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OS Test 2 > Day 1 > Flashcards

Day 1 Flashcards

1
Q

The spleen is located beneath ribs 9, 10, and 11 on the __ side of the body. It is in between the left __-diaphragm and __ cavity. If the __ is messed up, then the spleen can no longer move fluid throughout the body

A

left, hemi, peritoneal, diaphragm

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2
Q

Which is not a function of the spleen?

1) Destroy damaged RBCs
2) Metabolizes drugs
3) Synthesizes immunoglobulins
3) Clearance site for antigens, micro-organisms, and poorly organized bacteria

A

2 (thats the liver)

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3
Q

The __ is a major lymph channel for 3/4 of the body, back into circulation

A

Thoracic Duct

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4
Q

The liver is a pressure sensitive organ, affected by the muscular action of the __ diaphragm

A

thoraco-abdominal

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5
Q

The __ is largest and most active in an infant, and dies down (involutes) after puberty. It is the processing site for T-lymphocytes

A

Thymus

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6
Q

Name the tonsil

1) Located on the posterior 1/3 of tongue
2) Located at the lateral pharynx
3) Located at the nasopharyngeal border

A

1) Lingual
2) Palatine
3) Pharyngeal

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7
Q

__ is located at the medial surface of the cecum and presumed to offer support to the immune system

A

Apendix

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8
Q

__ system aids in filtration of toxins from the lungs and the GI system also has visceral lymphoid tissue

In the GI system, __ are located in the distal ilium, __ are lymphatic capillaries in each vili in the small bowel, and fats are cleared out that have entered circulation via GI system

A

Respiratory

Peyers patches, lacteals

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9
Q

__ nodes receive lymph from skin/deep tissues of upper and lower extremities/head and neck

They drain into three main groups, name them

A

Superficial

Cervical, axillary, and inguinal

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10
Q

Cervical lymph nodes from the head/supraclavicular and upper extremity drain into __ nodes

Axillary lymph nodes from infraclvicular to umbilicus drain into axillary nodes and then __

Inguinal lymph nodes from caudal to umbilicus drain into inguinal nodes and then __

A

Jugular

Subclavian

Lumbar

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11
Q

Lymph unites with one of which two ducts

A

Thoracic duct (75%) or right lymphatic duct (25%)

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12
Q

You are in the left supraclavicular region on the left side of the body, what node is located there?

Also, what is this associated with

A

Virchow’s node

Intra-abdominal or thoracic cancer

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13
Q

The thoracic duct starts off on the __ side of the body and then at the level of T-__ it moves __ of the midline and connects to the junction of the left subclavian and left brachiocephalic veins

A

Right side, 4, left

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14
Q

Which of the two ducts drains the left side of the head and neck, left arm, left side of thorax, left and right lower body, and viscera of thoracic?

Which duct drains the right head and neck, right arm, and right chest?

A

Thoracic duct

Right lymphatic duct

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15
Q

50% of plasma __ re-enter the system via lymph, so if you were to have a problem with lymph you could be malnourished

A

proteins

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16
Q

One way to move lymph is by ___ fluid pressure which has a normal pressure of ___ mmHg and hits a ceiling at 0 mmHG (when vessels collapse and obstruct flow)

A

Interstitial, Negative 6.3 (negative is the important part)

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17
Q

The __ pump works by using contraction forces to cause pressure gradients, which help move the fluid. However, when that fails, the __ pump is the only thing left which works by direct pressure on vessels to move lymph

A

Intrinsic

Extrinsic

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18
Q

What kind of system is the lymphatic system

A

“passive”

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19
Q

It is critical to start treatment at the level of the __ (thoracic inlet) which as said before, it at the junction of the duct and left subclavian vein/brachiocephalic vein

A

thoracic duct

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20
Q

ALWAYS ALWAYS ALWAYS go back to the __ after you finish your treatment session

Name what area each treatment does

1) Upper extermity
2) Head and neck
3) Thoracic
4) Lower extremity
5) Abdomen

A

Thoracic duct

1) Area 3
2) Area 5
3) Area 1
4) Area 4
5) Area 2

**Note that area 3 and 4 can be reversed

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21
Q

The lymph system is readily effected by external compression from your __

A

Diaphragm

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22
Q

Name what region the superficial node is found in. Choose from: Head/neck, abdomen, upper extremity, lower extremity

1) Popliteal
2) Cisterna chyli
3) Cubital
4) Celiac
5) Submental
6) Superficial ingunial
7) Virchow’s
8) Deltopectorial
9) Axillary

A

1) Lower Ex
2) Abdomen
3) Upper Ex
4) Abdomen
5) Head/neck
6) Lower Ex
7) Head/neck
8) Upper Ex
9) Upper Ex

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23
Q

Which one does the lymphatic system not do?

