Dates, Times, Abbreviations Flashcards

1
Q

FINRA must be notified _______ days prior to the effective date of a statutory subordinated loan

A

30 days

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2
Q

For how long must a broker dealer maintain institutional sales material?

A

3 years

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3
Q

What is the maximum criminal penalty for an individual convicted of insider training?

A

$5 million fine and or up to 20 years in prison

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4
Q

True or false: a temporary location used less than 30 days per year is a branch office

A

False

If use less than 30 days per year at temporary location is a non-branch office (vacation home)

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5
Q

When is FOCUS report part 1 required to be filed by carrying broker dealer and introducing broker dealer?

A

For carrying broker, dealers, within 10 business days of month end

For introducing broker dealers, the report is not required

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6
Q

After what time May market and limit -on -close orders no longer be canceled (even for a legitimate error)?

A

3:58pm

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7
Q

Delivery versus payment DVP requires payment to be made no more than ______calendar days from the transaction

A

35 calendar days

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8
Q

When must clients of a broker dealer received the firms most recent balance sheet?

A

On request

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9
Q

All forms of communication with the public must be kept for _____ years, but easily accessible for the first ____years

A

Kept for three years, easily accessible for two years

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10
Q

When must a broker dealer fill a clients limit order after executing a trade for its own account at the same or better price?

A

Immediately – within 60 seconds

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11
Q

If an analysts firm just published research on a company, how long must he wait before trading the stock?

A

Technically, he doesn’t have to wait because there is no restriction, but a research analyst must follow his own firms procedures

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12
Q

How often must senior management be apprised of the status of the firm supervisory control system?

A

Annually

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13
Q

Upon validation of a transfer, the transfer must be completed within _______business days

A

Three business days

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14
Q

After notification that the bond has been delivered, the actual buying may not occur for ________business days

A

Two business days

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15
Q

A net adjustment is required for short securities differences remaining unresolved after ______business days

A

7 business days

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16
Q

A non-branch office must be reviewed on a ______cycle

A

Periodic

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17
Q

Copies of confirmations must be maintained for ___ years

A

3 years

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18
Q

For trades that occur between 8 AM and 6:29:59 PM ET, when is the TRACE report made?

A

Within 15 minutes of the trade

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19
Q

An arbitration award must be paid within _____days

A

30 days

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20
Q

Under the code of procedure, a sanction becomes effective _____ days after the firm has received final notice

A

30 days

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21
Q

What entity is the parent of the national securities clearing corporation NSCC?

A

DTCC the depository trust and clearing corporation

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22
Q

How long must a syndicate member wait before publishing research on the issuers IPO?

A

10 calendar days

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23
Q

Within ____business days of being sent to an OSJ, a principal must approve or reject a variable contract application

A

7 business days

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24
Q

Under the TCPA, on what days do the call restrictions apply?

A

Every day of the year

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25
Q

If a written complaint relates to general securities activities , for how long are the records required to be maintained?

A

4 years

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26
Q

For how long must a prospectus be provided in the aftermarket for a non-exchange IPO?

A

90 days

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27
Q

True or false: although NASDAQ marketmaker open hours are 9:30 AM to 4 PM, extended trading hours are available

A

True, however, specific risks are inherent in extended hours trading

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28
Q

The hearing panel must give a member firm _____days prior notice before a hearing is held

A

28 days

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29
Q

According to the HSR Act, and M&A deal may not be completed until_____ days after notification

A

30 days

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30
Q

The statute of limitations for submitting an arbitration claim is _____years from the occurrence of the event

A

6 years

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31
Q

What is the ADF?

A

The alternative display facility;ECNs use it to display orders rather than the NASDAQ market center execution system

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32
Q

For retail communication regarding variable contract performance, what periods must be covered?

A

1, 5, 10 year periods ( if under 10 years, whatever the policies life is)

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33
Q

According to industry rules, _____ % is the maximum sales charge on mutual funds

A

8.5%

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34
Q

A market maker withdrawing its quote for legal or regulatory reasons will be excused for up to _____days

A

60 days

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35
Q

What is the penalty of a NASDAQ market maker has an unexcused withdrawal from publishing a quote?

A

20 business days suspension in that stock

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36
Q

Between 8 AM and 6:29:59PM ET, 2 FINRA members are involved in a trade. Who reports it to TRACE?

A

Each FINRA member is required to report its side of the trade

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37
Q

When buying securities and restricted margin account clients must deposit ___% of the trade within_______ business days

A

50% ; three business days

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38
Q

Generally, how often will a broker dealer calculate the required deposit in its special reserve bank account?

A

On a weekly basis

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39
Q

Upon making changes to its Fidelity bonds, the broker dealer must notify its DEA______

A

Promptly

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40
Q

How often are firms required to evaluate their training needs?

A

Annually

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41
Q

Rule 147 offerings may not be sold to an out-of-state investor for _____months following the last sale of a new issue

A

Six months

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42
Q

A trial balance used to calculate net capital is prepared ______

A

Monthly

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43
Q

How often are broker dealers required to send statements to clients regarding penny stocks in their accounts?

A

Monthly

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44
Q

After filing notice of an impending M&A deal, it may not be completed until how many days have elapsed?

