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MEP > DA42 systems > Flashcards

DA42 systems Flashcards

1
Q

what is the DA42 fuselage made of?

A

semi-monocoque of carbon fibre reinforced plastic with glass fibre reinforced plastic bulkheads and stiffeners

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2
Q

what is the span?

A

13.42 meters

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3
Q

what is the length?

A

8.56 meters

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4
Q

what is the height?

A

2.49 metres

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5
Q

what fuel can we use?

A

Jet A1 or Diesel with caution

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6
Q

what is the total fuel quantity?

A

52 USG

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7
Q

what is the usable fuel?

A

50 USG

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8
Q

what is the max fuel imbalance?

A

5 USG

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9
Q

what is the minimum flight mass?

A

1250kg

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10
Q

what is the max ramp mass?

A

1793kg

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11
Q

what is MTOM?

A

1785kg

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12
Q

what is MZFM?

A

1650kg

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13
Q

what is MLM?

A

1700kg

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14
Q

what supports the rear cabin door?

A

high pressure strut

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15
Q

where is the fire extinguisher located?

A

behind the co pilots seat

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16
Q

where is the first aid kit located?

A

rear baggage compartment

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17
Q

what 3 pieces of safety and emergency equipment is the DA42 equipped with?

A
  • ELT
  • first aid kit
  • Fire extinguisher
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18
Q

what 2 systems provide heating and ventilation?

A

Heat exchanger in engine nacelles provides warm air

NACA duct provides ambient air

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19
Q

how is cold air controlled?

A

louvres

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20
Q

how is warm air controlled?

A

levers on centre console

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21
Q

what provides heat for the defrost system?

A

LH engine heat exchanger

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22
Q

where is the inlet duct for ambient air?

A

RH wing inboard

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23
Q

what provides warm air for the cabin heat?

A

RH engine heat exchanger

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24
Q

where is the aileron trim tab?

A

port aileron

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25
Q

when is the stick limiter system used?

A

high power and full flap

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26
Q

what causes a PT caption and disabling of the autopilot?

A

operating just one trim pole for more than 3 seconds

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27
Q

how far is normal elevator travel?

A

15.5 degrees

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28
Q

when is aft stick travel limited to 13 degrees?

A

both power levers are advanced beyond approx 20% and flap lever is selected to LDG

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29
Q

how far do the flaps extend in APP config?

A

20 degrees

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30
Q

how far do flaps extend in LDG config?

A

42 degrees

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31
Q

what do 2 flap lights mean?

A

flaps are in transit

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32
Q

how do we check the ailerons and flap hinges?

A

check each hinge roll pin and check the varnish on the control rod securing bolts

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33
Q

where is the stall Warner?

A

left wing

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34
Q

how do we heat the stall Warner?

A

pitot heat switch

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35
Q

what engines power the DA42?

A

Thielert TAE 125 diesel engine

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36
Q

describe the TAE 125 engine

A
  • 4 cylinder
  • liquid cooled
  • turbo-charged
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37
Q

what is max power from the TAE 125?

A

99kw (135hp) at 2300RPM

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38
Q

what Is max continuous power from the TAE 125?

A

99kw (135hp) at 2300RPM

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39
Q

what is the operating principle of Diesel engines?

A

high compression produces spontaneous combustion

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40
Q

what pre heats air in cylinders to aid starting?

A

glow plugs

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41
Q

what fuel does the TAE 125 use?

A

Jet A1 kerosene

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42
Q

what are the advantages of using Jet A1?

A

provides lubrication and combustion

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43
Q

what oil does the tae 125 use?

A

Shell Helix ultra 5W40 synthetic API SJ/CF or aeroshell 10W40

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44
Q

what oil does the gearbox use?

A

Shell EP 75W90 API GL -4

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45
Q

describe the engine and gearbox lubrication systems?

A

wet sump design with an external filter and cooler

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46
Q

what is the engine oil capacity?

A

6 litres (some oil loss is normal)

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47
Q

what operates the variable pitch propellor system?

A

gearbox oil system

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48
Q

in the fuel injection system, how is fuel delivered to the common rail?

