DA42 systems Flashcards
1
Q
what is the DA42 fuselage made of?
A
semi-monocoque of carbon fibre reinforced plastic with glass fibre reinforced plastic bulkheads and stiffeners
2
Q
what is the span?
A
13.42 meters
3
Q
what is the length?
A
8.56 meters
4
Q
what is the height?
A
2.49 metres
5
Q
what fuel can we use?
A
Jet A1 or Diesel with caution
6
Q
what is the total fuel quantity?
A
52 USG
7
Q
what is the usable fuel?
A
50 USG
8
Q
what is the max fuel imbalance?
A
5 USG
9
Q
what is the minimum flight mass?
A
1250kg
10
Q
what is the max ramp mass?
A
1793kg
11
Q
what is MTOM?
A
1785kg
12
Q
what is MZFM?
A
1650kg
13
Q
what is MLM?
A
1700kg
14
Q
what supports the rear cabin door?
A
high pressure strut
15
Q
where is the fire extinguisher located?
A
behind the co pilots seat
16
Q
where is the first aid kit located?
A
rear baggage compartment
17
Q
what 3 pieces of safety and emergency equipment is the DA42 equipped with?
A
- ELT
- first aid kit
- Fire extinguisher
18
Q
what 2 systems provide heating and ventilation?
A
Heat exchanger in engine nacelles provides warm air
NACA duct provides ambient air
19
Q
how is cold air controlled?
A
louvres
20
Q
how is warm air controlled?
A
levers on centre console
21
Q
what provides heat for the defrost system?
A
LH engine heat exchanger
22
Q
where is the inlet duct for ambient air?
A
RH wing inboard
23
Q
what provides warm air for the cabin heat?
A
RH engine heat exchanger
24
Q
where is the aileron trim tab?
A
port aileron
25
when is the stick limiter system used?
high power and full flap
26
what causes a PT caption and disabling of the autopilot?
operating just one trim pole for more than 3 seconds
27
how far is normal elevator travel?
15.5 degrees
28
when is aft stick travel limited to 13 degrees?
both power levers are advanced beyond approx 20% and flap lever is selected to LDG
29
how far do the flaps extend in APP config?
20 degrees
30
how far do flaps extend in LDG config?
42 degrees
31
what do 2 flap lights mean?
flaps are in transit
32
how do we check the ailerons and flap hinges?
check each hinge roll pin and check the varnish on the control rod securing bolts
33
where is the stall Warner?
left wing
34
how do we heat the stall Warner?
pitot heat switch
35
what engines power the DA42?
Thielert TAE 125 diesel engine
36
describe the TAE 125 engine
- 4 cylinder
- liquid cooled
- turbo-charged
37
what is max power from the TAE 125?
99kw (135hp) at 2300RPM
38
what Is max continuous power from the TAE 125?
99kw (135hp) at 2300RPM
39
what is the operating principle of Diesel engines?
high compression produces spontaneous combustion
40
what pre heats air in cylinders to aid starting?
glow plugs
41
what fuel does the TAE 125 use?
Jet A1 kerosene
42
what are the advantages of using Jet A1?
provides lubrication and combustion
43
what oil does the tae 125 use?
Shell Helix ultra 5W40 synthetic API SJ/CF or aeroshell 10W40
44
what oil does the gearbox use?
Shell EP 75W90 API GL -4
45
describe the engine and gearbox lubrication systems?
wet sump design with an external filter and cooler
46
what is the engine oil capacity?
6 litres (some oil loss is normal)
47
what operates the variable pitch propellor system?
gearbox oil system
48
in the fuel injection system, how is fuel delivered to the common rail?
via LP and HP fuel pumps
49
what controls fuel rail fuel pressure?
regulator/pressure relief valve
50
what does the common rail in the fuel injection system provide?
provides HP fuel to each cylinder via fuel injectors
51
what are the fuel injectors controlled by?
ECU (s)
52
what happens to excess fuel in the injection system?
returned via a fuel cooler to the aircraft fuel system
53
what does the turbocharger use?
filtered RAM air
54
what controls the turbocharger output pressure?
the waste gate
55
what controls the waste gate?
