Dash 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Gross weight with fuel and two souls

A

12,800lbs

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2
Q

One engine thrust, mil and Max

A

2200/3300

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3
Q

Fuel flow for one engine, Max at rest and Mach 1

A

7300/ 11,400lb/hr

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4
Q

Pushing start arms ignition circuit for

A

30sec

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5
Q

One engine normal oil capacity and air expansion space

A

4qt, 1 qt

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6
Q

Gravity flow guaranteed up to ____, Normal operation _____, flameouts have occurred at _____

A

6000, 25000, 7000

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7
Q

fuel cutoff switches operated by ____ and cut off fuel in ____

A

DC, 1 sec

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8
Q

fuel low light comes on after ____

A

7.5 sec and less than 250lbs

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9
Q

Gearbox shift occurs at ____

A

65-75%

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10
Q

Voltage of battery is ____ V and of DC rectifiers is _____

A

24, 28

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11
Q

AC system provides ____/____ V power

A

115/200

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12
Q

AC generators cut-in between ____

A

43-48%

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13
Q

Min battery voltage of ___ is required to close batt relay

A

18V

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14
Q

Left engine provides ____ psi for ____ system

A

3200 utility

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15
Q

right engine provides ____psi for ____ system

A

3200 flight controls

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16
Q

Rudder limited to ___ deg each side when nosegear out 3/4 or less

A

6 deg

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17
Q

landing gear extension/retraction takes approximately

A

6sec

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18
Q

Gear horn and warning light come on when gear not down and locked and ____ kts or less, atltitude____, or below, and both throttles below ____

A

210kts, 10,000ft, 96%

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19
Q

When accelerating, gear light may not go out until __

A

240kts

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20
Q

Landing gear alt release pulled out ____in, and requires ____sec

A

10in, 15-35sec

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21
Q

Rear canopy follows front by ____ after canopy jettison

A

1 sec

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22
Q

Fuel for left engine is ____ gal serviced/usable and ___lbs usable

A

293, 286 gal, 1916lbs

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23
Q

Fuel for right engine is ____ gal serviced/usable and ___lbs usable

A

305/297 gal, 1990

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24
Q

Total fuel for the engine is ____ gal serviced/usable and ___lbs usable

A

598/ 583 gal, 3906

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25
Q

With single-engine and less than ____ in either system, leave both boost pumps on and crossfeed on:

A

250lbs

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26
Q

A minimum of ____ RPM is required to achieve any engine fuel flow _____% RPM is the heart of airstart envelope at any altititude

A

12%, 18-20%

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27
Q

Ignition must occur before fuel flow reaches

A

360lb/hr

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28
Q

After aborted start, wait ____min before attempting another start

A

2min

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29
Q

If EGT doesn’t rise within ___sec of fuel flow indications, abort start

A

12sec

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30
Q

Flaps should be +/- ____ of 60%

A

5

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31
Q

Normal rotation speed on initial T/O is ____, lift off speed is ___

A

145 KIAS rounded (141 actually), 165KIAS

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32
Q

Delay takeoff a min of ___min behind large and ____ behind heavy

A

2, 4

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33
Q

With a Xwind >____ knots, spacing behind large/heavy aircraft can be reduced

A

5

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34
Q

Abort T/O if either afterburner doesnt light within

A

5sec

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35
Q

Touchdown speed is ____ plus 1 Knot per 100lbs over 1000lbs

A

135

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36
Q

Min hydraulic pressure is

A

1500psi

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37
Q

each generator is ___ phase

A

3

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38
Q

The O2 light comes on at or below ___ liter, may blink at or below ___

A

1, 3 liters

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39
Q

There are ____ rotating beacons, located where

A

2, tail/ lower fuselage

40
Q

There are ____ position lights, located where

A

4, tail/ lower fuselage, each wing

41
Q

Battery energizes DC bus for ___

A

15min at 80% charged

42
Q

If oil pressure is high in cold weather, should be in limits within ____ min

A

6min

43
Q

The radio attenuation switch reduced UHF and VHF volume by ____

A

66%

44
Q

IDENT sends a pulse with transponder replies for ____ sec

A

15sec

45
Q

Standby AI provides _____ deg climb, ___ deg dive, ____ deg roll capacity and provides ____ minutes of useful info within ___ deg after DC failure

