Database 59 questions

Question 1

Which of the following is not a function of the Public Authority for Civil Aviation?

a) Supervision over civil aviation
b) Issuance of licenses and certificates
c) Transport of passengers and cargo
d) Performance of oversight on airports and facilities

Answer 1

C

Question 2

What are Ops Specs?

a) They are part of flight authorization
b) They must be strictly followed
c) Amendments must be approved
d) All of the above are correct

Answer 2

D

Question 3

What does the territory of the Sultanate of Oman include?

a) Land, water, airspace
b) airports, buildings, oceans
c) aircraft, facilities, maintenance

Answer 3

A

Question 4

by definition, aircraft accident includes the following except?

a) fatality, injury, damage
b) fatality, sabotage, stealing,
c) self-injury,naturalcauses,stowawayhiding
d) aircraft is missing, aircraft doors open, passengers waiting

Answer 4

C

Question 5

The Civil Aviation Law does not apply to the following:

a) All civil aircraft operating in Oman
b) Omani registered aircraft wherever they may be
c) CivilAirports
d) MilitaryAircraft

Answer 5

D

Question 6

An ATPL (A) licence is issued for a maximum period of?

a) 1 Year
b) 3 Years
c) 5Years
d) 10 Years

Answer 6

C

Question 7

A pilot shall not operate as pilot-in-command of an aeroplane carrying passengers unless the pilot has?

a) Carried out at least three take-off and three landings as pilot flying in any type of aeroplane or an approved simulator, under the supervision of an examiner, in the preceding 60 days.
b) Carried out at least three take-off and three landings as pilot flying in an aeroplane or an approved flight simulator of the type to be used, in the preceding 30 days.
c) Carried out at least three flights as pilot-in-command in any aeroplane or any approved flight simulator, in the preceding 90 days.
d) Carried out at least three take-off and three landings as pilot flying in an aeroplane of the same type/class or an approved flight simulator of the type to be used, in the preceding 90 days.

Answer 7

D

Question 8

If you have an Operational Multi-Crew Limitation (OML) on your medical certificate -‘valid only as or with qualified co-pilot’, which of the following statements is correct?

a) You may not fly as pilot-in-command.
b) You may fly as pilot-in-command or co-pilot, providing the other pilot does not have an OML and is under the age of 60.
c) You may fly as pilot-in-command with any qualified co-pilot.
d) You may fly as co-pilot with any pilot-in-command.

Answer 8

B

Question 9

A pilot suffers an injury making him incapable of carrying out the duties for which his license has been issued. He should inform the Authority?

a) When advised to do so by his doctor.
b) As soon as possible.
c) Within 21 days.
d) When 21 days have passed

Answer 9

D

Question 10

When you have attained the age of 60 years, as long as you hold a Medical Certificate Class 1 issued in accordance with CAR FCL-3 requirements:

a) You cannot act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft engaged in commercial air transport passenger operations.

b) You can act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft engaged in commercial air transport operations, when you are the only flight crew-member over 60.
65

c) You can act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft engaged in commercial air transport operations, when you are member of a multi-pilot crew and you are the only pilot over 60, until you attain the age of 65.

d) You can act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft engaged in commercial air transport operations, when you are member of a multi-pilot crew and you are the only pilot ver 60, until you attain the age of 63.

Answer 10

C

Question 11

Applicants for a license and license holders with Instrument Rating privileges shall demonstrate, in a manner acceptable to the Omani Authority, their ability to speak and understand the English language used for radiotelephony communications. Which of the following statements is correct?

1. Pre-operational level (Level 3) can be endorsed once and for 6 months only.
2. Operational level (Level 4) has to be re-evaluated every 2 years.
3. Operational level (Level 4) has to be re-evaluated every 3 years.
4. Extended Level (Level 5) has to be re-evaluated every 4 years.
5. Extended Level (Level 5) has to be re-evaluated every 6 years.
6. Expert Level (Level 6) can be endorsed without formal assessment, when the applicant has been trained and checked in an approved Training Organization in a country using English as native language.

a) 2 and 4
b) 1, 3, 5 and 6
c) 2,4and6
d) 3 and 5

Answer 11

D

Question 12

What is the minimum age for an applicant to the ATPL License?

a) 18
b) 21
c) 23
d) 25

Answer 12

B

Question 13

The basic privileges of the holder of a Commercial Pilot License pilot with multi-engine IR (A) are “to pilot multi-engine and single-engine aeroplanes under IFR with a minimum Decision Height of”?

a) 30m (100ft) when the aeroplane is approved for Cat II.
b) 30m (100ft) for flight without any passengers on board, 60m (200ft) with passengers.
c) 75m (250ft).
d) 60m (200ft).

