instructions by ATC are set:

A

1 - PF
2 - PM
- Without PF command
- by PM with PF command

45
Q

FMA Callouts are done by:

A

PF and if forgotten by PM

46
Q

With climbs >1000 ft set/select:

A

LVL CHG
VNAV
V/S

47
Q

Climbs < 1000 ft are done by:

A

V/S with 1000fpm

48
Q

FMA annunciations in CLB:

A

Speed mode = N1

Pitch mode = MCP SPD

49
Q

FMA annunciations in DES:

A

Speed mode = Retard -> ARM

Pitch mode = MCP SPD

50
Q

Climb thrust is … N1

A

90%

EPST MCC 737 (3 decks)

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