A

30 days

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45
Q

Individuals must register with the SEC within _______ of becoming an insider

A

10 days

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46
Q

What step is required if a failed-to-deliver position has been open for 13 consecutive settlement business days?

A

Mandatory closeout

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47
Q

What time limit exists for issuers/affiliates of actively traded securities that are re-purchasing their own security?

A

They may not purchase their security within the last 10 minutes of the trading day

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48
Q

Regulation A requires an issuer to file _____ years of financial statements that may be________

A

2 years ; unaudited

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49
Q

On an annual basis, when are representatives required to complete the regulatory element of continuing education?

A

December 31

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50
Q

A market maker’s registration ceases if no quote is made within _____business days

A

Five business days

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51
Q

When recommending a variable annuity to a client, when must the principal review and approve/disapprove the trade?

A

Within seven business days

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52
Q

What are the justifiable reasons for denying an individuals registration?

A

Conviction for any felony or securities related misdemeanor within the last 10 years

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53
Q

Typically, investment companies are allowed no more than ______days from request to complete a redemption

A

Seven days

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54
Q

If an investment analysis tool is made available to retail investors, FINRA must be provided access______

A

Upon request

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55
Q

A clients name and number must be kept on the do not call list____

A

Indefinitely

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56
Q

Broker dealers must review their Fidelity bond coverage____

A

Annually

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57
Q

What is the CQS? And what does it do?

A

The consolidated quotation system; provides quotes for NYSE and AMEX listed securities, including third market quotes

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58
Q

What are treble damages?

A

The civil penalty for insider trading, which is three times the profit made or loss avoided

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59
Q

What is the aftermarket prospectus requirement for the follow on offering of an exchange listed stock?

A

Zero days; no requirement exists for the follow on offering of an exchange listed stock

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60
Q

NASDAQ system hours are _____ am to _____ pm ET

A

4am to 8pm ET

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61
Q

If a customer changes his address, where and when must notification of the change be sent?

A

Notification must be sent to the customers old address within 30 days of the change

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62
Q

The NBBO or national best bid and offer is also referred to as the _______ market

A

Inside market

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63
Q

A satisfactory subordinated loan has a minimum maturity of _____

A

One year

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64
Q

For how long must a prospectus be made available in the secondary market for an exchange listed IPO?

A

25 days

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65
Q

When must retail communication concerning CMO’s be filed with FINRA?

A

Within 10 business days of first use

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66
Q

Define short swing profit

A

A profit earned nonstock held less than six months

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67
Q

When is the firm business continuity plan made available to FINRA?

A

Promptly upon request

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68
Q

Under the TCPA, if requested, a client must be placed on the do not call list within ______days of request

A

30 days

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69
Q

When must insiders report their transactions?

A

Within two business days of the trade

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70
Q

True or false: trades executed between 8 PM and 8 AM Eastern time must be reported within 10 seconds of execution

A

False.
The 10 second reporting requirement applies to trades executed between 8 AM and 8 PM Eastern time

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71
Q

Fails-to-deliver and threshold securities that have existed for _______ settlement days must be closed out

A

13 consecutive

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72
Q

When showing mutual fund returns, what time periods must be included?

A

1, 5 , 10 years or life if the fund if less than 10

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73
Q

How often must broker dealers publish reports summarizing their order routing practices?

A

Quarterly

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74
Q

An issuer with $700 million outstanding voting shares will be placed in what category?

A

Well known seasoned issuer (WKSI)

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75
Q

A seasoned issuer may use a free writing prospectus (FWP)______ filing its registration statement with the SEC

A

After

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76
Q

Jim was convicted of insider-trading and served a three-year prison term. May he now re-enter the securities industry?

A

No – statutory disqualification bars as a person from the securities industry for 10 years from the date of the conviction

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77
Q

If a qualification exam has been failed for the third time, what waiting period applies?

A

180 days after the third unsuccessful attempt and each attempt after that

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78
Q

Trades involving corporate and municipal security, settled by the_____ day following the trade date (T+_)

A

First business day (T+1)

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79
Q

For how long is a firm required to retain any written or electronic communication?

A

Three years from the date of last use

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80
Q

All documents are to be maintained readily accessible for the first ____years

A

Two years

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81
Q

Once notified by a code of procedure hearing panel, the hearing must be held within _____days

A

28 days

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82
Q

What is the private investment in public equity (PIPE)?

A

When a broker dealer acts as a placement agent for restricted securities of an issuer whose securities are already publicly traded

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83
Q

Three months ago an insider required stock at $12. If she sells the sheriff today at $15 may she keep the profit?

A

No – under the short swing profit rule and insider may not keep a profit earned on stock held less than six months

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84
Q

A syndicate member must wait____ calendar days before publishing research on the issuers IPO

A

10 calendar days

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85
Q

If securities are discovered missing during a quarterly securities count , what is the reporting period?

A

No later than 10 business days from discovery

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86
Q

According to regulation M, the restricted period begins either ____ or _____business days before pricing

A

1 or 5

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87
Q

The special reserve bank account must be evaluated by carrying firm on a _____basis

A

Weekly

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88
Q

How long are securities restricted that are received by a broker dealer as compensation for an underwriting?

