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MWSU Data Analysis > Data Analysis > Flashcards

Data Analysis Flashcards

1
Q

The actual datum that is recorded is called

1) fields.
2) variables.
3) observations.
4) All of the above.

A

ALL ABOVE

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2
Q

Choice of appropriate sampling method is always obvious and cannot involve a mixture of methods.

True
False

A

False

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3
Q

In preparing for survey research, which of the following should be considered first?

1) Formulate the aims of the study.
2) Decide what analysis is required to satisfy the aims of the study.
3) Collect the data required by the survey.
4) Decide what data are required to facilitate the analysis.

A

Formulate the aims of the study.

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4
Q

The students in this class represent which of the following in relation to the student body of MSU?

1) sample
2) population

A

sample

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5
Q

Simple random sampling can be used based on this section of the 4123 class roster.

True
False

A

true

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6
Q

I have 50 names in a hat. I draw 10 names one at a time and replace the name before drawing each time. What type of sampling is this?

1) systematic sampling
2) stratifed sampling
3) simple random sampling
4) cluster sampling

A

simple random sample

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7
Q

Statistical literacy is necessary for health care workers if they are to read and evaluate reports and other literature critcally and intelligently.

True
False

A

true

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8
Q

Statistics will do all of the following except:

1) describe data.
2) prove relationship.
3) design experiments.
4) test hypotheses.

A

prove relationship

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9
Q

The statement, “Forty percent of the class is male and 60% is female” is what category of statistic?

1) descriptive
2) inferential

A

descriptive

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10
Q

Without initial thought being given to the aims of the survey, the information or data may not be appropriate.

True
False

A

true

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11
Q

The order in which a group of horses finish a race represents what level of data?

1) interval
2) ordinal
3) ratio
4) nominal

A

ORDINAL

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12
Q

The commonly accepted level of precision is to have how many steps between the largest and smallest observation?

1) 30 and 300
2) 20 and 200
3) 40 and 400
4) 10 and 100

A

30 AND 300

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13
Q

Which of the following is considered the lowest level of data?

1) interval
2) nominal
3) ordinal
4) ratio

A

NOMINAL

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14
Q

A researcher is recording the number of respiration per minute for her project. These observations would be considered what level of data?

1) interval
2) nominal
3) ordinal
4) ratio

A

RATIO

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15
Q

If the number of categories in a pie graph is large, it may be difficult to interpret; thus, one might consider using a bar graph to display the results.

True
False

A

TRUE

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16
Q

The number of apples to the number of oranges in a basket is considered what type of derived variable?

1) proportion
2) rate
3) percentage
4) ratio

A

RATIO

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17
Q

Breaths per minute is considered what type of derived variable?

1) proportion
2) ratio
3) rate
4) percentage

A

RATE

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18
Q

A histogram is useful for presenting distributions of observations of continuous variables.

True
False

A

TRUE

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19
Q

Values of continuous variables are usually measurements.

True
False

A

TRUE

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20
Q

Values of continuous variables are usually measurements.

True
False

A

TRUE

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21
Q

The following frequency distribution table lists the heights of 49 pre-teens. What is the standard deviation of this distribution? Round to the nearest hundredth.

Height Class; Mark; Frequency
50-52; 51; 5
53-55; 54 ;8
56-58; 57; 12
59-61; 60; 13
62-64; 63; 11
A

3.85

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22
Q

The following represents scores obtained on a self-esteem inventory. Calculate the standard deviation for this distribution of scores. Round to the nearest hundredth.

31, 41, 45, 48, 52, 55, 56, 56, 63, 65, 65, 67, 67, 70, 70, 74, 75, 78, 79, 79, 80, 81, 83, 85, 85, 87, 90, 92, 95, 99

A

16.89

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23
Q

The mode is the only measure of the average that can be used on ordinal scales.

A

true

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24
Q

The following represents scores obtained on a self-esteem inventory. What is the variance for this distribution of scores? Round to the nearest hundredth.

31, 41, 45, 48, 52, 55, 56, 56, 63, 65, 65, 67, 67, 70, 70

A

134.92

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25
Q

What is the median score of the following distribution representing the systolic blood pressures of 20 patients? Round to the nearest tenth.

130, 125, 120, 110, 115, 115, 140, 145, 125, 124, 98, 105, 115, 108, 119, 120, 136, 132, 130, 121

A

120.5

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26
Q

The following represents scores obtained on a self-esteem inventory. What is the width of range for this distribution of scores?

31, 41, 45, 48, 52, 55, 56, 56, 63, 65, 65, 67, 67, 70, 70, 74, 75, 78, 79, 79, 80, 81, 83, 85, 85, 87, 90, 92, 95, 99

A

68

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27
Q

The following frequency distribution table lists the heights of 49 pre-teens. What is the mean of this distribution? Round to the nearest hundredth.