A

92, 78, 360deg, 9min, +/-6deg

46
Q

Maintain a minimum of ____ RPM to ensure effective anti-ice operation

A

80%

47
Q

Due to oil supply restriction, zero G flight restricted to ___sec

A

10sec

48
Q

Due to oil supply restirction, negative G flight restricted to ___

A

30sec

49
Q

Rudder system failure may push rudder to ___deg and stag failure may push rudder____ deg

A

30deg, 2 deg

50
Q

Touchdown greater than ____KCAS, should not be attempted

A

200KTS

51
Q

With Asymmetric flaps, maintain ____ KTS above final appr/ touchdown speed and touchdown with no less than ___Kts

A

20 kts/ 165 kts

52
Q

Max speed for Nosewheel

A

174

53
Q

Estimation for landing roll is ___+ fuel (not including 1000ft down), No-flap ____ landing roll,

A

2500, doubles

54
Q

Anti-Ice will cause a loss of ____ % thrust in MIL and ____ in MAX

A

8.5%, 5.5%

55
Q

If flab-slab interconnect fails and flaps needed for landing ___ % flaps will provide adequate control authority and controllable stick forces

A

30-45%

56
Q

Pressure reg, maintain cabin alt ___ +/- from ____ alt to ____alt

A

8000 +/- 2000, 8 to 23

57
Q

Avoid Max thrust dives when below ____lb in either fuel tank

A

650

58
Q

Use ____ knots as go/no go for simple tire failure

A

100kts

59
Q

increase final approach and touchdown speed by ___ the gust factor

A

1/2

60
Q

Landing light retraction takes ___

A

10sec

61
Q

AOA max range is ____, endurance/best angle of climb is ____,

A

.18, .3

62
Q

Nozzles should stabilize within ____ sec after rapid throttle movements

A

10 sec

63
Q

First 4 1/2 of stick travel provides ____ aileron deflection

A

50%

64
Q

Next 1 1/2 of stick travel provides ___ aileron deflection

A

Full

65
Q

Crossfeed recommended with fuel imbalance of ____ or greater

A

200

66
Q

Holding airspeed

A

250-265

67
Q

Radar pattern typically burns

A

325lbs

68
Q

Turbulent air/thunderstorms penetration speed is ___

A

280kts

69
Q

Climb possible at SETOS is ____fpm

A

100fpm

70
Q

Climb increased by ___fpm each kt between SETOS and SETOS +10

A

8-50fpm

71
Q

Gear retraction may take ____ when retracted between SETOS and SETOS + 10

A

1 min

72
Q

If unable to retract gear, best climb at ___ for 60% flaps, ____ for 0% flaps:

A

200, 220

73
Q

Optimum pitch for ejection is

A

20 NH

74
Q

With loss of canopy slow to ___kts; min drage occurs at ____KTS

A

300, 225

75
Q

If one hydr system reads zero, hydr system transfer may occur and flight time could be limited to ___

A

35min

76
Q

Maintain ___KTS above min controllable airspeed in descent/ landing approach

A

20kts

77
Q

Max crosswind for dry, wet, and icy or standing water

A

30, 20, 10

78
Q

Max crosswind for touch and go

A

25

79
Q

Max crosswind for solo students

A

15/ 10 wet rwy

80
Q

Minimum rwy length for takeoff / landing

A

8000ft

81
Q

low level min and max airspeed is

A

300, 420

82
Q

Perform all aerobatic maneuvers above

A

8000ft AGL

83
Q

stall and slow flight must be performed between

A

8000ft - FL 200

84
Q

Min power setting for stall and slow flight

A

80%

85
Q

Nose high recoveries must be accomplished below

A

FL 240

86
Q

Do not perform supersonic flight below ____ unless in an authorized airspace

A

FL 300

87
Q

Solo students will not perform patterns and landing with ___ fuel

A

2500lbs

88
Q

Normal minimum fuel for solo students is

A

800

89
Q

minimum fuel is

A

600

90
Q

emergency fuel is

A

400

91
Q

Min taxi interval is ___ staggered ____ in trail

A

150, 300ft

92
Q

REstricted low approach must be initiated by ____ unless otherwise directed

A

500ft AGL

93
Q

Chase aircraft can low approach down to

A

300ft

94
Q

Begin close pull up with a min of ____ kts, maintain min of ___

A

240, 200

95
Q

Rolling T/O may increase takeoff distance by

A

150-300ft