A

Six months

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89
Q

To be considered a threshold security, excessive fails to deliver must occur for ______consecutive settlement days

A

5

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90
Q

Mutual fund shares have lone value after they have been owned for ____days

A

30 days

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91
Q

True or false: form U5 is retained for six years, following termination of employment

A

False, it is retained for three years

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92
Q

For insider trading violations, the SEC can sue for treble damages – what does the statement mean?

A

The SEC can sue for three times the damage – profit made or loss avoided

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93
Q

What is the NBBO?

A

The national best bid and offer, also considered the inside market

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94
Q

Investors may not purchase a new issue if those shares were sold short _____business days prior to the offering

A

5

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95
Q

In CQS, what is the penalty if a market maker fails to provide timely quotes for a security

A

One business day suspension from market making in that security

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96
Q

Under the limit order display rule, how quickly must orders that improves the market makers quote be displayed?

A

Immediately, but no later than 30 seconds

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97
Q

Unless appealed when do penalties become effective under the code of procedure?

A

No later than 30 days from the decision

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98
Q

As stated in a broker dealers supervisory program, with whom must the CEO annually conduct a meeting?

A

The CCO – the broker dealers chief compliance officer

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99
Q

The final settlement of a syndicate account must occur within ______of the syndicate closing

A

90 days

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100
Q

How often must all registered personnel participate in a compliance meeting?

A

Annually

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101
Q

Or margin clients, a firm must provide at least _____days written notice of changes in the method of computing interest

A

30 days

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102
Q

When must RRs complete the regulatory element of continuing education?

A

Annually by December 31

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103
Q

How long must an underwriting manager wait before publishing research on an issuers IPO?

A

10 calendar days

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104
Q

The SEC must be notified ____days prior to the effective date of a satisfactory subordinated loan

A

10 days

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105
Q

A carrying broker dealer must file FOCUS report part ll within _____business days of the end of the quarter

A

17 business days

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106
Q

Insiders must return swing profits, which are profits earned on stock that has been held for less than _____months

A

6 months

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107
Q

A penalty imposed by hearing panel is generally effective ____days after assessment

A

30 days

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108
Q

For how long is an employee questionnaire (form U4) and fingerprint cards retained?

A

For three years after the representative leaves the firm

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109
Q

Shelf registration is valid for up to ____ years

A

3 years

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110
Q

NASDAQ market maker normal market hours are ____am to _____ pm ET

A

9:30am to 4pm

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111
Q

What two choices does a firm have once it is notified that it has met the threshold established under the taping rule?

A

Either begin taping within 60 days, or reduce its staff level below the threshold within 30 days

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112
Q

Once form 144 is filed, owners have ____ days to sell their securities

A

90 days

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113
Q

What must be noted by a client to prevent her by limit and sell stop orders from being reduced on the ex- dividend date?

A

Do not reduce – DNR

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114
Q

The _______ and _______ of an underwriting may not immediately issue research reports on investment banking clients

A

The manager and comanager

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115
Q

According to the piggyback exception , when is the filing of form 211 not required?

A

When the stock has been quoted on a regular and continuous basis for the past 30 days

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116
Q

Issuers of non-actively traded securities may not purchase their own shares during the last ____minutes of trading

A

During the last 30 minutes of trading

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117
Q

When may regulation S securities be re-sold through a designated offshore securities market?

A

Immediately

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118
Q

If the S& P 500 falls by 20% from the previous days close, trading halts for_____

A

The remainder of the day

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119
Q

Any trades affected by representatives must be approved ______by a principal

A

Promptly

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120
Q

And mutual fund, retail, communication, performance statistics must cover ____, ____, and ____ year periods

A

1,5,10

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121
Q

What is considered regular and continuous quoting as defined by the piggyback exception?

A

Over the last 30 days, no more than four business days elapsed without a quote

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122
Q

If a storyboard has been filed, when must the final version of a TV or video advertisement be filed with an SRO?

A

Within 10 business days of initial broadcast

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123
Q

Once appointed as a principal, a candidate has ______days to qualify for the position

A

120 days

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124
Q

Customer ledgers ( account records) are maintained for _____years

A

Six years

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125
Q

How many days advance notice is provided to clients if a broker dealer changes loan terms (interest rate)?

A

30 days

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126
Q

If owned for____ days, open an investment company (mutual fund) shares may be used as collateral in a margin account

A

30 days

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127
Q

An offering effective date is generally_____ days after the filing of the last amendment

A

20 days

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128
Q

A market maker may withdraw its quote for up to_____ business days for issues beyond its control (eg system outages)

A

Five business days

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129
Q

How many business days prior to presentation must evidence of incumbency be dated?

A

No more than 60 days

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130
Q

An underwriting manager must wait_____ calendar days before publishing research on an issuers IPO

A

10 calendar days

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131
Q

When may telemarketers place calls to perspective clients?

A

From 8 AM to 9 PM on any day of the year

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132
Q

If a firms net capital is below 120% of its minimum, or its aggregate indebtedness to net capital ratio exceeds 12:1, when is notification required?

A

Within 24 hours of discovery

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133
Q

And what does a real estate investment trust (REIT) invest?

A

A diversified portfolio of properties and or mortgages

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134
Q

For how long must a prospectus be provided in the aftermarket for an IPO of a stock to be listed on an exchange?