Height Class; Mark; Frequency
50-52; 51; 5
53-55; 54 ;8
56-58; 57; 12
59-61; 60 ;13
62-64 63 11
A

58.04

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28
Q

What is the mode score of the following distribution representing the systolic blood pressures of 20 patients?

130, 125, 120, 110, 115, 115, 140, 145, 125, 124, 98, 105, 115, 108, 119, 120, 136, 132, 130, 121

A

115

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29
Q

A researcher administers a questionnaire to determine patient’s knowledge after pre-operative education. The researcher also gives a group of people who did not receive the education the same questionnaire. The standard deviation of the first group is 12.78 and the standard deviation of the second group is 10.39. Which group had the most consistent scores? Type ‘first group’ or ‘second group’ as your answer without the quotes.

A

Second

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30
Q

The following represents scores obtained on a self-esteem inventory. What is the range for this distribution of scores?

31, 41, 45, 48, 52, 55, 56, 56, 63, 65, 65, 67, 67, 70, 70, 74, 75, 78, 79, 79, 80, 81, 83, 85, 85, 87, 90, 92, 95, 99

A

31 to 99

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31
Q

If there are 100 participants in a study, what is the probability of selecting one with a T score of 70?

1) 1/100
2) 21/25
3) 1/50
4) 1/10

A

1/50

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32
Q

The mean score of a test is 60 and the standard deviation is 5. John’s score is a 70. What is his z score?

1) -1
2) 0
3) +2
4) +1

A

+2

33
Q

Jennifer has a T-score of 30. What is her z score?

1) -2
2) 0
3) -1
4) +3

A

-2

34
Q

The mean score of a test is 60 and the standard deviation is 5. John’s score is a 70. What is his T score?

1) 60
2) 70
3) 50
4) 40

A

70

35
Q

The ratio of favorable to total outcomes is known as:

probability
odds

A

probability

36
Q

When a curve is pulled upward by extreme high scores, it is said to be:

1) negatively skewed
2) positively skewed

A

positively skewed

37
Q

In a barrel, there are 10 orange balls, 7 red balls, 5 yellow balls, and 2 black balls. If a single ball is chosen at random, what are the odds that a black ball will be chosen?

1) 5/12
2) 1/12
3) 5/24
4) 7/24

A

1/12

38
Q

In a barrel, there are 10 orange balls, 7 red balls, 5 yellow balls, and 2 black balls. If a single ball is chosen at random, what is the probability that an orange ball will be chosen?

1) 7/24
2) 5/12
3) 1/12
4) 5/24

A

5/12

39
Q

When we state in our hypothesis that their will be “no statistically significant difference”, which tail would cause us to reject the hypothesis?

1) right tail
2) left tail
3) either tail
4) neither tail

A

either

40
Q

If the critical p < 0.01, which obtained p value is statistically significant?

1) 0.001
2) 0.50
3) 0.04
4) 0.2

A

0.2

41
Q

The procedure for deciding if the outcome of a particular event is significant is called:

standard error of the difference
confidence interval
standard error of the mean
statistical test

A

STATISTICAL

42
Q

How can a researcher reduce the likelihood of committing Type I errors?

1) randomize
2) reduce sample size
3) always use null hypotheses
4) use several statistical tests

A

RANDOMIZE

43
Q

If we have a population of 50,000 people, which sample size would give us the greatest confidence in the experimental results?

1) 5000
2) 1000
3) 50
4) 100

A

5000

44
Q

Parametric tests require data to be normally distributed and to have homogeneous variances.

True
False

A

false

45
Q

If we used this statistics course for a study and included every member as a population of the course, we would still have a sampling error.

1) True
2) False

A

true

46
Q

Which type of test compare medians rather than means and variances?

non-parametric
parametric

A

non parametric

47
Q

If we randomly drew 10 samples from the same population, calculated the mean of each, then calculated the mean of those sample means, it would equal the population mean.

1) True
2) False

A

true

48
Q

In the following null hypothesis, what element is missing? There will be no statistically significant difference in knowledge of statistics when comparing health sciences majors and art majors.

1) what is being compared
2) test instrument being used
3) groups being compared

A

WHAT IS BEING COMPARE

49
Q

Which type of error is the more serious to commit?

1) Type I
2) Type II

A
  1. TYPE 1
50
Q

Which confidence interval will require the largest sample size to support the estimate of accuracy?

1) 99%
2) 90%
3) 95%
4) 86%

A

99 %

51
Q

Chi-square tests are typically used for what level of data?

1) ordinal
2) nominal
3) ratio
4) interval

A

NOMINAL

52
Q

Which of the following Pearson results indicates a direct relationship between the variables (as one goes up so does the other)?