1) Maintain homeostasis
2) Facilitate immune function
3) Transport fat from digestive system to blood
4) Aid in the movement of oxygen
5) Assist the body in removing interstitial fluids and plasma proteins

A

4) Aid in the movement of oxygen

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24
Q

The right lower body is drained by ___

A

Thoracic duct

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25
Q

Match the reason for increased interstitial fluid pressure with its cause

1) HTN
2) Hepatic cirrhosis
3) Starvation/plasma hypoalbuminemia
4) Rattlesnake poison and other toxins

a) Increased interstitial fluid protein
b) Increased capillary permeability
c) Increased arterial capillary pressure
d) Decreased plasma colloidal osmotic pressure

A

1) c
2) d
3) a
4) b

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26
Q

Abnormal feeling indicating Otitis Externa would be found palpating what structure?

A

Pre and Post Auriculars

27
Q

The superior and inferior inguinal lymph nodes are found in what structure?

A

Femoral triangle

28
Q

The goal of lymphatic treatment is to move lymph __

A

centrally

29
Q

Patient with COPD, URI, LRI, swollen upper extremities or enhanced immune function can be treated with what technique?

A

Thoracic pump

30
Q

How fast do you perform the thoracic pump?

A

110-120 x/min

31
Q

In the abdominal pump zone 2 technique, how fast do you pump and also this indirectly affects pressure gradients and indirectly messages the thoracic duct at its origin in ___

A

20-30x/min Cisterna Chyli

32
Q

How fast can you perform the pedal pump?

A

100x/min

33
Q

What technique can be used when a patient has eustachain tube dysfunction, lymphatic congestion in ENT or submandibular region

A

Mandibular drainage

34
Q

Name the path of virchows lymph

A

Abdomen drains to deep visceral -> Cisterna chili -> thoracic duct -> virchow

35
Q

Name range of motions

Hip

1) Flexion
2) Extension
3) Internal rotation
4) External rotation
5) Abduct
6) Adduct

Knee

1) Internal rotation
2) External rotation
3) Flexion
4) Extension

Ankle/foot

1) Dorsiflex
2) Plantarflex
3) Ankle Inversion
4) Ankle Eversion
5) Subtalar inversion
6) Subtalar eversion
7) Pronation
8) Supination

A

1) 90, or 120-135
2) 15-30
3) 30-40
4) 40-60
5) 45-50
6) 20-30

1) 10
2) 10
3) 145-150
4) 0

1) 15-20
2) 55-65
3) 35
4) 20
5) 10
6) 10
7) 5
8) 20

36
Q

What are the borders of the femoral triangle?

A

Superiorly - Inguinal ligament
Medially - Medial border of adductor Longus muscle
Laterally - Medial border of sartorius muscle

37
Q

What muscles make up the hamstring?

A

Biceps femoris, semitendinosus, semimembranosus

38
Q

What is the function of the IT band/ tensor fascia lata?

A

Flexor, abductor

39
Q

Name the grading scale for muscle strength

1) Active movement against gravity
2) Active movement against gravity and resistance
3) No muscular contraction detected
4) Active movement with gravity eliminated
5) Active movement against gravity and some resistance
6) Barley detectable flicker/trace of contraction

A

1) 3
2) 5
3) 0
4) 2
5) 4
6) 1

40
Q

Name the nerve being tested

Hip

1) Flexion - iliopsoas
2) Extension - glut max
3) Abduction - glut med
4) Adduction - adductor longus

Knee

5) Flexion - Hamstrings
6) Extension - Quadriceps

Ankle/foot

7) Dorsiflexion and inversion - Tibialis anterior
8) Dorsiflexion - Extensor hallucis longus
9) Dorsiflexion - Extensor digitorum longus
10) Plantarflexion - Gastroc/soleus
11) PLantarflexion - FHL
12) PLantarflexion - FDL
13) Plantarflexion and inversion - Tibialis posterior
14) Evert - FIbularis longus and brevis

A

1) Femoral n L1-L2
2) Inferior gluteal nerve L5, S1, S2
3) Superior gluteal nerve L5, S1
4) Obturator nerve L2-L4

5) Sciatic n L5-S1
6) Femoral n L2-L4

7) Deep fib nerve L4, L5
8) Deep fib nerve L5
9) Deep fib Nerve L5
10) Tibial nerve S1/2
11) Tib nerve L5
12) Tib nerve L5
13) Tib nerve L5
14) Superficial fibular nerve L5,S1

41
Q

Name the compatment

1) Labrum ligamentum teres, articular surfaces
2) Femoral neck, synovial lining
3) Guteus medius, gluteus minimus, IT band, trochanteric bursae
4) Iliopsoas insertion, iliopsoas bursae

A

1) Central
2) Peripheral
3) Lateral
4) Anterior

42
Q

Adduction of the knee is the same thing as applying a __ force

Abduction of the knee is the same thing as applying a __ force

Therefore, an ABduction dysfunction would have restriction to what?