A

25 days

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135
Q

What is the system that provides quotes for the third market?

A

The consolidated quotation system – CQS

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136
Q

An applicant will be subject to statutory disqualification for any felony conviction within the last ____years

A

10 years

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137
Q

What system facilitates the mandatory reporting of secondary market trades in eligible fixed income securities?

A

TRACE
Trade reporting and compliance engine

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138
Q

An underwriting manager must wait _____calendar days before publishing research on the issuers secondary offering

A

Three calendar days

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139
Q

The manager or co-manager of an IPO must satisfy a quiet period of _____calendar days prior to publishing research

A

10 calendar days

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140
Q

When does the restricted period begin for security with the public float of $50 million and and an ADTV of $125,000?

A

One business day prior to pricing

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141
Q

According to the locate requirement of regulation, SHO, broker dealers may use an easy to borrow list less than ______ old

A

24 hours

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142
Q

What other term may be used for a companies chief executive officer (CEO) or chief financial officer (CFO)?

A

Principal executive officer (PEO) or principal financial officer (PFO)

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143
Q

A temporary subordinated loan for underwriting purposes carries a maximum maturity of _____days

A

45 days

144
Q

According to regulation T, what happens to a client account if she fails to pay in timely manner?

A

Her account will be frozen for 90 days

145
Q

For their customers with free credit balances, broker dealers must provide a notification at least_______

A

Quarterly

146
Q

When will the following trades be reported to TRACE? One was executed at 6:20 PM, and the other at 8:40 PM

A

Both need to be reported within 15 minutes of TRACE opening on the next business day

147
Q

What investment facilitates the trading of foreign securities in US markets?

A

American depository receipts ADRs

148
Q

Define initial public offering IPO

A

A company’s first public offering of securities

149
Q

Securities quoted through the CQS are ______securities trading over-the-counter

A

Listed

150
Q

What type of transaction is being executed when a client purchases securities with payment made by a third-party?

A

Delivery versus payment DVP or collect on delivery COD

151
Q

If non-public information is unintentionally disclosed to an analyst, when must it be disclosed to the public?

A

Within 24 hours of its disclosure

152
Q

Annual report of financial condition is filed with SEC no later than ____from the date of the financial statement

A

60 days

153
Q

A broker dealer, outstanding subordinated debt may not exceed __% of its debt equity total for a period exceeding ___ days

A

70% , 90 days

154
Q

A broker dealer, outstanding subordinated debt may not exceed __% of its debt equity total for a period exceeding ___ days

A

70% , 90 days

155
Q

A branch office must be inspected every___

A

Three years

156
Q

What is the benefit of ACATS?

A

It replaces a manual account transfer system with a fully automated and standardized one

157
Q

What are the regular hours for the ADF trading center?

A

9:30 AM to 4 PM ET

158
Q

How long must new issues be held before they may be used as collateral?

A

30 days

159
Q

How often must market centers publish reports of the efficiency of executions?

A

Monthly

160
Q

If equity securities are issued by a non-reporting company under regulation S, when can they be re sold in the US?

A

One year after issuance

161
Q

If a firm reduces its staff to avoid the taping rule, the individuals may not be rehired for ____ days

A

180 days

162
Q

For underwriting purposes, a broker dealer is allowed up to____ temporary subordinated loans over____ months

A

Three ; 12

163
Q

If a client requests a copy of the pre dispute arbitration agreement, when must it be provided?

A

Within 10 days of the request

164
Q

Under the code of procedure, a decision must be rendered within____ days after collection of evidence stops

A

60 days

165
Q

What is the ADF reporting system?

A

The alternative display facility, that reports trades in securities

166
Q

If a discrepancy claim arises after the transfer, the carrying firm must resolve it within_____ business days

A

Five business days

167
Q

How many times is a quarterly form 10- Q filed each year?

A

Three times per year since the fourth quarter is included in the annual report

168
Q

QIU is a firm that has acted as______ or_____ in at least______ similar offerings within the last_____ years

A

Manager or co-manager in at least three similar offerings within the last three years

169
Q

True or false: an order entry firm has 10 seconds to accept or reject a trade report submitted to FINRA

A

False – the order entry firm has 20 minutes to accept or reject

170
Q

True or false: form 211 must be filed by all market makers in NASDAQ securities

A

False – form 211 is required for those initiating quotes in non-exchange OTC securities

171
Q

In the aftermarket, a prospectus must be provided for_____ days following a non-exchange follow on offering

A

40 days

172
Q

What is an ECN?

A

Electronic communication network – anyone of several systems which permit the entry and dissemination of quotes

173
Q

When must the Board of Directors of the company, subject to attend her offer, advise at shareholders regarding the offer?

A

Within 10 days from the date the tender is made

174
Q

True or false: under regulation, S, investors may resell nonconvertible debt in the US, even if it is held for less than one year

A

True – non-convertible debt has a 40 day holding period

175
Q

Filing form 211 is not required if stock has been the subject of regular and continuous quotes for the past ____days

A

30 days

176
Q

A DVP transaction must be completed within _____calendar days

A

35 calendar days

177
Q

Upon receiving a second notice from the department of enforcement regarding a complaint, firms must respond within_____days

A

14 days

178
Q

On 5/1 , Joe emails 20 clients to promote a product. On 7/1 the same email as sent to 15 clients. Is approval needed?