A

via LP and HP fuel pumps

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49
Q

what controls fuel rail fuel pressure?

A

regulator/pressure relief valve

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50
Q

what does the common rail in the fuel injection system provide?

A

provides HP fuel to each cylinder via fuel injectors

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51
Q

what are the fuel injectors controlled by?

A

ECU (s)

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52
Q

what happens to excess fuel in the injection system?

A

returned via a fuel cooler to the aircraft fuel system

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53
Q

what does the turbocharger use?

A

filtered RAM air

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54
Q

what controls the turbocharger output pressure?

A

the waste gate

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55
Q

what controls the waste gate?

A

ECU

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56
Q

what does pulling the alternate air lever do?

A

provides unfiltered warm air to the turbochargers

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57
Q

how is the engine cooled?

A

liquid cooled via an integral pump and a heat exchanger located in the intakes

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58
Q

what kind of system is the engine cooling system?

A

dual circuit

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59
Q

what bypasses the heat exchanger?

A

cold coolant

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60
Q

what does the heat exchanger supply to the cabin?

A

warm air

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61
Q

which direction do the props rotate?

A

clockwise as viewed from the cockpit

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62
Q

which engine is the critical engine?

A

left engine

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63
Q

how is the DA42 prop constructed?

A

wood composite construction with a stainless steel LE

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64
Q

What are the advantages of the props design?

A
  • light weight
  • reduced inertia
  • minimised vibration
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65
Q

what does the CSU use to fine the prop?

A

gearbox oil pressure

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66
Q

what does the CSU use to coarsen and feather the prop?

A

spring and counterweights

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67
Q

what controls the CSU?

A

ECU

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68
Q

what turns the counterweight in line with the rotational plane to coarsen the prop?

A

centrifugal force

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69
Q

what is used to unfeather the prop?

A

oil stored under pressure in an accumulator

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70
Q

what controls the accumulator valve which unfeathers the prop?

A

engine master switch

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71
Q

what happens when the engine master switch is switched on which unfeathers the prop?

A
  • valve opens
  • pressurised oil directed to PCU via CSU
  • prop unfeathers and starts to windmill
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72
Q

when will the propellor feather?

A

when engine master switch is set to off provided the prop speed exceeds 1300RPM

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73
Q

why may the prop not feather below 1300RPM?

A

the start lock may prevent the prop from feathering (increase airspeed until 1300rpm is achieved)

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74
Q

What can an ECU malfunction cause with regard to the prop?

A

it could cause the prop to lock on the start locks leading to reduced thrust and propellor overspeed.

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75
Q

what controls the engines?

A

FADEC units each comprising 2 ECU’s

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76
Q

what do ECU’s control?

A
  • Injectors
  • CSU
  • Rail Pressure
  • waste gate
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77
Q

When would we select ECU B?

A

In an emergency only

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78
Q

What powers the ECU’s?

A

dedicated ECU busbars

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79
Q

what does the ECU test button do?

A

cycles the ECU’s

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80
Q

how long must the engine have been run at idle to shut down?

A

2 minutes in order to stabilise temperatures

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81
Q

where are overheat detectors located?

A

one in each engine bay

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82
Q

when will an ENG FIRE warning appear?

A

if temp exceeds 250C or 480F in the engine

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83
Q

what does fuel calculation data accuracy depend on?

A

pre-flight input

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84
Q

what is the total fuel capacity?

A

52 USG (196.2L)

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85
Q

whats the usable fuel?

A

50 USG (189.2L)

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86
Q

what fuel do we use as per L3 SOP?

A

JET A1

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87
Q

what are the fuel tanks made of?

A

aluminium

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88
Q

what is each tank made up of?

A

3 interconnected chambers

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89
Q

what does the fuel filler point in the wing feed directly into?

A

outer chamber

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90
Q

what does the fuel crossed system allow?

A

fuel to be drawn from the opposite tank

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91
Q

where is fuel flow/quantity/temperature shown?

A

EIS pages

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92
Q

when will a L/R fuel caution be triggered?

A

3-4 gallons remaining

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93
Q

when will a L/R fuel temp warning be triggered?

