Dante Sci 10 Flashcards

1
Q

What are properties in chemistry?

A

Characteristics of a substance that can be observed or measured without changing the substance itself.

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2
Q

What are the two types of properties in chemistry?

A
  • Physical properties
  • Chemical properties
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3
Q

Define physical properties.

A

Characteristics that can be observed or measured without changing the substance’s identity.

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4
Q

Define chemical properties.

A

Describes how a substance reacts with other substances to form new ones.

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5
Q

List four examples of physical properties.

A
  • Color
  • Density
  • Melting Point
  • Boiling Point
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6
Q

List four examples of chemical properties.

A
  • Flammability
  • Reactivity with Acid
  • Oxidation (Rusting)
  • Toxicity
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7
Q

What is a physical change?

A

A transformation that alters the form or appearance of a substance without changing its identity.

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8
Q

What is a chemical change?

A

A transformation that results in the formation of a new substance with different properties.

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9
Q

What is one piece of evidence that a chemical change has occurred?

A

Color Change

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10
Q

What does a Bohr-Rutherford diagram represent?

A

The structure of an atom, showing protons and neutrons in the nucleus and electrons in energy levels.

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11
Q

How do you determine the number of protons in an element?

A

By finding the atomic number on the Periodic Table.

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12
Q

What is the maximum number of electrons the first shell can hold?

A

2 electrons

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13
Q

What is the maximum number of electrons the second shell can hold?

A

8 electrons

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14
Q

What is the maximum number of electrons the third shell can hold?

A

18 electrons

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15
Q

What is the maximum number of electrons the fourth shell can hold?

A

32 electrons

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16
Q

What are the two main types of subatomic particles in an atom’s nucleus?

A
  • Protons
  • Neutrons
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17
Q

What is the charge of an electron?

A

Negative charge

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18
Q

What is an ion?

A

An atom or molecule that has gained or lost one or more electrons, resulting in a charged species.

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19
Q

What is a cation?

A

A positively charged ion formed when an atom loses electrons.

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20
Q

What is an anion?

A

A negatively charged ion formed when an atom gains electrons.

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21
Q

How do you name a cation?

A

Use the element’s name.

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22
Q

How do you name an anion?

A

Take the element’s name and add -ide.

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23
Q

What suffix is used for polyatomic ions?

A

Their specific names are used (e.g., SO₄²⁻ = Sulfate).

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24
Q

What is the general rule for naming ionic compounds?

A

Name the metal (cation) + name the non-metal (anion) with -ide.

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25
Q

What is the first step for writing the chemical formula of an ionic compound?

A

Write the symbols for the metal (cation) and the polyatomic ion.

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26
Q

What is a molecular compound?

A

A compound formed by the sharing of electrons between nonmetals.

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27
Q

What is the first step in naming molecular compounds?

A

Use the full name of the first nonmetal.

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28
Q

What does the prefix ‘di-‘ indicate?

A

2 atoms of an element.

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29
Q

What are the 7 diatomic molecules?

A
  • H₂
  • N₂
  • O₂
  • F₂
  • Cl₂
  • Br₂
  • I₂
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30
Q

What is the relationship between the Bohr-Rutherford diagram and the Periodic Table?

A

The diagram helps visualize protons, neutrons, and electron arrangement, while the table provides atomic numbers and electron configurations.

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31
Q

What is the prefix for the number 7?

A

7 is represented by the prefix ‘hepta-‘

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32
Q

What are the 7 diatomic molecules?

A
  • Hydrogen (H₂)
  • Nitrogen (N₂)
  • Oxygen (O₂)
  • Fluorine (F₂)
  • Chlorine (Cl₂)
  • Bromine (Br₂)
  • Iodine (I₂)
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33
Q

What is the mnemonic used to remember the 7 diatomic molecules?

A

‘HONClBrIF’

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34
Q

Why are certain elements diatomic?

A

They have unpaired electrons in their outermost shells and tend to pair up to achieve a more stable electron configuration.

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35
Q

Define a covalent bond.

A

A covalent bond is formed when two atoms share electrons.

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36
Q

What types of elements typically form covalent bonds?

A

Nonmetals

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37
Q

What are the reactants in the equation 2H₂ + O₂ → 2H₂O?

A

H₂ (hydrogen) and O₂ (oxygen)

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38
Q

What does the Law of Conservation of Mass state?

A

Mass cannot be created or destroyed in a chemical reaction; the total mass of the reactants equals the total mass of the products.

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39
Q

What is the first step in balancing a chemical equation?

A

Count the atoms on both sides.

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40
Q

What is a synthesis reaction?

A

A reaction where two or more reactants combine to form a single product.

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41
Q

What is the general formula for a synthesis reaction?

A

A + B → AB

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42
Q

What occurs in a decomposition reaction?

A

One compound breaks down into two or more simpler products.

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43
Q

What is the formula for a single displacement reaction?