ECU
56
what does pulling the alternate air lever do?
provides unfiltered warm air to the turbochargers
57
how is the engine cooled?
liquid cooled via an integral pump and a heat exchanger located in the intakes
58
what kind of system is the engine cooling system?
dual circuit
59
what bypasses the heat exchanger?
cold coolant
60
what does the heat exchanger supply to the cabin?
warm air
61
which direction do the props rotate?
clockwise as viewed from the cockpit
62
which engine is the critical engine?
left engine
63
how is the DA42 prop constructed?
wood composite construction with a stainless steel LE
64
What are the advantages of the props design?
- light weight
- reduced inertia
- minimised vibration
65
what does the CSU use to fine the prop?
gearbox oil pressure
66
what does the CSU use to coarsen and feather the prop?
spring and counterweights
67
what controls the CSU?
ECU
68
what turns the counterweight in line with the rotational plane to coarsen the prop?
centrifugal force
69
what is used to unfeather the prop?
oil stored under pressure in an accumulator
70
what controls the accumulator valve which unfeathers the prop?
engine master switch
71
what happens when the engine master switch is switched on which unfeathers the prop?
- valve opens
- pressurised oil directed to PCU via CSU
- prop unfeathers and starts to windmill
72
when will the propellor feather?
when engine master switch is set to off provided the prop speed exceeds 1300RPM
73
why may the prop not feather below 1300RPM?
the start lock may prevent the prop from feathering (increase airspeed until 1300rpm is achieved)
74
What can an ECU malfunction cause with regard to the prop?
it could cause the prop to lock on the start locks leading to reduced thrust and propellor overspeed.
75
what controls the engines?
FADEC units each comprising 2 ECU's
76
what do ECU's control?
- Injectors
- CSU
- Rail Pressure
- waste gate
77
When would we select ECU B?
In an emergency only
78
What powers the ECU's?
dedicated ECU busbars
79
what does the ECU test button do?
cycles the ECU's
80
how long must the engine have been run at idle to shut down?
2 minutes in order to stabilise temperatures
81
where are overheat detectors located?
one in each engine bay
82
when will an ENG FIRE warning appear?
if temp exceeds 250C or 480F in the engine
83
what does fuel calculation data accuracy depend on?
pre-flight input
84
what is the total fuel capacity?
52 USG (196.2L)
85
whats the usable fuel?
50 USG (189.2L)
86
what fuel do we use as per L3 SOP?
JET A1
87
what are the fuel tanks made of?
aluminium
88
what is each tank made up of?
3 interconnected chambers
89
what does the fuel filler point in the wing feed directly into?
outer chamber
90
what does the fuel crossed system allow?
fuel to be drawn from the opposite tank
91
where is fuel flow/quantity/temperature shown?
EIS pages
92
when will a L/R fuel caution be triggered?
3-4 gallons remaining
93
when will a L/R fuel temp warning be triggered?
if fuel temp exceeds 75C
94
what must we set the fuel selector valve to when the engines inoperative?
off
95
can the aircraft be operated in flight with both fuel selectors in the cross feed position?
no
96
can we take off with either fuel selector in cross feed?
no
97
why can we not shut down the engine by turning off the fuel selector?
can cause damage to the high pressure pump
98
how many fuel drains are there?
2 per side
99
describe the undercarriage
- tricycle
- oleo pneumatic struts
- steerable nose wheel
100
how is the gear extended and retracted?
hydraulically
101
what provides hydraulic pressure to the landing gear?
electronic pump
102
what are springs used for in the landing gear?
gear extension and locking
103
how can gear be extended in the event of hydraulic failure?
gravity
104
when will a 'gear unsafe' light show?
if any leg is neither locked down or up
105
when will the gear indicator lights be green?
when all 3 legs are down and locked
106
what is the expected nose tyre pressure?
6 bar/87 psi
107
what is the expected extension on the nose oleo?
at least 5.9 inches/15cm
108
what is the expected extension on the main gear oleo?
1.6 inches/4cm
109
what is the expected main gear tyre pressure?