Answer 13

D

Question 14

Type ratings and multi-engine class ratings (aeroplane) are valid for?

a) 12 months.
b) 12 months, 6 months only for Multi Pilot Aeroplanes
c) 12 months, 6 months only for Multi Pilot or Single Engine High Performance Aeroplanes.
d) 24 months for a Private Pilot License, 12 months for a Commercial License.

Answer 14

A

Question 15

When you are holding a CPL (A) with an IR (A), a pass in the ATPL (A) knowledge examination:

a) Will remain valid for a period of 5 years from the last validity date of the IR(A) for the issuance of an ATPL(A).
b) Will remain valid as long as you maintain your CPL(A) license valid for the issuance of an ATPL(A).
c) Will remain valid for a period of 7 years from the last validity date of the IR(A) for the issuance of an ATPL(A).
d) Will remain valid for a period of 7 years from the last validity date of the CPL(A) for the issuance of an ATPL(A).

Answer 15

C

Question 16

The expiry date of your class 1 medical certificate is July 10th and you pass your medical examination on 1st June. What will be the expiry date of your new medical certificate?

a) May 31st next year wen you are age less than 60, or less than 40 if you are engaged in single-pilot commercial air transport operations carrying passengers. November 30th otherwise.

b) July 10th next year when you are age less
than 60. December 10th otherwise.

c) July 10th next year when you are age less than 60, or less than 40 if you are engaged in single-pilot commercial air transport operations carrying passengers. December 10th otherwise.

d) May 31st next year when you are age less than 60. November 30th Otherwise.

Answer 16

C

Question 17

If a pilot has medical treatment involving the use of local or regional anesthetic, he is disqualified from flying for a period of:

a) 8 hours
b) 12 hours
c) 24 hours
d) 48 hours

Answer 17

B

Question 18

As Pilot-In-Command, when operating an aeroplane in Commercial Air Transport, you have to ensure that all equipment are serviceable:

a) As long as you monitor compliance with the provisions of the manufacturer Master Minimum Equipment List approved by the State of Registry of your aircraft.
b) Unless approved by an engineer holding a Certifying Staff license issued in accordance with Oman CAR 66.
c) Unless in compliance with the operator approved Minimum Equipment List, including maintenance and operational instructions as applicable, or with a special permission by the Authority.
d) Unless approved specifically by the Nominated Flight Operations Post Holder.

Answer 18

C

Question 19

Sporting weapons may be carried on board an aircraft provided:

1. They are stowed in a place which is inaccessible to the passengers;
2. Firearms are unloaded;
3. Ammunition have to be carried in checked baggage in any case;
4. Ammunition may be carried in checked baggage subject to limitations contained in regulations covering the Carriage by Air of Dangerous Goods (Technical Instructions);
5. No fire arms can be carried on an airplane carrying passengers.

a) 1, 2 and 4.
b) 1 and 5
c) 1 and 2.
d) 1, 2 and 3.

Answer 19

A

Question 20

You must not perform duties as a crew member on an aeroplane after blood donation or after deep water diving, until after?

a) A reasonable time period has elapsed.
b) 12 hours for blood donation adn 18 hours for deep water diving.
c) A reasonable time has elapsed, and in accordance with instructions given in company Operations Manual Part-A, Section 6 - Crew Health Precautions.
d) 24 hours for both cases.

Answer 20

C

Question 21

You must not perform duties as a crew member:

1. When you have consumed alcohol less than 8 hours prior to your specified reporting time or commencement of your standby period;
2. When you have consumed alcohol less than 12 hours prior to your specified reporting time or commencement of your standby period;
3. With a blood alcohol level in excess of 0.2 promille;
4. With a blood alcohol level in excess of 0.5 promille;

a) 2 and 3
b) 1 and 3
c) 2and4
d) 1 and 4

Answer 21

A

Question 22

Which of the following statements in correct?