A

No, since the promotional email is sent to 25 or fewer clients over 30 calendar days, only review is required

179
Q

When are clients provided with a copy of the Predispute arbitration agreement?

A

The earlier of 30 days from signing the agreement or within 10 business days of request

180
Q

Who publishes a list of all threshold securities?

A

A self regulatory organization SRO

181
Q

If retail investors are provided direct access to an investment analysis tool, when must FINRA be provided equal access?

A

Upon request

182
Q

A person must register with the SEC within____ days of becoming an insider by filing form____

A

Within 10 days of becoming an insider by filing form 3

183
Q

A branch that supervises one or more non-branch locations must be inspected

A

Annually

184
Q

Corporate bond trades are reported through TRACE within_____ minutes

A

15 minutes – TRACE then disseminates information in real time

185
Q

A member firms written and electronic communication must be retained for______ years from the date of last use

A

Three years

186
Q

Based on written request, what is the maximum period that a broker dealer may hold customer correspondence?

A

Three months – two exceeded three months, the customer must provide the broker dealer with a valid reason for the request

187
Q

If a client equity falls below 25% the maintenance call must be met______

A

Promptly

188
Q

True or false: all branch offices are inspected annually

A

False – branch offices that supervise one or more other offices are inspected annually

189
Q

If a Fidelity bond is modified or canceled, when must FINRA be notified?

A

Promptly

190
Q

When does the decision to ban or expel a registered representative from association with a member firm become effective?

A

Immediately

191
Q

Illustrations showing returns for variable products must be for a minimum time of_____ year

A

One year

192
Q

What is CAT?

A

The consolidated audit trail; it enables FINRA to review all trading activity in the US equity and option markets

193
Q

What is TOD as it relates to a customer account?

A

Transfer on death – transfer on death allows assets to transfer to a named beneficiary owners death

194
Q

Schedule____ must be filed with the SEC within_____ business days of acquiring more than___% of the companies stock

A

13D ; 5 days ; 5%

195
Q

The principle of a member firm must approve discretionary orders_____

A

Promptly

196
Q

To not be a branch office, a location may not be used for securities business more than_____ business days per year

A

30 business days

197
Q

Define promptly as it relates to a principles approval of discretionary orders

A

Promptly means on the day of the trade, but not in advance

198
Q

Account statements must be sent to a customer at least ______

A

Quarterly

199
Q

In the aftermarket, a prospectus must be provided for_____ days following a non-exchange IPO

A

90 days

200
Q

What is the maximum period that a stabilizing bid may remain open in the marketplace?

A

Indefinite

201
Q

Based on written instructions, the broker dealer may hold customer correspondence for ______months

A

Three months

202
Q

A carrying broker dealer must file FOCUS report part 1 within_____ business days of month-end

A

10 business days of month-end

203
Q

After resignation of registration, how long does FINRA’s jurisdiction last?

A

Two years

204
Q

A record of all customers securities positions, along with profits and losses, must be maintained for _____years

A

Six years

205
Q

What does UTP mean?

A

Unlisted trading privileges, which allows an exchange to trade securities, not listed on that exchange

206
Q

To begin using a form of electronic storage the broker dealers DEA requires a ______days advance notice

A

90 days

207
Q

The telephone consumer protection act TCP, allows calls from______to ______ local time of the called party

A

8 AM to 9 PM

208
Q

What happens if a variable contract is sold to a client who then cancels the contract within seven business days?

A

The selling broker dealer must return its portion of the sales charge

209
Q

For how long are securities restricted if received by the syndicate as compensation?

A

Six months

210
Q

The holding period for unregistered (restricted) securities under rule 144 is______

A

6 months

211
Q

How often must an updated copy of the privacy notice be provided to customers?

A

At least once during each 12 months cycle

212
Q

What amount of time must elapse before debt securities issued under Regulation S may result into the United States?

A

40 days the securities would remain exempt from registration

213
Q

According to New York Stock Exchange rules the S&P 500 falls by 13% from the previous days. Close, trading will hold for ____minutes.

A

15 minutes

214
Q

A trade in a TRACE eligible security is executed at 2:55 PM. When is the trade required to be reported?

A

By 3:10 p.m. – within 15 minutes

215
Q

Customer account information must be updated every ____ months

A

36 months – three years

216
Q

When is a broker dealer required to report operational difficulties?

A

Within 24 hours

217
Q

What is the OFAC list?

A

The office of foreign assets control of the United States treasury list – it identifies suspected terrorists and criminals

218
Q

For passive market making to occur for a stock it must have how many independent marketmakers?

A

One

219
Q

Any awards granted by an arbitrator must be paid within how many days?

A

30 days

220
Q

Trades executed through an electronic system are reported________

A

Automatically

221
Q

A TRACE- eligible corporate bond trade occurs at 6:20 PM. When is the trade required to be reported?

A

It may be reported within 15 minutes of opening on the next business day

222
Q

A branch office that is NOT responsible for supervising another office is inspected every_____ years

A

3 years

223
Q

What is TRACE?