4.5 bar/65 psi
110
what is the nosewheel steering range?
30 degrees either side
111
when will nose wheel steering disengage?
when the gear is retracted
112
what is the minimum radius turn on the ground?
6 metres (with differential braking)
113
what angle can we steer to with braking and differential power?
52 degrees either side
114
what kid of brakes does the DA42 have?
hydraulic disk brakes
115
where is brake fluid stored?
2 reservoirs fitted to the co-pilots brake pedal actuators
116
how is pressure provided to the landing gear system?
electrically powered hydraulic pump controlled by a pressure switch
117
when will the gear systems electrically powered hydraulic pump operate?
when the hydraulic system pressure falls below a set value
118
how many actuators are fitted to each anding gear assembly?
1
119
what maintains hydraulic system pressure while the gear actuators are operating?
an accumulator
120
what is the gear extension limitation speed?
194
121
how long does gear extension take?
6-10 seconds
122
how is the gear extended?
3 hydraulically powered actuators assisted by springs. springs hold the Gear down until downlocks engage
123
how is the extended landing gear held in place?
down locks and hydraulic pressure
124
what is the gear retraction limitation speed?
156
125
where is hydraulic pressure applied during gear retraction?
both sides of the actuators
126
explain how the hydraulic system retracts the gear?
fluid flows from the extension side of the MLG cylinders, retracting the gear
127
what prevents inadvertent retraction of the gear?
squat-switches
128
how is the gear held up?
hydraulic pressure
129
what happens to the retracted gear if hydraulic pressure fails?
gear descends under gravity
130
how does the emergency gear extension lever extend the gear?
releases hydraulic pressure and allows the gear to fall
131
when will the landing gear alert system be triggered?
if gear is up or unsafe and:
- airborne and power lever retarded below 25%
- flaps set to landing
or if gear up selected on ground
132
what kind of electrical system does the DA42 use?
28V DC
133
how is power generated in the DA42 electrical system?
two 60A 28V DC engine driven alternators (one on each engine)
134
what is the electrical systems alternative power source?
one 10 Ah 24V DC main battery
135
what is the purpose of the pair of 1.3Ah 12 V DC excitation batteries?
supply excitation power to the Alternators in the event of failure of the main battery
136
what is the purpose of 1.3 Ah 12V DC backup batteries?
supply power to each ECU bus in the event of total electrical failure
137
what provides emergency power to the standby attitude indicator?
non rechargeable dry cell battery
138
what controls alternator output?
GCU
139
when will a L/R ALTN AMPS warning trigger?
if output exceeds 60Amps
140
what warning will show for alternator defects?
L/R ALTN FAIL
141
what does the load balancing circuit in the electrical system do?
shares load evenly betweenthe alternators
142
what provides emergency excitation current to the alternators?
excitation battery
143
how are the alternators connected to the L/R main busbars?
via alternator switches
144
how are the alternator switches energised?
main battery power via the electrical master switch
145
what does the main busbar directly supply?
L/R ECU busbars
146
how are parallel electrical supplies fed to each ECU?
the respective engine master switches
147
what is the hot battery busbar permanently wired to?
main battery
148
how does the main battery connect to the main battery busbar?
electrical master switch
149
what does the main battery busbar connect to?
R/L main busbars
150
what do the main busbars receive with electrical master switch on?
24V DC from the main battery
151
what supplies the main battery busbar?
main battery or external power unit
152
which bus is the avionics busbar connected to?
R main bus
153
how are the left and right starter motors powered?
by the main battery via a starter relay
154
what 3 things are needed to provide current to the started motor?
- electrical master on
- engine master on
- key turned to start
155
where are the electrical controls and indications shown in the cockpit?
left and lower left sides of the main instrument panel
156
where are routine electrical indications shown?
EIS
157
Where are alternator warnings and cautions shown?
PFD
158
what does the AHRS provide?
attitude and heading information to the display units
159
what does the magnetometer provide?
magnetic heading info to the AHRS
160
What does the ADC do?
processes pitot-static and air air temperature information
161
what do the 2 integrated avionics units comprise of?