1. A CVR may not be disabled during flight, unless the Pilot-In-Command believes that recorded data should be preserved for investigation purposes.
2. An FDR may be disabled during flight when the Pilot-In-Command believes that recorded data should be preserved for investigation purpose.
3. An FDR may not be erased after flight if subject to mandatory reporting.
4. A captain may deviate from rules, SOPs, and procedures in an emergency situation in the interest of safety.

a) 2, 3 and 4
b) 1, 3 and 4
c) 1and2
d) 3 and 4

Answer 22

B

Question 23

An operator must ensure that for the duration of each flight, the following should be retained on the ground, or carried in a fireproof container in the aircraft:

a) A copy of the mass and balance sheet signed by the Pilot-In-Command.
b) A copy of the weather observations and forecasts for destination aerodrome
and alternates, duly signed by the Pilot-In-Command.
c) A copy of the ICAO Flight Plan signed by the Pilot-In-Command.
d) A copy of the Operational Flight Plan signed by the Pilot-In-Command.

Answer 23

A

Question 24

After an incident subject to mandatory reporting or when, the Authority so directs after any incident, the operator of an aeroplane equipped with a flight recorder must preserve the original data recorded pertaining to that incident for a minimum period of:

a) 1 year
b) 30 days
c) 90 days
d) 60 days

Answer 24

D

Question 25

When the Commander is facing a near collision with another flying device, he shall:

a) File as soon as possible an Airprox report on the frequency of the air traffic service unit involved, in order to allow for immediate investigation and action.
b) Wait until the aircraft has landed to file an air traffic incident report to the Authority of the aerodrome, not to occupy the ATC frequencies with non safety-related exchanges.
c) Transmit via his Authority an air traffic incident report, after the end of the flight and not later than 72 hours after the incident, to protect anonymous information.

d) Without delay notify the air traffic service unit involved of his intention to submit an air traffic incident report and file a Mandatory Report to the Authority after the flight has ended.


Answer 25

D

Question 26

When the pilot is given an ACAS resolution advisory in flight, he shall:

a) Inform the controller immediately, asking for instructions.
b) Comply with the resolution advisory and inform the controller when he is deviating from his initial clearance, then submit a voluntary report under the occurrence reporting, using confidentiality at commander’s discretion.
c) Follow the resolution advisory, unless he was given traffic information on any conflicting aircraft by the controller in charge.
d) Maneuver in accordance with resolution advisory, immediately notify the air traffic service unit and file a Mandatory ACAS Report to the Authority, not later than 72 hours after the incident.

Answer 26

D

Question 27

An operator has to ensure that for all flights operated in commercial air transport:

a) Air Traffic Services are used at any time for all passenger flights and cargo flights with Dangerous Gods on board.
b) Air Traffic Services are used whenever available.
c) Air Traffic Services are used at night and in IMC conditions at least.
d) Air Traffic Services are used at any time for all operations of large aeroplanes with passengers.

Answer 27

B

Question 28

28) ETOPS approval is required for performance class A twin-engined aeroplanes on any routes which contain a point further from an adequate aerodrome than:
a) With a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of 30 or more and a maximum take-off mass less than 35,000 kg, the distance flown in 120 minutes at one-engine inoperative cruise speed.
b) With a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of 20 or more and a maximum take-off mass less 35,000 kg, the distance flow in 90 minutes at one-engine inoperative cruise speed.
c) With either maximum approved passenger seating configuration of 20 or more, either with a maximum take-off mass of 45,360 kg or more, the distance flown in 60 minutes at one-engine inoperative cruise speed.
d) With either a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of 20 or more, either a maximum take-off mass of 45,360 kg or more, the distance flown in 90 minutes at one-engine inoperative cruise speed.