A

if fuel temp exceeds 75C

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94
Q

what must we set the fuel selector valve to when the engines inoperative?

A

off

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95
Q

can the aircraft be operated in flight with both fuel selectors in the cross feed position?

A

no

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96
Q

can we take off with either fuel selector in cross feed?

A

no

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97
Q

why can we not shut down the engine by turning off the fuel selector?

A

can cause damage to the high pressure pump

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98
Q

how many fuel drains are there?

A

2 per side

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99
Q

describe the undercarriage

A
  • tricycle
  • oleo pneumatic struts
  • steerable nose wheel
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100
Q

how is the gear extended and retracted?

A

hydraulically

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101
Q

what provides hydraulic pressure to the landing gear?

A

electronic pump

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102
Q

what are springs used for in the landing gear?

A

gear extension and locking

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103
Q

how can gear be extended in the event of hydraulic failure?

A

gravity

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104
Q

when will a ‘gear unsafe’ light show?

A

if any leg is neither locked down or up

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105
Q

when will the gear indicator lights be green?

A

when all 3 legs are down and locked

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106
Q

what is the expected nose tyre pressure?

A

6 bar/87 psi

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107
Q

what is the expected extension on the nose oleo?

A

at least 5.9 inches/15cm

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108
Q

what is the expected extension on the main gear oleo?

A

1.6 inches/4cm

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109
Q

what is the expected main gear tyre pressure?

A

4.5 bar/65 psi

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110
Q

what is the nosewheel steering range?

A

30 degrees either side

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111
Q

when will nose wheel steering disengage?

A

when the gear is retracted

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112
Q

what is the minimum radius turn on the ground?

A

6 metres (with differential braking)

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113
Q

what angle can we steer to with braking and differential power?

A

52 degrees either side

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114
Q

what kid of brakes does the DA42 have?

A

hydraulic disk brakes

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115
Q

where is brake fluid stored?

A

2 reservoirs fitted to the co-pilots brake pedal actuators

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116
Q

how is pressure provided to the landing gear system?

A

electrically powered hydraulic pump controlled by a pressure switch

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117
Q

when will the gear systems electrically powered hydraulic pump operate?

A

when the hydraulic system pressure falls below a set value

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118
Q

how many actuators are fitted to each anding gear assembly?

A

1

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119
Q

what maintains hydraulic system pressure while the gear actuators are operating?

A

an accumulator

120
Q

what is the gear extension limitation speed?

A

194

121
Q

how long does gear extension take?

A

6-10 seconds

122
Q

how is the gear extended?

A

3 hydraulically powered actuators assisted by springs. springs hold the Gear down until downlocks engage

123
Q

how is the extended landing gear held in place?

A

down locks and hydraulic pressure

124
Q

what is the gear retraction limitation speed?

A

156

125
Q

where is hydraulic pressure applied during gear retraction?

A

both sides of the actuators

126
Q

explain how the hydraulic system retracts the gear?

A

fluid flows from the extension side of the MLG cylinders, retracting the gear

127
Q

what prevents inadvertent retraction of the gear?

A

squat-switches

128
Q

how is the gear held up?

A

hydraulic pressure

129
Q

what happens to the retracted gear if hydraulic pressure fails?

A

gear descends under gravity

130
Q

how does the emergency gear extension lever extend the gear?

A

releases hydraulic pressure and allows the gear to fall

131
Q

when will the landing gear alert system be triggered?

A

if gear is up or unsafe and:

  • airborne and power lever retarded below 25%
  • flaps set to landing

or if gear up selected on ground

132
Q

what kind of electrical system does the DA42 use?

A

28V DC

133
Q

how is power generated in the DA42 electrical system?

A

two 60A 28V DC engine driven alternators (one on each engine)

134
Q

what is the electrical systems alternative power source?

A

one 10 Ah 24V DC main battery

135
Q

what is the purpose of the pair of 1.3Ah 12 V DC excitation batteries?

A

supply excitation power to the Alternators in the event of failure of the main battery

136
Q

what is the purpose of 1.3 Ah 12V DC backup batteries?