A

The trade reporting and compliance engine – TRACE is a reporting system for corporate bonds

224
Q

Broker dealers are not required to take action if a margin deficiency is less than $______

A

$1000

225
Q

________ following the trade date settlement for trades of US government securities or option contracts

A

One business day T+1

226
Q

Within _____ days of notification that it is subject to rule, a firm may reduce its staff to avoid the rule

A

30 days

227
Q

Client information is sent to the client within____ days of the account opening and updated at least every_____ months

A

30 days; 36 months

228
Q

When do CAT reports need to be submitted to FINRA?

A

On the trading day after the data is recorded

229
Q

How often must clients be notified of the availability of the broker check system?

A

Annually

230
Q

If the terms of a tender offer are changed, for how many additional days must the offer remain open?

A

For at least 10 business days from the change

231
Q

To be considered a WKSI, the issue must have been a reporting company for the previous_____ months

A

12 months

232
Q

A broker dealers equity is below____% of its debt equity total, a violation will occur if not corrected within______ days

A

30%, within 90 days

233
Q

The CQS is the ________________

A

Consolidated quotation system

234
Q

How frequently do broker dealers conduct physical accounts of securities in their possession?

A

Quarterly

235
Q

For how long after an associated person leaves a broker dealer or employee records maintained?

A

Three years

236
Q

For SEC purposes, if it insider purchases or sells his stock, what form is filed and when is it filed?

A

form 4 must be filed with the SEC within two business days of the trade

237
Q

After an account is closed, for how long our customer account records maintained?

A

For six years after the account is closed

238
Q

According to the equity IPO rule, firms must update the eligibility of purchasers_______

A

Annually

239
Q

Using the MQP, a person may be out of the securities industry for up to_____ years before having to qualify

A

Up to five years

240
Q

True or false: a registered person with no disciplinary actions for 15 years is excused from the regulatory element

A

False all registered personnel must complete the regulatory element of continuing education annually by December 31

241
Q

What is the criminal penalty for insider trading by corporations?

A

$25 million per violation

242
Q

Under Sarbanes-Oxley, how often must a company file reports detailing internal controls over financial reporting?

A

Annually

243
Q

What is the maintenance requirement for all forms of communication with the public?

A

Three years from last use

244
Q

To avoid a close-out, a selling client must deliver the securities to the broker dealer within how many days from settlement?

A

10 business days

245
Q

Issuers of actively traded securities may not purchase their own shares during the last_______ minutes of trading

A

The last 10 minutes of trading

246
Q

When is FOCUS report part ll ( for carrying broker dealers) and FOCUS report part llA (for introducing broker dealers) required to be filed?

A

Within 17 business days of the end of the quarter

247
Q

An investor is eligibility to purchase an equity new issue must be confirmed________

A

Annually – called the precondition of sale

248
Q

By what date must a clearing firm send to the introducing firm the list of all reports that it can generate?

A

By July 1 – there after, the introducing firm may request any of the reports listed

249
Q

If a broker dealers investment company communications include self created rankings, when must they be filed with FINRA?

A

At least 10 business days prior to use

250
Q

Under regulation T, does the payment requirement apply to cash or to margin accounts?

A

Both – payment is due within three business days for a cash account (100% payment) and a margin account (50% payment)

251
Q

When must a BD notify the authorities if securities are discovered missing due to a securities count ?

A

Within 10 business days

252
Q

In the after market - for how long must a prospectus be provided following an IPO of a stock to be listed on an exchange?

A

25 days

253
Q

If a security is recovered after having been reported as lost/missing, when must the SIC be notified?

A

Within one business day of recovery

254
Q

When is a non-branch office inspected?

A

Periodically

255
Q

If a firm is acting as a dealer (not a manager or co-manager) on an IPO, what’s the quiet period On research?

A

Dealers cannot publish research until 10 calendar days after an IPO

256
Q

A registered representative discovered securities are lost/missing. When must she report this fact to the SIC and transfer agent?

A

Within one business day following a two day search

257
Q

After receiving notice from the department of enforcement regarding a complaint, the firm must respond within_____ days

A

Within 25 days

258
Q

The SEC may suspend trading on an exchange for up to ____ days

A

90 days

259
Q

What is the trade reporting system form NASDAQ securities?

A

Trade reporting facility TRF- formerly ACT

260
Q

Notice of buy-in may not be delivered to a seller sooner than______ business day after settlement

A

One business day

261
Q

A carrying broker dealer must file FOCUS report part ll _________

A

Quarterly

262
Q

When is settlement for a transaction That’s using a sellers option settlement?

A

On a date that’s agreed on by both parties, but not earlier than two business days after the trade date

263
Q

A firm that reduces its staff to prevent from having to tape its calls must wait______ days before hiring those registered representatives

A

180 days

264
Q

When must accompany file a form 10-K with the SEC?

A

Annually

265
Q

What is TRF?

A

The trade reporting facility
TRF reports trades in NASDAQ and third market securities

266
Q

What is the ORF?

A

The OTC reporting facility that reports trades in OTC markets (eg pink market)

267
Q

And introducing file FOCUS report part llA Within_______ business days of the end of the quarter

A

17 business days

268
Q

What is the penalty if a CQS market maker (third market) has an unexcused withdrawal from publishing a quote?

A

One business day in that stock suspension

269
Q

What program allows a registered representative to leave a broker-dealer and later rejoin the industry within five years and not need to requalify?