1) -0.80
2) -0.20
3) 0.90
4) 0.00

A

0.90

53
Q

Using Appendix 3 (p. 189) of your text, determine if the following is statistically significant. A goodness of fit test is being performed with 10 categories. The calculated X2 = 17.00 at the 95% confidence interval.

1) yes
2) no

A

yes

54
Q

If a researcher is looking for a correlation between math anxiety (as measured by the MARS assessment inventory) and physics test scores when comparing students who have passed college algebra and those who have not, which test should be used?

1) Spearman’s correlation
2) Goodness of fit test
3) Chi-square contingency test
4) Pearson’s correlation

A

PEARSON’S CORRELATION

55
Q

What is the coefficient of determination for the following result (r=0.80)?

1) 0.20
2) 1.60
3) 0.80
4) 0.64

A

0.64

56
Q

In the following null hypothesis, which element is missing? There will be no statistically significant correlation in math anxiety as measured by the MARS assessment inventory and physics scores.

1) scores being compared
2) groups being compared
3) instrument being used
4) None of the above

A

GROUPS BEING COMPARED

57
Q

Correlations are only measured on ordinal scales.

True
False

A

false

58
Q

Using Appendix 3 (p. 189) of your text, determine if the following result is statistically significant at the 99% confidence interval: X2 (14) = 22.50 (note: p value is intentionally left off so as not to give the answer).

1) yes
2) no

A

no

59
Q

Which of the following Pearson results indicates the strongest correlation?

1) -0.60
2) 0.00
3) 0.20
4) -0.10

A

-0.60

60
Q

Positive correlations are also referred to as direct correlations.
True
False

A

True

61
Q

ANOVA assumes that all observations are obtained randomly and are normally distributed.

True
False

A

TRUE

62
Q

When comparing means, if there are more than 30 observations in each sample, it is necessary to use the z-test.

True
False

A

TRUE

63
Q

Using Appendix 2 (p. 188) of your text, determine if the following is statistically significant. A two-tailed t-test is being performed with 28 participants. The calculated t=1.85 at the 95% confidence interval.

1) yes
2) no

A

NO

64
Q

In the following result, what is the obtained t value? t(26) = 2.22, p < 0.05

1) 26
2) 2.22
3) .05
4) must be found on a table

A

2.22

65
Q

In one-way ANOVA, sample sizes do not have to be equal.

True
False

A

TRUE

66
Q

In the following result, what are the degrees of freedom? t(40) = 2.704, p < 0.01

1) 40
2) 2.704
3) .01

A

40

67
Q

Which test is appropriate for difference in class rank between fathers and sons?

1) Kolmogorov-Smirnov test
2) t-test
3) Mann-Whitney U test

A

Kolmogorov-Smirnov test

68
Q

In the following result, how many participants were in the study? t(26) = 2.22, p < 0.05

1) 26
2) 27
3) 28
4) cannot be determined

A

26

69
Q

Using Appendix 2 (p. 188) of your text, determine if the following is statistically significant at the 99% confidence interval for a two-tailed test: t(16) = 3.0 (note: p value is intentionally left off so as not to give the answer).

1) no
2) yes

A

YES

70
Q

Using Appendix 2 (p. 188) of your text, determine if the following is statistically significant. A two-tailed t-test is being performed with 28 related participants. The calculated t=2.10 at the 95% confidence interval.

1) yes
2) no

A

YES

71
Q

Which of the following is the most essential feature of a clinical trial?

1) large sample
2) at least 5 groups
3) randomization of subjects
4) a long trial period

A

randomization of subjects

72
Q

The ratio of the incidence rates among exposed to unexposed individuals in a population is

1) prevelance
2) incidence
3) relative risk
4) experimental event rate

A

relative risk

73
Q

Which common clinical trial design uses a base-line monitoring stage before randomly allocating patients to one of the treatment groups?

1) sequential study
2) group comparative study
3) cross-over study

A

group comparative study

74
Q

When addressing repeatability, one should ask: Do the results agree with those from other studies?

True
False

A

TRUE

75
Q

The odds of an event occurring is

1) relative risk reduction
2) number needed to treat
3) incidence
4) odds ratio

A

odds ratio

76
Q

In which common clinical trial design do all patients in the study receive all treatments in the investigation?

1) cross-over study
2) group comparative study
3) sequential study

A

cross-over study

77
Q

The proportion of the population that has a disease at a specific point in time is

1) prevelance
2) incidence
3) relative risk
4) experimental event rate

A

prevelance

78
Q

How often a particular event occurs within an experimental group is known as

1) NNT
2) CER
3) ARR
4) EER

A

EER

79
Q

A disadvantage to a cohort study is the need for a large sample size to study rare diseases.

True
False

A

TRUE

MWSU Data Analysis (1 decks)

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