A

supply power to each ECU bus in the event of total electrical failure

137
Q

what provides emergency power to the standby attitude indicator?

A

non rechargeable dry cell battery

138
Q

what controls alternator output?

A

GCU

139
Q

when will a L/R ALTN AMPS warning trigger?

A

if output exceeds 60Amps

140
Q

what warning will show for alternator defects?

A

L/R ALTN FAIL

141
Q

what does the load balancing circuit in the electrical system do?

A

shares load evenly betweenthe alternators

142
Q

what provides emergency excitation current to the alternators?

A

excitation battery

143
Q

how are the alternators connected to the L/R main busbars?

A

via alternator switches

144
Q

how are the alternator switches energised?

A

main battery power via the electrical master switch

145
Q

what does the main busbar directly supply?

A

L/R ECU busbars

146
Q

how are parallel electrical supplies fed to each ECU?

A

the respective engine master switches

147
Q

what is the hot battery busbar permanently wired to?

A

main battery

148
Q

how does the main battery connect to the main battery busbar?

A

electrical master switch

149
Q

what does the main battery busbar connect to?

A

R/L main busbars

150
Q

what do the main busbars receive with electrical master switch on?

A

24V DC from the main battery

151
Q

what supplies the main battery busbar?

A

main battery or external power unit

152
Q

which bus is the avionics busbar connected to?

A

R main bus

153
Q

how are the left and right starter motors powered?

A

by the main battery via a starter relay

154
Q

what 3 things are needed to provide current to the started motor?

A
  • electrical master on
  • engine master on
  • key turned to start
155
Q

where are the electrical controls and indications shown in the cockpit?

A

left and lower left sides of the main instrument panel

156
Q

where are routine electrical indications shown?

A

EIS

157
Q

Where are alternator warnings and cautions shown?

A

PFD

158
Q

what does the AHRS provide?

A

attitude and heading information to the display units

159
Q

what does the magnetometer provide?

A

magnetic heading info to the AHRS

160
Q

What does the ADC do?

A

processes pitot-static and air air temperature information

161
Q

what do the 2 integrated avionics units comprise of?

A

2 GPS recievers, VOR/ILS receiver/VHF transceiver

162
Q

what does the audio system integrate

A

audio and marker beacon signals

163
Q

what does the airframe/interface unit do?

A

senses engine and airframe system parameters

164
Q

when are the G1000’s control systems and displays powered?

A

when the electric master switch is on

165
Q

what does an ‘altitude’ voice alert mean?

A

deviation from altitude of 200 feet

166
Q

where is info from the pitot static fed to?

A

ADC/ASI/Altimeter

167
Q

where is the OAT sensor mounted?

A

below the nose

168
Q

how long will the standby instrument standby battery last?

A

1.5 hours

169
Q

when can we not use the autopilot?

A

below 200ft on departure/approach and below 800ft in other phases of flight

170
Q

what are the rap 140 speed limitations?

A

90-185 IAS

171
Q

what is the purpose of the ice protection system?

A

to prevent accretion of ice

172
Q

what can the ice ice protection system remove?

A

small amounts of ice

173
Q

what anti-ice fluids can be used?

A
  • aeroshell compound 7

- Kilfrost TKS 80

174
Q

where is the ice protection fluid tank located?

A

right nose baggage compartment

175
Q

what is the ice protection tank capacity?

A

31.5l/30l usable

176
Q

what is the minimum ice protection fluid level required if icing conditions are possible?

A

22l

177
Q

which way does the CG move as ice protection fluid is used?

A

rearwards

178
Q

when should the ice protection system be activated?

A

before entry into icing conditions

179
Q

where is ice protection fluid distributed to?

A
  • main wings
  • tailplane
  • prop blades
  • windshield
180
Q

how long will ice protection operate for in normal mode?

A

2.5 hours

181
Q

how does the ice protection operate in normal mode?

A

both main pumps operate simultaneously but are cycled on and off in a pulsed fashion

182
Q

how long will the anti-ice operate for in high mode?

A

1 hour

183
Q

how does the anti-ice system work in high mode?

