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CCOC III > Dag 3 > Flashcards

Dag 3 Flashcards

1
Q

The tarsometatarsal joint is also referred to as:

  1. Chopart’s line
  2. Chartcot’s line
  3. Lisfranc’s line
  4. Bohler’s line
  5. Midtarsal line
A
  1. Lisfranc’s line
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2
Q

The deep posterior compartment of the lower leg contains (it contains more, but which two muscles are also in the compartment):

  1. posteroir tibial muscle and soleus muscle
  2. flexor digitorum longus and flexor hallucis longus muscle
  3. flexor digitorum longus and plataris muscle
  4. triceps surae and plantaris muscle
  5. triceps surae and posterior tibial muscle
A
  1. flexor digitorum longus and flexor hallucis longus muscle
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3
Q

Which nerve is sensory only?

  1. medial plantaris nerve
  2. deep peroneal nerve
  3. suralis nerve
  4. superficial peronel nerve
  5. lateral plantaris nerve
A
  1. suralis nerve
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4
Q

In post CVA and CP a common finding is:

  1. hyporeflexia
  2. equinus
  3. valgus deformity
  4. clawtoes
  5. dorsiflexion of the hallux
A
  1. equinus
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5
Q

A 25-year-old balletdanser has a possible fracture of her medial sesamoid. Which statement is right?

  1. You need a bilateral X-ray in case of a bipartita
  2. The extensor hallucis longus will be painful
  3. A bone scan will be conclusive in diagnosis
  4. 3/4 X-rays and an axial view are helpful
  5. The patient will tiptoe into your room
A
  1. 3/4 X-rays and an axial view are helpful
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6
Q

A 60-year-old lady with a moderate hallux valgus complains of the bunion and pain when walking barefoot. There is no co-morbidity. Conservative treatment is not succesful. Which operation is preferred?

  1. Artrodesis MTP 1
  2. Hemiprothesis
  3. Distal osteotomy and soft tissue release
  4. TMT 1 fusion with soft tissue release
  5. Akin procedure with soft tissue release
A
  1. Artrodesis MTP 1
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7
Q

The X-ray showed belongs to a 54-year-old woman. She complains about the bunion and has a shoeproblem. Physical examination shows a stable TMT 1 joint and a painless, full ROM of the MTP joint. What is the preferred surgical treatment?

  1. Proximal osteotomy, bunionectomy and distal soft tissue release
  2. Bunionectomy
  3. Distal osteotomy and distal soft tissue release
  4. TMT 1 fusion and distal soft tissue release
  5. Bunionectomy, Akin and distal soft tissue release
A
  1. Distal osteotomy and distal soft tissue release
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8
Q

Which statement is the characteristc of a classic hammertoe?

  1. Is is always flexible
  2. Hyperextension MTP combined with flexion in PIP and DIP
  3. Isolated flexion in DIP regardless flexible or rigid
  4. Flexion PIP in combination with hyperextension MTP and DIP
  5. Collagen loss in the ligamentum transversum
A
  1. Flexion PIP in combination with hyperextension MTP and DIP
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9
Q

Het percentage acute enkel distories dat geneest met RICE en functioneel behandelen is

  1. 100%
  2. 90%
  3. 80%
  4. 70%
  5. 60%
A
  1. 90%
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10
Q

Excisie en opboren is de aanbevolen behandeling van osteochondraal laesies van de talus van

  1. > 2,5 cm
  2. > 2 cm
  3. 1,5 cm
  4. < 1 cm
  5. < 0,5 cm
A
  1. < 1 cm
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11
Q

Een volledige loslating en verplaatsing van een osteochondritis dissecans laesie van de talus is op een rontgenfoto volgens Berndt en Harty geclassificeerd als:

  1. 4
  2. 3
  3. 2
  4. 1
  5. 0
A
  1. 4
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12
Q

Ganglion on the foot

  1. has a low recurrence rate after surgical incision
  2. are mostly located on the plantar side of the foot
  3. will increase and decrease in size over time
  4. are seldom painfull
  5. are mostly bilateral
A
  1. will increase and decrease in size over time
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13
Q

Foot infections are common in Rheumatoid Arthritis, which is an important risk factor for postoperative wound infections in the foot in RA.