A

AB + C → AC + B

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44
Q

What is the formula for a double displacement reaction?

A

AB + CD → AD + BC

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45
Q

What is produced in the complete combustion of propane (C₃H₈)?

A

Carbon dioxide (CO₂) and water (H₂O)

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46
Q

What does the pH scale measure?

A

The acidity or alkalinity of a solution.

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47
Q

What indicates a solution is acidic on the pH scale?

A

A pH less than 7

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48
Q

What ion is released by acids when dissolved in water?

A

Hydrogen ions (H⁺)

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49
Q

What polyatomic ion makes bases basic?

A

Hydroxide (OH⁻)

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50
Q

What is the first step in naming binary acids?

A

Write ‘hydro-‘ before the nonmetal name.

51
Q

What is the pH range for basic (alkaline) solutions?

A

pH 8-14

52
Q

What are organelles?

A

Small structures inside a cell that perform specific functions.

53
Q

What are the main differences between plant and animal cells?

A
  • Plant cells have a cell wall
  • Plant cells have chloroplasts
  • Plant cells have a large central vacuole
  • Animal cells have centrioles and lysosomes
54
Q

What is the acronym for the stages of mitosis?

A

IPMAT (Interphase, Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase)

55
Q

What does the G1 checkpoint ensure?

A

The cell is ready to divide, checking for proper size, nutrients, and DNA damage.

56
Q

What happens when cell division goes wrong?

A

Cancer can occur due to uncontrolled cell division from mutations.

57
Q

What are the four main types of tissue in animals?

A
  • Epithelial
  • Connective
  • Nervous
  • Muscle
58
Q

What are embryonic stem cells?

A

Stem cells found in early embryos.

59
Q

What is Biophotonics?

A

Using light (laser or imaging) for cancer detection or treatment.

60
Q

What are the four types of tissue in animals?

A
  • Epithelial: Covers body surfaces, lines cavities, and forms glands.
  • Connective: Supports and connects other tissues (includes ligaments, tendons, and bone).
  • Nervous: Transmits electrical signals for communication in the body.
  • Muscle: Enables movement (includes skeletal, smooth, and cardiac muscle).
61
Q

Define embryonic stem cells.

A

Found in early embryos, these cells can develop into any type of cell in the body (pluripotent).

62
Q

What are adult stem cells?

A

Found in specific tissues (like bone marrow), these cells can only develop into a limited range of cell types related to that tissue (multipotent).

63
Q

What is the function of the mouth in the digestive system?

A

Breaks down food mechanically through chewing and mixes with saliva for easier digestion.

64
Q

What function does the esophagus serve?

A

Transports food from the mouth to the stomach through muscular contractions (peristalsis).

65
Q

What is the role of the stomach in digestion?

A

Digests food chemically with stomach acids and enzymes; churns food into a semi-liquid form.

66
Q

What is the function of the small intestine?

A

Absorbs nutrients from digested food into the bloodstream.

67
Q

What is the role of the large intestine?

A

Absorbs water and salts; forms and stores feces.

68
Q

What does the pancreas do?

A

Produces digestive enzymes and bicarbonate to neutralize stomach acid.

69
Q

What is the function of the liver?

A

Produces bile for fat digestion and detoxifies harmful substances.

70
Q

What is the role of the gallbladder?

A

Stores and releases bile into the small intestine to aid in fat digestion.

71
Q

What are the three main functions of the circulatory system?

A
  • Transport: Carries oxygen, nutrients, hormones, and waste products throughout the body.
  • Protection: Defends the body against infections through white blood cells and clotting factors.
  • Regulation: Helps maintain body temperature and fluid balance.
72
Q

What is the function of arteries?

A

Carry oxygen-rich blood away from the heart to the body.

73
Q

Describe the structure of capillaries.

A

Thin, one-cell thick walls for easy exchange.

74
Q

What do veins do?

A

Carry oxygen-poor blood back to the heart.

75
Q

Outline the blood flow from the heart to the lungs.

A

Deoxygenated blood enters the right atrium, moves to the right ventricle, pumped to the lungs via the pulmonary artery.

76
Q

What happens in the lungs during blood flow?

A

Blood picks up oxygen and releases carbon dioxide.

77
Q

How does oxygenated blood return to the heart?

A

Returns to the left atrium through the pulmonary veins.

78
Q

What is the function of alveoli in the respiratory system?

A

Gas exchange: Oxygen diffuses into the blood, carbon dioxide diffuses into the alveoli.

79
Q

What are the three main roles of the musculoskeletal system?

A
  • Support: Provides structure and supports the body’s weight.
  • Movement: Allows movement by working with muscles to move bones at joints.
  • Protection: Protects vital organs, like the brain (skull), heart, and lungs (rib cage).
80
Q

What is the connection between the nervous system and the musculoskeletal system?

A

The nervous system sends signals to muscles, instructing them to contract, while the musculoskeletal system provides support for movement.