2 GPS recievers, VOR/ILS receiver/VHF transceiver
162
what does the audio system integrate
audio and marker beacon signals
163
what does the airframe/interface unit do?
senses engine and airframe system parameters
164
when are the G1000's control systems and displays powered?
when the electric master switch is on
165
what does an 'altitude' voice alert mean?
deviation from altitude of 200 feet
166
where is info from the pitot static fed to?
ADC/ASI/Altimeter
167
where is the OAT sensor mounted?
below the nose
168
how long will the standby instrument standby battery last?
1.5 hours
169
when can we not use the autopilot?
below 200ft on departure/approach and below 800ft in other phases of flight
170
what are the rap 140 speed limitations?
90-185 IAS
171
what is the purpose of the ice protection system?
to prevent accretion of ice
172
what can the ice ice protection system remove?
small amounts of ice
173
what anti-ice fluids can be used?
- aeroshell compound 7
| - Kilfrost TKS 80
174
where is the ice protection fluid tank located?
right nose baggage compartment
175
what is the ice protection tank capacity?
31.5l/30l usable
176
what is the minimum ice protection fluid level required if icing conditions are possible?
22l
177
which way does the CG move as ice protection fluid is used?
rearwards
178
when should the ice protection system be activated?
before entry into icing conditions
179
where is ice protection fluid distributed to?
- main wings
- tailplane
- prop blades
- windshield
180
how long will ice protection operate for in normal mode?
2.5 hours
181
how does the ice protection operate in normal mode?
both main pumps operate simultaneously but are cycled on and off in a pulsed fashion
182
how long will the anti-ice operate for in high mode?
1 hour
183
how does the anti-ice system work in high mode?
the selected main pump runs continuously
184
how long will the anti ice system operate for in MAX mode?
30 minutes
185
how is the MAX mode operated on the anti-ice?
both pumps run simultaneously for 2 minutes when the button is pressed
186
what does the alternate switch on the anti-ice system do?
connects pump 2 to the right hand main bus if the left hand bus is unavailable
187
what is the maximum and minimum level for brake fluid?
max= 12mm
min= 25mm
188
when can we exceed Vno?
only in smooth air, and with caution
189
what is the minimum fuel temperature?
-30C
190
what is the maximum fuel temperature?
75C
191
what is the minimum engine oil pressure?
1 bar
192
what is the maximum oil pressure?
6.5 bar
193
what is the minimum oil quantity per engine?
4.5 litres
194
what is the max oil quantity per engine?
6 litres
195
what is the maximum engine oil consumption per hour?
0.1 litres
196
what is the minimum engine oil temperature?
-30C
197
what is the maximum engine oil temperature?
140C
198
what is the maximum gearbox temperature?
120C
199
what is the minimum voltage?
24.1V
200
what is the maximum voltage?
32V
201
what is the max amperage?
60 amps
202
what is the propellor diameter?
187cm
203
what is the prop pitch angle in the feathered position?
81 degrees
204
what is the prop pitch position in the start lock position?
15 degrees
205
what is the prop pitch angle in the low pitch position?
12 degrees
206
what is the maximum engine restart altitude?
8000ft
207
what is the engine restart speed range?
80-120knots
208
what is the low engine oil pressure caution range?
1-2.3 bar
209
what is the normal engine oil pressure range?
2.3-5.8 bar
210
what is the high engine oil pressure caution range?
5.8-6.5 bar
211
above what figure is the engine oil pressures upper prohibited range?
6.5 bar
212
what is the lower prohibited range of engine oil temperature?
below -30C
213
what is the lower caution range of engine oil temperature?
-30 to 50C
214
what is the normal range of engine oil temperature?
50-130C
215
what is the upper caution range of engine oil temperature?
131-140C
216
what is the upper prohibited range of engine oil temperature?
above 140C
217
what is the lower prohibited range of coolant temperature?
below -30C
218
what is the lower caution range of coolant temperature?
-30 to 60C
219
what is the normal operating range of coolant temperature?
60C to 101C
220
what is the upper caution range of coolant temperature?