Answer 28

C

Question 29

29) For the pre-flight calculation of fuel required for a flight, reserve fuel has to include contingency fuel, alternate fuel, if a destination alternate is required, final reserve fuel and additional fuel for specific operations:
a) Contingency fuel, shall normally be 5% of the planned trip fuel and at least 20 minutes flying time, and final reserve fuel, for aeroplanes with turbine engines, shall be the fuel required to fly 30 minutes minimum at 1500 ft above aerodrome in standard condition.
b) Contingency fuel shall be increased to 10% of the planned trip fuel when no alternate is required.
c) Contingency fuel, shall normally be 3% of the planned trip fuel and at least 30 minutes flying time, and final reserve fuel, for aeroplanes with turbine engines, shall be the fuel required to fly 30 minutes minimum at 1500 ft above aerodrome in standard conditions.
d) Contingency fuel, shall normally be 5% of the planned trip fuel and at least 20 minutes flying time,and final reserve fuel, for aeroplanes with turbine engines, shall be the fuel required to fly 45 minutes minimum at 1500ft above aerodrome in standard conditions.

Answer 29

A

Question 30

For an Embraer 175 (Maximum take-off mass of 38,790 kg, maximum approved passenger seating configuration 88 passengers) non-ETOPS twin- jet engine aeroplane, the take-off alternate (if needed) shall be located at a distance that does not exceed the equivalent of?

a) Two hours of flight time, at a one-engine-inoperative cruising speed.
b) The minimum of 90 minutes of flight time, at a one-engine-inoperative cruising speed, or one hour at cruising speed, all engines operating.
c) One hour of flight time at cruising speed, all engines operating.
d) One hour of flight time, at a one-engine-inoperative cruising speed.

Answer 30

D

Question 31

In-Flight fuel management, additional conditions for specific procedures.

a)On a flight using the RCF procedure, in order to proceed to the Destination 1 aerodrome, the operator must ensure that the usable fuel remaining at the decision point is at least the total of:
• trip fuel from the decision point to the Destination 1 aerodrome; and
• contingency fuel equal to 5% of trip fuel from the decision point to the Destination 1 aerodrome; and
• destination 1 aerodrome alternate fuel, if a destination 1 alternate aerodrome is required; and
• Final reserve fuel

b) On a flight using the RCF procedure, in order to proceed to the Destination 1 aerodrome, the operator must ensure that the usable fuel remaining at the decision point is at least the total of:
• trip fuel from the decision point to the Destination 1 aerodrome; and
• contingency fuel equal to 15% of trip fuel from the decision point to the Destination 1 aerodrome; and
• destination 1 aerodrome alternate fuel, if a destination 1 alternate aerodrome is required; and
• Final reserve fuel

c) On a flight using the RCF procedure, in order to proceed to the Destination 1 aerodrome, the operator must ensure that the usable fuel remaining at the decision point is at least the total of:
• trip fuel from the decision point to the Destination 1 aerodrome; and
• contingency fuel equal to 20% of trip fuel from the decision point to the Destination 1 aerodrome; and
• destination 1 aerodrome alternate fuel, if a destination 1 alternate aerodrome is required; and
• Final reserve fuel

d) On a flight using RCF procedure, in order to proceed to the Destination 1 aerodrome, the commander must ensure that the usable fuel remaining at the decision point is at least the total of:
• trip fuel from the decision point to the Destination 1 aerodrome; and
• contingency fuel equal to 10% of totals fuel from the original aerodrome to the Destination 1 aerodrome; and
• destination 1 aerodrome alternate fuel, if a destination 1 alternate aerodrome is required; and
• Final reserve fuel

Answer 31

A

Question 32

During instrument approach IF,
a) after passing the outer marker or equivalent position, the reported RVR/ visibility falls below the applicable minimum, miss approach must be initiated.

b) after passing the outer marker or equivalent position, the reported RVR/ visibility falls below the applicable minimum, the approach may be continued to DA/H but not MDA/H incase of non-procession approach.
c) after passing the outer marker or equivalent position, the reported RVR/visibility falls below the applicable minimum, the approach may be continued to DA/H or MDA/H.

d) after passing the outer marker or equivalent position, the reported RVR/ visibility falls below the applicable minimum, the approach may be continued to DA/H or MDA/H only if the stated in the Ops Manual.