81
Q

What is light?

A

A form of electromagnetic radiation that is visible to the human eye.

82
Q

What is radiation?

A

The transfer of heat through waves and doesn’t need a medium.

83
Q

How does convection differ from conduction?

A

Convection transfers heat through a fluid, while conduction transfers heat through direct contact.

84
Q

List the types of electromagnetic waves from longest to shortest wavelength.

A
  • Radio Waves
  • Microwaves
  • Infrared Light
  • Visible Light
  • Ultraviolet (UV) Light
  • X-rays
  • Gamma Rays
85
Q

What is the electromagnetic spectrum?

A

The range of all types of light waves, from the longest to the shortest.

86
Q

Define a ray of light.

A

A straight line that shows the direction in which light is traveling.

87
Q

What is an incident ray?

A

The light ray that hits a surface.

88
Q

What is a virtual image?

A

An image that appears to be behind a mirror, but light does not actually come from that point.

89
Q

What does SALT stand for in image properties?

A
  • S: Size
  • A: Attitude
  • L: Location
  • T: Type
90
Q

What is specular reflection?

A

Reflection off a smooth, shiny surface, creating a clear image.

91
Q

What is diffuse reflection?

A

Reflection off a rough surface, scattering light in many directions.

92
Q

Describe a concave mirror.

A

A mirror that curves inward, causing light rays to converge.

93
Q

What happens when an object is between C and F in a concave mirror?

A

The image is larger, inverted, and real.

94
Q

What is the principal axis in a concave mirror?

A

The imaginary line that runs through the center of curvature and the vertex of the mirror.

95
Q

How do you locate an image in a concave mirror using light rays?

A

Use four rays: parallel ray reflects through F, focal ray reflects parallel to the axis, center of curvature ray reflects back, vertex ray reflects at the same angle.

96
Q

What does S in the S.A.L.T. method stand for?

A

Size: The image is smaller than the object.

97
Q

What does A in the S.A.L.T. method stand for?

A

Attitude: The image is inverted.

98
Q

What does L in the S.A.L.T. method stand for?

A

Location: The image is between F and C.

99
Q

What does T in the S.A.L.T. method stand for?

A

Type: The image is real.

100
Q

What is the image characteristics when the object is between C and F?

A

Larger, Inverted, Real

101
Q

What is the image characteristics when the object is at C?

A

Same size, Inverted, Real

102
Q

What is the image characteristics when the object is outside C?

A

Smaller, Inverted, Real

103
Q

What is the image characteristics when the object is at F?

A

Infinitely large, Inverted, Real

104
Q

What is the image characteristics when the object is inside F?

A

Larger, Upright, Virtual

105
Q

True or False: A real image can be projected onto a screen.

A

True

106
Q

What is a diverging mirror?

A

A mirror that curves outward, causing light rays to spread apart.

107
Q

What are the characteristics of the image formed by a diverging mirror?

A

Upright, Smaller, Virtual

108
Q

Fill in the blank: Light bends _______ when it slows down.

A

toward the normal

109
Q

Fill in the blank: Light bends _______ when it speeds up.

A

away from the normal

110
Q

What two conditions must be met for total internal reflection to occur?

A
  • Light must travel from a denser medium to a less dense medium
  • The angle of incidence must be large enough that the angle of refraction reaches 90°
111
Q

What is the critical angle?

A

The minimum angle of incidence at which light will undergo total internal reflection.

112
Q

What are four applications of total internal reflection?

A
  • Optical Fibers
  • Mirage
  • Periscopes
  • Binoculars
113
Q

What is dispersion?

A

The splitting of light into its different colors caused by different colors bending by different amounts.

114
Q

What is a converging lens?

A

A lens that can make both real and virtual images, depending on the object’s position.

115
Q

What is a diverging lens?

A

A lens that always makes a virtual, upright, and smaller image.

116
Q

What parts of the human eye help focus light?

A
  • Cornea
  • Lens
117
Q

What part of the eye detects light and sends signals to the brain?

A

Retina

118
Q

What is hyperopia?

A

Farsightedness: can see distant objects clearly, but near objects are blurry.

119
Q

What is myopia?

A

Nearsightedness: can see near objects clearly, but distant objects are blurry.

120
Q

What is presbyopia?

A

Age-related farsightedness: difficulty focusing on close objects due to a less flexible lens.

121
Q

What is the purpose of convex lenses?

A

Used to help focus light properly on the retina in cases of hyperopia.

122
Q

What is the purpose of concave lenses?

A

Used to spread light rays and focus the image correctly on the retina in cases of myopia.

123
Q

What are some examples of how lenses are used in society?

A
  • Glasses and Contact Lenses
  • Cameras
  • Microscopes and Telescopes
  • Eyeglasses for Reading
124
Q

Are lenses a good or bad thing?

A

Lenses are a good thing because they help improve vision and support learning and exploration.