102-105C
221
what is the upper prohibited range of coolant temperature?
above 105C
222
what is the normal operating range of gearbox temperature?
up to 115C
223
what is the upper caution range of gearbox temperature?
115-120C
224
what is the upper prohibited range of coolant temperature?
above 120C
225
what is the lower prohibited range of fuel temperature?
below -30C
226
what is the lower caution range of fuel temperature?
-30 to 4C
227
what is the normal range of fuel temperature?
5-69C
228
what is the upper caution range of fuel temperature?
70-75C
229
what is the upper prohibited range of fuel temperature?
above 75C
230
what is the lower prohibited voltage range?
below 24.1V
231
what is the lower caution range of voltage?
24.1-25V
232
what is the normal voltage range?
25-30V
233
what is the upper caution voltage range?
30-32V
234
what is the upper prohibited voltage range?
above 32V
235
what are the CG limits at 1250KG?
2.35-2.42M aft of datum
236
what are the CG limits at 1468KG?
2.35-2.49 aft of datum
237
what are the CG limits at MTOM?
2.40-2.49M aft of datum
238
what is the load factor range at Va?
+ 3.8 to - 1.52
239
what is the load factor range at Vne?
+ 3.8 to 0
240
what is the max load factor with flaps in LDG position?
+ 2
241
what is the maximum operating altitude?
18000ft
242
when is use of auxiliary tanks not permitted?
when the aircraft is fuelled with either diesel or a mixture of diesel and jet A1
243
how much fuel does each auxiliary tank contain?
13.7 (13.2 usable)
244
what is the max weight to be put in the main baggage compartment?
45kg
245
what is the max weight to be put in the baggage extension?
18kg
246
what is the max weight to be put in the nose baggage compartment?
30kg
247
what is the minimum engine start fuel temperature?
-5C
248
what is the minimum take off fuel temperature?
5C
249
when is using external power to Start the engines not permitted?
when the subsequent flight is night VFR or IFR
250
what is not permitted when the seal on the emergency switch is broken?
IFR flight
251
what is the max structural temperature of the airframe?
55C if above 1650KG
252
what indicates structural temperature?
temperature indicators in the main landing gear bays
253
how is the centre wing attached to the fuselage?
bolts
254
what is the engine firewall made of?
fire-resistant cladding, covered on the engine side by steel cladding.
255
describe the construction of the wing?
GFRP/CFRP sandwich construction
256
describe the construction of the empennage?
GFRP/CFRP semi-monocoque construction with twin spars on both stabilisers
257
where is the emergency axe located?
underneath the co-pilots floor panel
258
how does the CSU fine off the prop (reduce blade angle?)
landed piston valve moves up to direct engine oil under pressure into the prop shaft and hub assembly.
259
how does the CSU coarsen the prop (increase blade angle?)
blocks the pressured oil supply and instead allows oil from the prop assembly to bleed outback to the engine pushed by a spring in the prop assembly.
260
what do CSU flyweights do?
move either in or out depending on engine speed and lever the landed piston up or down
261
what happens in the CSU when the RPM lever is moved?
it moves a rack and pinion mechanism that causes the spring pressure to increase or decrease against the governor weights causing the piston to move
262
when is equilibrium reached in the CSU?
when the governor weights rotate at a steady rate balancing spring tension against that inputted from the RPM lever.
263
describe the CSU in the 'on-speed' condition
spring pressure from the centrifugal force from the weights is balanced by the pressure from the RPM lever/.
therefore the land is held backing the line to the prop inlet so no oil flows in or out causing a hydraulic lock. this is the equilibrium or on speed position
264
how does the CSU correct underspeed?
the flyweights rotate slower due to lower RPM caused by a greater angle of attack on the blades. the allows the piston to move up which in turn allows oil to move into the prop, reducing the blade angle.
fining off the blade angle allows the RPM to stop reducing. this reduces load on the weights which allows the piston to move back down. a new hydraulic equilibrium is reached.
265
what happens in the CSU if the pilot selects higher RPM?
the rack and pinion moves up so reducing spring pressure which allows the piston to rise, uncovering the prop line. allowing oil to flow in and fine off the propellor. as the prop loads reduce the RPM increases, spinning the flyweights faster so bringing the piston back to blocking the prop line- introducing a new hydraulic equilibrium.