A

Valgus

Varus

Valgus

43
Q

What nerve is subject to compression by the fibular head fracture or SD around the fibular head?

A

Common fibular (old term is peroneal) nerve

44
Q

The __ angle is between the patella and tibial tuberosity and then the patella and ASIS to give an angle of __. It’s also large in women

A

Q, 15

45
Q

If the fibula or tibia lateral? Also which one has the lateral malleolus and which one has the medial malleolus?

A

Fibula is lateral and has lateral malleolus

46
Q

Inversion of the ankle and eversion checks for what kind of dysfunction? What about plantarflexion and dorsiflexion. What about dorsal and ventral glide?
What about dorsi/planta/abduct/adduct/internal/external motions?

A

Calcanus, Talus,
(Navicular, cuboid, cuneiform, metatarsa)
Metatarso-phalangeal

47
Q

What makes up the trasnverse distal tarsal arch, lateral longitudinal arch, and medial longitudinal arch?

A

Transverse = Cuboid, navicular, 1-3 cuneiforms, metatarsals (proximal part)

Lateral longitudinal arch = Calcaneus, talus, cuboid, metatarsals 4-5

Medial longitudinal arch = Calcaneus, talus, navicular, cuneiforms 1-3, and metatarsals 1-3

48
Q

What ligament is the primary stabilizer of the medial ankle?

A

Deltoid ligament

49
Q

Which ligament is always the one to sprain first? (AKA if you get a sprained ankle what have you most likely injured?)

A

ATFL (Anterior talofibular ligament)

50
Q

What injury is due to the unhappy triad (in the knee)

A

ACL, TCL, Lateral meniscus

51
Q

Calcaneal inversion occurs between the __ and __ and the __ joint

A

Talus and calcaneus, subtalar

52
Q

Are plantar or dorsiflexion injuries more common?

Also what can a plantar navicular dysfunction be due to?

A

Plantar

Tight plantar fascia

53
Q

What make up the deltoid ligament?

A

Anterior tibiotalar ligament, tibiocalcaneal ligament, posterior tibiotalar ligament, and tibionavicular ligament

** Note it’s on the medial side, which is another reason why most ankle sprains occur on the lateral side

54
Q

When checking for glenohumeral dysfunction what two areas are you most concerned about and what do you contact when assessing this problem

A

Anterior/inferior and posterior/superior and you contact the proximal humerus

55
Q

What position maximizes AC joint motion?

A

60 degree coronal abduction and 60 degree horizontal abduction

56
Q

The spine of the scapula is at the level of T__ and the inferior border of the scapula is at the level of __

A

T3, T7

57
Q

Normal AC rotation is estimated to be __ degree each way

A

10

58
Q

You place your fingers __ for SC flex and extend and on __ for SC abduction and adduction

A

Anteriorly, superior

59
Q

Is adduction or abduction somatic dysfunction more common?

A

Adduction

60
Q

Name the muscles that do the function for the scapula

1) Elevation
2) Depression
3) Protraction
4) Retraction
5) Upward rotation
6) Downward rotation

Name the muscles that do the function for the shoulder girlde

1) Flexion
2) Extension
3) Abduction
4) ADDuction
5) Internal rotation
6) External rotation

A

1) Upper traps and levator scapulae
2) Lower traps and rhomboid major
3) Serratus anterior
4) Both rhomboids and middle traps
5) Serratus anterior and upper traps
6) Levator scapulae, both rhomboids, and latissimus dorsi (LRRL)

1) CD (coracobrachialis and deltoids)
2) LT (Latissimus Dorsi and Teres Major)
3) Supraspinatus and mid delotid
4) Pec major and latissimus dorsi
5) Subscapularis and pec major
6) Infraspinatus and teres minor

61
Q

What three bones make up the shoulder joint?

A

CLavicle, humerus, and scapula

62
Q

What are the 2 accessory joints?

A

Costosternal and costovertebral

63
Q

What mobile characteristics are seen in abnormal vs normal lymph

A 
Normal = mobile
Abnormal = Fixed, Discrete, Matted
64
Q

Which lymph nodes drain the occipital and back of pharynx (throat)?

A

Posterior cervical

OS Test 2 (1 decks)

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