A

the selected main pump runs continuously

184
Q

how long will the anti ice system operate for in MAX mode?

A

30 minutes

185
Q

how is the MAX mode operated on the anti-ice?

A

both pumps run simultaneously for 2 minutes when the button is pressed

186
Q

what does the alternate switch on the anti-ice system do?

A

connects pump 2 to the right hand main bus if the left hand bus is unavailable

187
Q

what is the maximum and minimum level for brake fluid?

A

max= 12mm

min= 25mm

188
Q

when can we exceed Vno?

A

only in smooth air, and with caution

189
Q

what is the minimum fuel temperature?

A

-30C

190
Q

what is the maximum fuel temperature?

A

75C

191
Q

what is the minimum engine oil pressure?

A

1 bar

192
Q

what is the maximum oil pressure?

A

6.5 bar

193
Q

what is the minimum oil quantity per engine?

A

4.5 litres

194
Q

what is the max oil quantity per engine?

A

6 litres

195
Q

what is the maximum engine oil consumption per hour?

A

0.1 litres

196
Q

what is the minimum engine oil temperature?

A

-30C

197
Q

what is the maximum engine oil temperature?

A

140C

198
Q

what is the maximum gearbox temperature?

A

120C

199
Q

what is the minimum voltage?

A

24.1V

200
Q

what is the maximum voltage?

A

32V

201
Q

what is the max amperage?

A

60 amps

202
Q

what is the propellor diameter?

A

187cm

203
Q

what is the prop pitch angle in the feathered position?

A

81 degrees

204
Q

what is the prop pitch position in the start lock position?

A

15 degrees

205
Q

what is the prop pitch angle in the low pitch position?

A

12 degrees

206
Q

what is the maximum engine restart altitude?

A

8000ft

207
Q

what is the engine restart speed range?

A

80-120knots

208
Q

what is the low engine oil pressure caution range?

A

1-2.3 bar

209
Q

what is the normal engine oil pressure range?

A

2.3-5.8 bar

210
Q

what is the high engine oil pressure caution range?

A

5.8-6.5 bar

211
Q

above what figure is the engine oil pressures upper prohibited range?

A

6.5 bar

212
Q

what is the lower prohibited range of engine oil temperature?

A

below -30C

213
Q

what is the lower caution range of engine oil temperature?

A

-30 to 50C

214
Q

what is the normal range of engine oil temperature?

A

50-130C

215
Q

what is the upper caution range of engine oil temperature?

A

131-140C

216
Q

what is the upper prohibited range of engine oil temperature?

A

above 140C

217
Q

what is the lower prohibited range of coolant temperature?

A

below -30C

218
Q

what is the lower caution range of coolant temperature?

A

-30 to 60C

219
Q

what is the normal operating range of coolant temperature?

A

60C to 101C

220
Q

what is the upper caution range of coolant temperature?

A

102-105C

221
Q

what is the upper prohibited range of coolant temperature?

A

above 105C

222
Q

what is the normal operating range of gearbox temperature?

A

up to 115C

223
Q

what is the upper caution range of gearbox temperature?

A

115-120C

224
Q

what is the upper prohibited range of coolant temperature?

A

above 120C

225
Q

what is the lower prohibited range of fuel temperature?

A

below -30C

226
Q

what is the lower caution range of fuel temperature?

A

-30 to 4C

227
Q

what is the normal range of fuel temperature?

A

5-69C

228
Q

what is the upper caution range of fuel temperature?

A

70-75C

229
Q

what is the upper prohibited range of fuel temperature?

A

above 75C

230
Q

what is the lower prohibited voltage range?

A

below 24.1V

231
Q

what is the lower caution range of voltage?

A

24.1-25V

232
Q

what is the normal voltage range?

A

25-30V

233
Q

what is the upper caution voltage range?

A

30-32V

234
Q

what is the upper prohibited voltage range?

A

above 32V

235
Q

what are the CG limits at 1250KG?

A

2.35-2.42M aft of datum

236
Q

what are the CG limits at 1468KG?

A

2.35-2.49 aft of datum

237
Q

what are the CG limits at MTOM?