  1. the use of prednisone peri operative
  2. the use of methotrexate peri operative
  3. the use of biologicals peri operative
  4. the use of NSAID’s peri operative
  5. the use of gold injections peri operative
A
  1. the use of prednisone peri operative
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14
Q

Which statement is true for cellulitis?

  1. temperature is typically between 38 and 38.5
  2. coagulase negative staphylococci are the most important pathogens
  3. cellulitis after a puncture are potential infected with pseudomonas
  4. can be treated with flucloxacilin
  5. white blood cell count is elevated
A
  1. cellulitis after a puncture are potential infected with pseudomonas
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15
Q

Giant cell tumour of the tendon sheath is

  1. mostly very painfull
  2. is a highly malignant tumor
  3. should be radically resected
  4. has a high recurrence rate
  5. only located in the foot
A
  1. has a high recurrence rate
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16
Q

Which of the following items is not a characteristic of the neuropathic diabetic foot?

  1. Callus at pressure points
  2. Palpable peripheral pulses
  3. Normal temperature or warm
  4. Painful ulcera
  5. High ankle- brachial Index
A
  1. Painful ulcera
17
Q

This X-ray is taken after 5 months of treatment of a Charcot foot. Which statement is not true.

  1. It’s a Brodsky type 2 Charcot foot
  2. High dose Biphosphanates can influence the stability
  3. Total Contact Casting was a good treatment in the acute phase
  4. In time: the medial column needs stabilisation
  5. After surgery a prolonged period of protected weightbearing is important
A
  1. High dose Biphosphanates can influence the stability
18
Q

Which of the following bone bruise patterns seen on MRI is most consistent with an anterior cruciate ligament (anterior cruciate ligament) tear?

  1. Medial tibial spine and medial femoral condyle
  2. Medial facet of patella and lateral femoral condyle
  3. Posterolateral tibia and lateral femoral condyle
  4. Posterolateral tibia and medial femoral condyle
  5. Medial tibial spine and lateral femoral condyle
A
  1. Posterolateral tibia and lateral femoral condyle
19
Q

When comparing autologous graft options for anterior cruciate ligament reconstruction, a hamstring graft is associated with which of the following findings whem compared to a patellar tendon graft?

  1. Decreased tunnel widening
  2. Decreased pivot shift
  3. Decreased incidence of anterior knee pain
  4. Incresed knee flexion strength on isokinectic testing
  5. Increased stability on KT-1000
A
  1. Decreased incidence of anterior knee pain
20
Q

At what angle of knee flexion should the graft be tensioned at during posterior cruciate ligament reconstruction with a single bundle graft?

  1. 5 degrees hyperextension
  2. 0 degrees flexion
  3. 15 degrees flexion
  4. 30 degrees flexion
  5. 90 degrees flexion
A
  1. 90 degrees flexion
21
Q

A football player sustains an isolated posterior cruciate ligament tear. Which of the following mechanisms is most likely to have caused this injury?

  1. Fall on the flexed knee with the foot in plantarflexion
  2. Fall on the flexed knee with the foot in dorsiflexion
  3. Non-contact twist causing knee external rotation and valgus
  4. Non-contact twist causing knee internal rotation and varus
  5. Direct contact blow tot the posterior knee
A
  1. Fall on the flexed knee with the foot in plantarflexion
22
Q

The most important function of the meniscus is:

  1. Providing stability and limits flexion/extension extremes
  2. Load-sharing across the knee joint
  3. Increase in articulas congruity
  4. Shock absorption
  5. Aid in lubrication
A
  1. Load-sharing across the knee joint
23
Q

Clinical success rates for all types of meniscal repair techniques in stable knees range from

  1. 40%-50%
  2. 40%-55%
  3. 55%-65%
  4. 55%-70%
  5. 70%-95%
A
  1. 70%-95%
24
Q

Not all meniscal tears cause symptoms; tear types that are commonly treated surgical are:

  1. Stable longitudinal tears <10 mm in length
  2. Degenerative tears associated with significant osteoarthritis
  3. Short (<3 mm in length) radial tears
  4. Flap tears
  5. Stable partial tears
A
  1. Flap tears
25
Q

Meniscal transplantation has been reserved for specific patients. Which of the items is not a contraindication for meniscal transplantation