Answer 32

C

Question 33

Bird Hazards and Strike

a) A commander shall immediately inform the local air traffic service unit whenever a potential bird hazard is observed.
b) Only birds strikes is reported, as stated in CAR ops 1.420
c) A commander shall immediately inform the local air traffic service unit after landing in written format whenever a potential bird hazard is observed
d) A commander shall inform DGSAS whenever a potential bird hazard is observed

Answer 33

A

Question 34

Subject to the approval of the AUTHORITY, an operator may reduce the take- off minima to 125m RVR (Category A, B and C airplanes) or 150m RVR (Category D airplanes) when:

a) High or medium intensity runway centreline lights spaced 15 m or less and high intensity edge lights spaced 60 m or less are in operation.
b) High intensity runway centreline lights space 20 m or less and high intensity edge lights spaced 80 m or less are in operation.
c) High intensity or medium runway centreline lights spaced 15 m or less and high intensity edge lights spaced 80 m or less are in operation.
d) High intensity runway centreline lights spaced 15 m or less and high intensity edge lights space 60 m or less are in operation


Answer 34

D

Question 35

If the intercepted aircraft is not able to keep pace with the intercepting aircraft, the latter is expected to:

a) fly a series of race-track patterns and to rock its wings each time it passes
the intercepted aircraft.
b) Continue flying behind the intercepted aircraft and flashing the landing lights at irregular intervals
c) Communicate with the intercepting aircraft on guard frequency 121.5 MGZ.
d) Do 360 deg to the right at rate one turn.

Answer 35

A

Question 36

Flights operated at FL 280 or above with in Muscat UTA and in controlled airspace and airways outside the UTA within the Muscat FIR shall be operated as per ______ requirements.

a) RVSM
b) RNAV10
c) RNAV1/RNAV5
d) RNAV 5 only

Answer 36

D?

Question 37

An operator need not select a destination alternate for an IFR flight of less than 6 hours duration, when there are 2 separate useable runways at the destination and if, within 1 hour before and after ETA, (i) ceiling will be at least _____ft or (ii) circling height +____ft and (iii) visibility will be at least ____ km.

(i)
a) 1000ft
b) 2000ft
c) 1500ft 
d) 1500ft
(ii)
500ft
500ft
1000ft 
500ft
(iii)
5 km
5 km
10 km
8 km

Answer 37

B

Question 38

When must an operator select two alternate destinations for an IFR flight?

1. When the planned flight exceeds 6 hours.
2. When, within 1 hour of ETA at the destination, the ceiling is forecast to be less than
   2000ft or the visibility less than 5 km.
3. When the forecast weather within 1 hour of ETA is below the applicable planning
   minima.
4. When there is no meteorological information available for the destination
   aerodrome.

a) All of the above.
b) 1 or 2
c) 2 or 3
d) 3 or 4

Answer 38

D

Question 39

For the preparation of an ETOPS flight, an aerodrome can be selected as en- route alternate aerodrome only when the appropriate weather information indicate that, within one hour of possible time of landing:

a) Ceiling will be at least DH + 500ft and visibility greater than 1500m, when at least one precision approach is available.
b) Ceiling and visibility will be above applicable minima, when two independent precision approaches are available with separate runways.
c) Ceiling will be above DH + 200 ft and Visibility/RVR above minimum Visibility/RVR + 800m, when at least one precision approach is available.
d) Ceiling and visibility will be above Circling approach minima whatever the available approach procedure.

Answer 39

C

Question 40

If, as a result of an in-flight fuel check, the expected usable fuel remaining on arrival at the destination aerodrome is less than the required alternate fuel plus the final reserve:

a) The commander has to adjust performance so as to land with a minimum remaining of 15 minutes.
b) The commander must take appropriate action and proceed to any adequate aerodrome so as to perform a safe landing with not less that final reserve fuel.

c) The commander must take into account the traffic and the operational
conditions prevailing at the destination aerodrome, in deciding whether to proceed to the destination aerodrome or to divert so as to perform a safe
landing with not less than final reserve fuel.

d) The commander has to declare an emergency and proceed direct to destination aerodrome, unless weather conditions are below applicable minima in which case, he has to divert immediately to the alternate aerodrome.