A

2.40-2.49M aft of datum

238
Q

what is the load factor range at Va?

A

+ 3.8 to - 1.52

239
Q

what is the load factor range at Vne?

A

+ 3.8 to 0

240
Q

what is the max load factor with flaps in LDG position?

A

+ 2

241
Q

what is the maximum operating altitude?

A

18000ft

242
Q

when is use of auxiliary tanks not permitted?

A

when the aircraft is fuelled with either diesel or a mixture of diesel and jet A1

243
Q

how much fuel does each auxiliary tank contain?

A

13.7 (13.2 usable)

244
Q

what is the max weight to be put in the main baggage compartment?

A

45kg

245
Q

what is the max weight to be put in the baggage extension?

A

18kg

246
Q

what is the max weight to be put in the nose baggage compartment?

A

30kg

247
Q

what is the minimum engine start fuel temperature?

A

-5C

248
Q

what is the minimum take off fuel temperature?

A

5C

249
Q

when is using external power to Start the engines not permitted?

A

when the subsequent flight is night VFR or IFR

250
Q

what is not permitted when the seal on the emergency switch is broken?

A

IFR flight

251
Q

what is the max structural temperature of the airframe?

A

55C if above 1650KG

252
Q

what indicates structural temperature?

A

temperature indicators in the main landing gear bays

253
Q

how is the centre wing attached to the fuselage?

A

bolts

254
Q

what is the engine firewall made of?

A

fire-resistant cladding, covered on the engine side by steel cladding.

255
Q

describe the construction of the wing?

A

GFRP/CFRP sandwich construction

256
Q

describe the construction of the empennage?

A

GFRP/CFRP semi-monocoque construction with twin spars on both stabilisers

257
Q

where is the emergency axe located?

A

underneath the co-pilots floor panel

258
Q

how does the CSU fine off the prop (reduce blade angle?)

A

landed piston valve moves up to direct engine oil under pressure into the prop shaft and hub assembly.

259
Q

how does the CSU coarsen the prop (increase blade angle?)

A

blocks the pressured oil supply and instead allows oil from the prop assembly to bleed outback to the engine pushed by a spring in the prop assembly.

260
Q

what do CSU flyweights do?

A

move either in or out depending on engine speed and lever the landed piston up or down

261
Q

what happens in the CSU when the RPM lever is moved?

A

it moves a rack and pinion mechanism that causes the spring pressure to increase or decrease against the governor weights causing the piston to move

262
Q

when is equilibrium reached in the CSU?

A

when the governor weights rotate at a steady rate balancing spring tension against that inputted from the RPM lever.

263
Q

describe the CSU in the ‘on-speed’ condition

A

spring pressure from the centrifugal force from the weights is balanced by the pressure from the RPM lever/.

therefore the land is held backing the line to the prop inlet so no oil flows in or out causing a hydraulic lock. this is the equilibrium or on speed position

264
Q

how does the CSU correct underspeed?

A

the flyweights rotate slower due to lower RPM caused by a greater angle of attack on the blades. the allows the piston to move up which in turn allows oil to move into the prop, reducing the blade angle.

fining off the blade angle allows the RPM to stop reducing. this reduces load on the weights which allows the piston to move back down. a new hydraulic equilibrium is reached.

265
Q

what happens in the CSU if the pilot selects higher RPM?

A

the rack and pinion moves up so reducing spring pressure which allows the piston to rise, uncovering the prop line. allowing oil to flow in and fine off the propellor. as the prop loads reduce the RPM increases, spinning the flyweights faster so bringing the piston back to blocking the prop line- introducing a new hydraulic equilibrium.

266
Q

what happens in the CSU if the pilot selects lower RPM?

A

rack and pinion increases spring pressure which drops the piston allowing oil to flow out of the prop line into the engine increasing the blade angle. as the RPM reduces the flyweights move in raiding the piston which blocks the prop line at a new equilibrium

267
Q

how does the CSU feather the prop?

A

the CSU piston is pushed down to its stop and held there, which allows oil to bleed freely from the prop line. the prop spring, compressed air in the assembly along with aerodynamic moments assist in feathering the prop. the rotating weights no longer influence the speeder spring or CSU piston.