A

Using a maintaining qualification program MQP, a person has five years before being required to requalify by exam

270
Q

Under the code of procedure, the first opportunity to respond is within______ days, and within______ days for the second

A

Within 25 days and within 14 days for the second

271
Q

Short securities differences will have a 100% haircut (reduction) after how many days have elapsed ?

A

28 days (increments of seven days)

272
Q

If a non-transferable asset is sold, the carrying BD has_____ business days to pay the client

A

Five business days

273
Q

What exception allows an underwriting manager to immediately publish research on a company due to a significant event?

A

The hot news exception

274
Q

What is the trade reporting system for OTC equities ?

A

Over the counter reporting facility ORF

275
Q

Once placed, a tender offer must remain open for at least _____ business days from the announcement

A

20 business days

276
Q

What is the SIC?

A

Securities information center ; created to identify and intercept stolen, forged or missing securities

277
Q

On termination of a registered representatives employment, when must form U5 be filed with FINRA and a copy provided to the RR?

A

Within 30 days

278
Q

For active accounts, many firms send account Statements_______

A

Monthly

279
Q

A firm preparing research must disclose whether it received underwriting compensation within the last________ months

A

Within the last 12 months

280
Q

If an auditor for a member firm finds a deficiency, when must the broker dealer notify the regulators?

A

A procedural deficiency is reported within 24 hours of discovery

Corrective action plan is sent within 48 hours

281
Q

If a transaction is reported at a clearly erroneous price, when will review and action be taken by FINRA?

A

Under normal circumstances, within 30 minutes

282
Q

To cover a short sale, investors may not use a new stock issue if the short sale occurred within_______ days of the offer

A

Within five days of the offer

283
Q

True or false: for a seasoned issuer, a shelf registration becomes effective immediately

A

False – a seasoned issue may use a shelf registration, but it will be subject to SEC staff review

284
Q

When must a broker dealer buy in the securities if a selling client fails to deliver securities?

A

No later than 10 business days from settlement of the transaction

285
Q

True or false: CQS transactions must be reported within 10 seconds of completion

A

True – CQS transactions must be reported within 10 seconds

286
Q

The criminal penalty for insider trading by an individual is a maximum of $______ And/or ______ years in prison

A

$5 million and or 20 years in prison

287
Q

The_____ is the office providing final approval of retail communication

A

The OSJ- office of supervisory jurisdiction

288
Q

For how long must a prospectus be provided in the aftermarket for a non-exchange follow on offering?

A

40 days

289
Q

Retail communication concerning an investment company must be filed with FINRA within______ days of use

A

10 business days of use

290
Q

An RR Leaves his firm to join the military. After being discharged, his special and active status continues for_____days

A

90 days

291
Q

Letters of intent may be backdated for ______ days

A

90 days

292
Q

An established customers one that has traded with a firm for more than _____year

A

One year

293
Q

An established customers one that has traded with a firm for more than _____year

A

One year

294
Q

True or false: after completing a 20 business day suspension as a market maker, a firm may immediately begin quoting the stock

A

False – the firm must reapply, and once its application is approved, it may begin quoting on the same day

295
Q

Under the TCPA, an existing relationship exists if a client has engaged in transactions within_______ months

A

18 months

296
Q

Once a TRACE report is made , when is the information available to the public?

A

Immediately

297
Q

Retail communication for collateralized mortgage obligations CMOs must be filed within______ business days of use

A

10 business days of use

298
Q

What two situations would require a trade to be reported to TRACE within 15 minutes of the next TRACE opening?

A

A trait occurs within 15 minutes of TRACE closing or a trade occurs when TRACE is not open

299
Q

When must trades executed between 8am and 8pm be reported ?

A

Within 10 seconds of execution

300
Q

True or false: the ex dividend date is on the same date as the record date

A

True

301
Q

When must final settlement of a syndicate occur?

A

Within 90 days of the syndicate closing

302
Q

What system is used for reporting corporate bond trades?

A

TRACE

303
Q

Form U5 is filed with F INRA within _____ days of resignation or termination of association with a member firm

A

30 days

304
Q

Once notified that taping is required, firms have_____ days to start taping, and tapes are retained for_____years

A

60 days and 3 years

305
Q

For a WKSI, a shelf registration becomes effective_______

A

Immediately

306
Q

List some records that must be maintained for three years

A

Trade tickets, confirms, trial, balances, retail communication, correspondence, and employee records

307
Q

Form U5 must be retained by member for_____ years

A

Three years

308
Q

For an order to NOT be adjusted, it must be marked________

A

Do not reduce DNR

309
Q

Broker dealers are required to monitor the status of all fully paid and excess margin securities on a______basis

A

Daily

310
Q

What is SIPC?

A

Securities investor protection corporation

SIPC protects separate customers in the event of broker dealer bankruptcy

311
Q

If a broker dealers investment company communications do not include self created rankings, when must they be filed with FINRA?

A

Within 10 business days of first use

312
Q

Under portfolio margin rules, margin requests must be satisfied within_____ business days of request

A

Three business days

313
Q

Customers are given_____ business days after settlement date to pay for their portion of a trade (I.e. S+___ or T+___)

A

Two business days
S+2 or T+3

314
Q

Within what period must any required adjustment be made to a firm’s Fidelity bond?