Answer 40

C

Question 41

Flight crew engaged in performing duties essential to the safe operation of an aeroplane must use supplemental oxygen when:

1. Cabin altitude exceeds 10,000ft
2. Cabin altitude exceeds 10,000ft for more than 30 minutes
3. Cabin altitude exceeds 13,000ft
4. Cabin altitude exceeds 13,000ft for more than 30 minutes

a) 2 only
b) 1 and 4
c) 4 only
d) 2 and 3

Answer 41

D

Question 42

You are carrying out an instrument approach where no Outer Marker or equivalent position exists and ATC reports the RVR/Visibility as below the applicable minima. You are at 1500ft on QFE. MDH is 750ft. You should not continue the approach beyond?

a) 1500ft
b) 750 ft
c) 1000ft
d) Missed Approach Point (MAPt)

Answer 42

C

Question 43

All non-precision approaches have to be flown using the Continuous Descent Final Approach (CDFA) technique unless approved by the Authority. Under such approval for specific runways, for a category C aeroplane:

a) Applicable minimum RVR increased by 400m, 5 000m maximum.
b) Applicable minimum RVR increased by 200m, 2 000m maximum.
c) Applicable minimum RVR with a minimum of 2 400m.
d) Applicable minimum RVR increased by 200m, 5 000m maximum.

Answer 43

A

Question 44

Low Visibility Procedures are required at an aerodrome to ensure safe operations for?

a) All approaches and take-offs with a visibility/RVR below 1500m.
b) Category II and III approaches and Low Visibility Take-offs.
c) All precision approaches and Low-Visibility Take-Offs.
d) All approaches and take-offs with a visibility/RVR below 800m.

Answer 44

B

Question 45

Low visibility take-off operator approval is required from the Authority for take-off on, a Category C airplane, with RVR less than?

a) 400 m.
b) 150 m.
c) 200 m.
d) 75 m.

Answer 45

B

Question 46

When changing operator as commander on the same type of aeroplane, before commencing unsupervised line flying, you must?

a) Complete with the new operator a specific conversion course, including a CRM Commander course, and an initial Line Check, but you do not need to perform a Proficiency Check as long as your previous License Proficiency Check is still valid.
b) As a commander already rated on the type, just pass your proficiency check, if not valid anymore, but you do not need to complete the conversion course. You must attend a CRM course then have to pass your route & aerodrome qualification and initial line check.
c) Complete with the new operator a conversion course, pass a proficiency check, attend a full CRM initial course, perform some Line Flying Under Supervision, as specified in Operations Manual Part-D, and finally pass a Line Check.
d) Attend a conversion course as defined in Operations Manual Part-D and obtain your route & aerodrome qualification, if necessary, as long as you are still complying with proficiency and line checking requirements on the type.

Answer 46

C

Question 47

Regardless of acclimatization, aeroplane crew members, who are employed on a regular early morning duty for a maximum of 5 consecutive duties, shall work to the following:

a) The minimum rest period before the start of such a series of duties is 24 hours.
(ii) The duty will not exceed 12 hours, irrespective of the sectors flown. (iii) At the finish of such a series of duties, crew members will have a minimum of 63 hours free from all duties

b) The minimum rest period before the start of such a series of duties is 24 hours.
(ii) The duty will not exceed 10 hours, irrespective of the sectors flown. (iii) At the finish of such a series of duties, crew members will have a minimum of 63 hours free from all duties

c) The minimum rest period before the start of such a series of duties is 24 hours.
(ii) The duty will not exceed 10 hours, irrespective of the sectors flown. (iii) At the finish of such a series of duties, crew members will have a minimum of 40 hours free from all duties.

d) The minimum rest period before the start of such a series of duties is 24 hours.
(ii) The duty will not exceed 9 hours, irrespective of the sectors flown.
(iii) At the finish of such a series of duties, crew members will have aminimum of 63 hours free from all duties.

Answer 47

D

Question 48

A pilot of an aircraft when operating between 13000 feet and flight level 150 will set the altimeter to?

a) 1013.2
b) aerodrome QNH or regional QNH
c) QNH given by ATC
d) QFF

Answer 48

C

Question 49

A pilot of an aircraft that is descending through FL 150 will set altimeter to?

a) 1013.2
b) QNH
c) QNH at 13 000ft
d) Depend on MSA and transom altitude.