  1. uncorrected lower extremity malalignment
  2. uncorrected ligamentous instability
  3. significant chondral changes in the treated compartment
  4. no pain after total meniscectomy
  5. symptomatic patient after partial or total meniscectomy
A
  1. symptomatic patient after partial or total meniscectomy
26
Q

A female elite marathon runner (age 27, height 168 cm and bodyweight 47 kg) presents with progessive pain in her left mid foot. She has continued to run. On physical examination there is a slight swelling and an area of 1 cm wth tenderness on palpation in the 4th metatarsal bone. The X-ray shows a stress fracture of the 4th metatarsal bone. What should no be forgotten in the management of this problem?

  1. Ask whether she is a barefoot runner
  2. An MRI investigation to increase the likelihood of the diagnosis
  3. Check for amenorrhea, disordered eating and osteoporosis
  4. Surgical fixation tot guarantee bone healing
  5. Provide Low Intensity Pulsed Ultrasound (LIPUS) for quich return to sport
A
  1. Check for amenorrhea, disordered eating and osteoporosis
27
Q

A soccer player presents with pain over the anterolateral region of both his lower legs. He reports no trauma. Pain starts and increases when he is running but readily disappears when he stops running. There is no pain at rest and physical examination shows no abnormalities. What is the most likely diagnosis and preferred most succesful treatment?

  1. Skin-splints - insoles to correct foot position
  2. Medial tibia stress syndrome - activity modification and shockwave therapy
  3. Exertional anterior compartment syndrome - deep transverse frictions
  4. Exertional anterior compartment syndrome - fasciotomy of anterior compartment
  5. Exertional deep compartment syndrome - fasciotomy of the deep compartement
A
  1. Exertional anterior compartment syndrome - fasciotomy of anterior compartment
28
Q

A 19 year old volleyball player presents with anterior knee pain in the proximal part of his patellar tendon. Pre-season training has just started a few weeks ago. No trauma. He had no knee problems before. On physical examination there is tenderness over the patellar apex. Knee loading exercises provoke pain. It seems he is suffering from a “jumpers’s knee”. How would you describe this stage of his tendon problem?

  1. Reactive tendinopathy
  2. Tendon disrepair
  3. Tendon degeneraton
  4. Peritendnitis
  5. Tendinosis
A
  1. Reactive tendinopathy
29
Q

For which of the following interventions does strong evidence exist that it is effective in the treatment of patellar tendinopathy?

  1. Immobilization and complete rest
  2. Eccentric training
  3. Intratendinous platelet-rich-plasma injections
  4. Shackwave therapy
  5. None of the aformentioned interventions
A
  1. None of the aformentioned interventions
30
Q

Subchondral bone and cartilage have a combined function which is illustrated by

  1. The role of subchondral bone in vascularization of cartilage
  2. The subchondral sclerosis that causes cartilage damage to occur
  3. Clear responsiveness of bone to cartilage damage and detrimental role in repair if bone dirturbed
  4. Cystic defects in OCD
  5. Formation of intra lesional osteofytes
A
  1. Clear responsiveness of bone to cartilage damage and detrimental role in repair if bone dirturbed
31
Q

For a 3 cm2 symptomatic condylar defect in a 25 year old male cyclist with no other joint pathology the treatement of choice is

  1. Autologous Chondrocyte Implantation
  2. Microfracture (reserving ACI for case of insufficient effect of initial treatement)
  3. Debridement of instable cartilage rim and loose body removal
  4. OATS/Mozaik
  5. BioCartilage Implantation
A
  1. Autologous Chondrocyte Implantation
32
Q

Articular cartilage damage is most frequently diagnosed

  1. Based on history of effusion and locking
  2. During arthroscopy as additional finding in suspected meniscal damage
  3. Using T1rho and T2 Mapping
  4. On sensitive x ray (mammo setting) evaluation
  5. More than 3 years after blunt trauma injury
A
  1. During arthroscopy as additional finding in suspected meniscal damage
33
Q

The etiology of Osteochondritis Dissecans is:

  1. Unknown
  2. Inflammation
  3. Genetic
  4. Ischeamia
  5. Ossification deficit
A
  1. Unknown

CCOC III (6 decks)

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