A

Within 60 days of the anniversary of posting the bond

315
Q

When I request to transfer an account is received, how long does the firm have to validate or protest the transfer?

A

One business day

316
Q

What is the penalty for a voluntary withdrawal as an NASDAQ market maker?

A

A 20 business day suspension from quoting that security

317
Q

The industry minimum maintenance requirement for a long account is____%

A

25%- equity must be at least 25% of LMV

318
Q

A person has been registered for nine years. When is she subject to her next regulatory element of continuing education?

A

December 31 of the current year

319
Q

A carrying broker dealer must file FOCUS report part l________

A

Monthly

320
Q

Complete the statement: an ad referring to a six-year-old funds ranking based on total return must referred to_________

A

The total return for the one and five-year periods by the same ranking entity

321
Q

Mutual funds are required to provide a______ report to their shareholders

A

Semi annual

322
Q

Generally, TRACE reporting is required within______ minutes of the trade

A

Within 15 minutes

323
Q

The SEC may suspend trading for up to______ business days for an individual issue

A

Up to 10 business days

324
Q

If an associate request a copy of his U5 how long does the member firm have to respond?

A

Responses must be made within two business days of request

325
Q

Though acting in good faith, a customer sells securities, but does not deliver. When was the broker dealer close out the trade?

A

All fails to deliver must be closed out within 35 calendar days

326
Q

What are the system hours of operation for the ADF?

A

8 AM to 6:30 PM ET

327
Q

If securities are in transit and are identified as such, the buy in will be delayed for______ calendar days

A

Seven days

328
Q

Customer confirmations must be maintained for_____ years

A

Three years

329
Q

According to NYSE rules, if the S&P 500 falls by 7% from the previous days close, trading will halt for______ minutes

A

It will halt for 15 minutes

330
Q

True or false: an office of supervisory jurisdiction OSJ is inspected monthly

A

False –OSJ are inspected annually

331
Q

Firms subject to the taping rule must commence taping phone calls within_____ days

A

Within 60 days

332
Q

In order to NOT file form 211, no more than_______ business days may have elapsed without a quote for the stock

A

No more than four business days

333
Q

How often are the circuit breakers that are used to determine the triggering of a trading halt reset?

A

Daily

334
Q

A broker dealer may allow a selling client up to______ business days from______ to deliver the securities before closing out

A

A broker dealer may allow us selling client up to 10 business days from settlement to deliver the securities before closing out

335
Q

If an error has been identified in a report that submitted by a firm into the consolidated audit trail, CAT system, it must be corrected by:

A

8 AM ET on the third business day following the trade

336
Q

Under portfolio margining rules, maintenance calls are due within __________ business days

A

3 business days

337
Q

The purchase and sales blotter must be retained for _______

A

6 years

338
Q

Regulation M notice is required to be filed with FINRA by no later than__________ business day prior to the start of the restricted period

A

One business day

339
Q

a DK notice must be sent by the receiving firm within______

A

One business day

340
Q

A broker dealer has received a complaint, which indicates that one of its representatives has stolen securities from a client. This complaint requires the firm to notify FINRA within______ days

A

30 days

341
Q

According to FINRA’s uniform practice code, a buy-in can occur no sooner than____ business days following the settlement day

A

3 business days

342
Q

Market centers are required to report the percentage of trades that received price improvement______

A

Monthly

343
Q

When is the last time a market on open (MOO) can be updated ?

A

9:28am

344
Q

A carrying broker dealer that receives or holds customer funds and securities is required to maintain a minimum net capital of:

A

$250,000

345
Q

According to the Bank Secrecy Act BSA, firms must file BCTRs within ______ days

A

15 days

346
Q

According to the Bank Secrecy Act BSA, firms must file SARs within ______ days

A

30 days

347
Q

_____ securities are not subject to the 5% policy

A

IPOs

348
Q

A client received an instant message from her registered representative, which suggests that she consider rebalancing her portfolio based on his latest analysis the RR’s instant message is considered ________ communication and ______ by her principal

A

Correspondence and reviewed by her principal

349
Q

The ACAT system is most likely used to transfer _____ because most common stocks are transferable in the ACAT system

A

Penny stocks

350
Q

Any unsatisfied judgments or liens against RRs must be disclosed to FINRA within ______ days and disclosed in form U4

A

30 days

351
Q

A client who has a portfolio margin account receives a maintenance call as a result of an unfavorable market move. This maintenance call is due within ______ business days

A

Three business days

352
Q

An issuer is required to provide an annual proxy statement to shareholders at least _________ days prior to the meeting

A

20 CALENDAR days

353
Q

Under SRO rules, how many business days does a firm have to resolve a discrepancy on a transfer from a transfer request ?

A

5 business days

354
Q

A clearing firm that engages in best efforts underwritings is required to have a minimum net capital of:

A

$250,000

355
Q

If a customer executes an equity trade in a cash account, Reg T requires the BD to obtain payment on a _________ basis

A

T +3

356
Q

Broker dealer A is an introducing firm that has a trading desk. It typically provides the DTC number of its clearing firm to trade counterparties. This is a ______

A

Give up

A member may, by agreement, permit another member to report and lock in trades on its behalf