Answer 49

B

Question 50

Age 60-64. The holder of a pilot license who has attained the age of 60 years shall not act as a pilot of an aircraft engaged in commercial air transport operations except:

a) as a member of a multi-pilot crew and provided that, and such holder is the only pilot in the flight crew who has attained age 60.
b) as a member of a multi-pilot crew and provided that, and such holder is the only pilot in the flight crew who has attained age 64.
c) as a member of a multi-pilot crew and provided that, and such holder is the only pilot in the flight crew who has attained age 65.
d) as a member of a multi-pilot crew and provided that, and such holder is the only pilot in the flight crew who has attained age 60 and must act as FO only.

Answer 50

A

Question 51

A crew member shall not perform duties on an airplane:
a) Until 24 hours has elapsed after deep water diving, Following blood donation except when 24 hours has elapsed
b) Until 12 hours has elapsed after deep water diving, Following blood donation except when 24 hours has elapsed.
c) Until 24 hours has elapsed after deep water diving, Following blood donation except when 12 hours has elapsed.
d) Until 12 hours has elapsed after deep water diving, Following blood donation except when 12 hours has elapsed.

Answer 51

A

Question 52

Which State has to be informed of any accident occurring within the territory of the Sultanate of Oman?

a) State of Registry.
b) State of Operator.
c) State of Aircraft Design.
d) All of the above.

Answer 52

D

Question 53

An aircraft shall be removed from the national registry, when?

a) The owner or the lessor of the aircraft is losing his nationality.
b) The aircraft is completely destroyed or lost.
c) Its Certificate of Airworthiness has expired for 2 consecutive years.
d) A and B.

Answer 53

B

Question 54

A pilot of an aircraft getting ATC light signal ‘FLASHING WHITE’ will understand instructions as?

a) Cleared to land
b) Land at this aerodrome and proceed to apron
c) Return to starting point on aerodrome
d) B & C are correct

Answer 54

D

Question 55

A pilot of an aircraft getting ATC light signal, ‘Series of RED FLASHES’ will understand instructions as?

a) Give way to other aircraft and continue circling
b) Aerodrome unsafe, do not land
c) Taxi clear of landing area
d) B & C are correct

Answer 55

D

Question 56

Flight documents to be carried?

1. The aircraft flight manual or other documents or information concerning any operating limitations prescribed for the aircraft by the certificating authority of the State of Registry.
2. Current and suitable charts for the route of the proposed flight and all routes along which it is reasonable to expect that they may divert the flight.
3. Procedures, as prescribed in Annex 2, for pilots-in-command of intercepted aircraft.
4. A list of visual signals for use by intercepting and intercepted Aircraft

a) Only 1 and 2 correct
b) All Correct
c) Only 1, 3 and 4 correct
d) All correct except number 4

Answer 56

A?BB

Question 57

Each operator shall ensure that the total duty periods to which a flight crew member is assigned do not exceed:

a) 1800 hours in any period of 365 consecutive days, 200 hours in any period of 28 consecutive days
b) 1800 hours in any period of one year, 190 hours in any period of one month.
c) 1800 hours in any period of 365 consecutive days, 190 hours in any period of 28 consecutive days
d) 2000 hours in any period of 365 consecutive days, 200 hours in any period of 28 consecutive days.

Answer 57

C

Question 58

Unless prior permission has been granted by the Authority, following an incident that is subject to mandatory reporting, the operator of an aircraft should retain the flight data recorder for?

a) period of 60 days unless otherwise directed by the Authority.
b) period of 120 days unless otherwise directed by the Authority.
c) period of 3 months unless otherwise directed by the Authority.
d) Period of 60 days or until the investigation has completed and final report promulgate.

Answer 58

A

Question 59

Unless prior permission has been granted by the Authority, following an incident that is subject to mandatory reporting, the operator of an aircraft should retain the flight data recorder for?

a) period of 60 days unless otherwise directed by the Authority.
b) period of 120 days unless otherwise directed by the Authority.
c) period of 3 months unless otherwise directed by the Authority.
d) Period of 5 years.

Answer 59

A