268
Q

how does a double acting CSU feather the prop?

A

the prop lever lifts the landed valve into the fully coarse position

the governor is overridden.

oil is directed to the coarse side

269
Q

how does the CSU conventionally unfeather the prop?

A

RPM lever is moved fully forward which resets the CSU to its normal operating position. as the engines started the oil flows into the CSU so the prop assembly begins unfeathering the prop assisted by centrifugal twisting moment

270
Q

how is an accumulator Start carried out on a double acting CSU?

A

As the RPM lever is advanced the CSU piston is repositioned which allows oil to flow into the CSU. at the same time a microswitch is activated which allows oil stored in the accumulator to be released thorough the CSU chamber into the prop assembly to seat urfeathering the blades. as the engine reaches a certain rpm it’ll then start.

271
Q

why is an oil accumulator in the CSU used to restart some engines?

A

on some aircraft the vibration from a starter motor in flight is unacceptable.

272
Q

why must we be fast with engine failure drills?

A

at about 700-1000 RPM featuring locks will prevent the

props from fully feathering

273
Q

what is the purpose of feathering locks?

A

stop the props from going to coarse with a large blade angle on shutdown to prevent high loads on the subsequent startup

274
Q

how does the prop feather when the engine master switch is turned off?

A

the CSU is electronically positioned to allow oil to bleed back from the propellor so allowing counterweight centrifugal force and spring pressure to fester the prop.

275
Q

what does the DA42 use to unfeather the props in flight?

A

oil stored under pressure in an accumulator

276
Q

What is the engines displacement?

A

1689ccm

277
Q

When can we assume no more diesel is left in the tanks?

A

When each tank has been refilled twice with Jet fuel (17.2USG) ir been drained

278
Q

Above what temperature in the engine will the fire detector sound?

A

250C

279
Q

What in the cockpit is connected to the hot battery bus?

A

Pilot map/reading light

280
Q

What does the alternator switch do?

A

Connects L/R generators to the L/R main bus

281
Q

What does the avionics master switch do?

A

Connects the avionics bus to the RH main bus

282
Q

What does the electric master switch do?

A

Connects the battery bus to the battery (the battery bus powers the L/R main bus)

Enables the alternator switches

283
Q

What do the engine master switches do?

A

Enable starter activation

Connects left/right ECUS to the left right ECU buses

Provides power for GLOW and unfeathering accumulators

Connects L/R generator field to excitation battery

284
Q

How does the fluid in the ice protection system work?

A

Freezing point depressant which mixes with water droplets to form a mixture with a freezing temperature lower than that of the ambient air

285
Q

How is anti ice fluid dispersed iver the prop blades?

A

Slinger ring or a feeder tube into the leading edge

286
Q

What is the freezing point of the glycol/water mixture in anti ice fluid?

A

-22 to -40C

287
Q

In what mode does the anti ice system operate in when the alternate switch is flicked?

A

High mode

288
Q

How long will it take the de ice pressure low annunciation to come on during the test?

A

120 seconds

289
Q

When will the de ice level low annunciations trigger?

A

Below 10 litres (45 mins in normal mode)

290
Q

What is the minimum operating temperature for the anti icing system?

A

-30 C

291
Q

What defines icing conditions?

A

Visually detected ice

Visible moisture at 3C or below ambient temperature

292
Q

what powers the aircrafts compass system?

A
  • direct reading compass responds to the eggs magnetic field
  • the remote reading compass is electrically powered
293
Q

what powers the aircrafts attitude indicator?

A

standby attitude indicator is powered by an electrically driven gyro

294
Q

how should the engines be leaned in flight?

A

the 2 engines are managed by a FADEC system through 2 ECU’s

295
Q

how is the bypass of exhaust gases controlled?

A

ECU controls this through the waste gate valve

296
Q

how many air sources are there to feed the turbo charger system?

A
  1. engine inlet and alternate air
297
Q

why does air pass through an intercooler before entering the engine?

A

it is heated when passing through the compressor therefore requires cooling to allow increased power

MEP (4 decks)

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