266
what happens in the CSU if the pilot selects lower RPM?
rack and pinion increases spring pressure which drops the piston allowing oil to flow out of the prop line into the engine increasing the blade angle. as the RPM reduces the flyweights move in raiding the piston which blocks the prop line at a new equilibrium
267
how does the CSU feather the prop?
the CSU piston is pushed down to its stop and held there, which allows oil to bleed freely from the prop line. the prop spring, compressed air in the assembly along with aerodynamic moments assist in feathering the prop. the rotating weights no longer influence the speeder spring or CSU piston.
268
how does a double acting CSU feather the prop?
the prop lever lifts the landed valve into the fully coarse position
the governor is overridden.
oil is directed to the coarse side
269
how does the CSU conventionally unfeather the prop?
RPM lever is moved fully forward which resets the CSU to its normal operating position. as the engines started the oil flows into the CSU so the prop assembly begins unfeathering the prop assisted by centrifugal twisting moment
270
how is an accumulator Start carried out on a double acting CSU?
As the RPM lever is advanced the CSU piston is repositioned which allows oil to flow into the CSU. at the same time a microswitch is activated which allows oil stored in the accumulator to be released thorough the CSU chamber into the prop assembly to seat urfeathering the blades. as the engine reaches a certain rpm it'll then start.
271
why is an oil accumulator in the CSU used to restart some engines?
on some aircraft the vibration from a starter motor in flight is unacceptable.
272
why must we be fast with engine failure drills?
at about 700-1000 RPM featuring locks will prevent the
| props from fully feathering
273
what is the purpose of feathering locks?
stop the props from going to coarse with a large blade angle on shutdown to prevent high loads on the subsequent startup
274
how does the prop feather when the engine master switch is turned off?
the CSU is electronically positioned to allow oil to bleed back from the propellor so allowing counterweight centrifugal force and spring pressure to fester the prop.
275
what does the DA42 use to unfeather the props in flight?
oil stored under pressure in an accumulator
276
What is the engines displacement?
1689ccm
277
When can we assume no more diesel is left in the tanks?
When each tank has been refilled twice with Jet fuel (17.2USG) ir been drained
278
Above what temperature in the engine will the fire detector sound?
250C
279
What in the cockpit is connected to the hot battery bus?
Pilot map/reading light
280
What does the alternator switch do?
Connects L/R generators to the L/R main bus
281
What does the avionics master switch do?
Connects the avionics bus to the RH main bus
282
What does the electric master switch do?
Connects the battery bus to the battery (the battery bus powers the L/R main bus)
Enables the alternator switches
283
What do the engine master switches do?
Enable starter activation
Connects left/right ECUS to the left right ECU buses
Provides power for GLOW and unfeathering accumulators
Connects L/R generator field to excitation battery
284
How does the fluid in the ice protection system work?
Freezing point depressant which mixes with water droplets to form a mixture with a freezing temperature lower than that of the ambient air
285
How is anti ice fluid dispersed iver the prop blades?
Slinger ring or a feeder tube into the leading edge
286
What is the freezing point of the glycol/water mixture in anti ice fluid?
-22 to -40C
287
In what mode does the anti ice system operate in when the alternate switch is flicked?
High mode
288
How long will it take the de ice pressure low annunciation to come on during the test?
120 seconds
289
When will the de ice level low annunciations trigger?
Below 10 litres (45 mins in normal mode)
290
What is the minimum operating temperature for the anti icing system?
-30 C
291
What defines icing conditions?
Visually detected ice
Visible moisture at 3C or below ambient temperature
292
what powers the aircrafts compass system?
- direct reading compass responds to the eggs magnetic field
- the remote reading compass is electrically powered
293
what powers the aircrafts attitude indicator?
standby attitude indicator is powered by an electrically driven gyro
294
how should the engines be leaned in flight?
the 2 engines are managed by a FADEC system through 2 ECU's
295
how is the bypass of exhaust gases controlled?
ECU controls this through the waste gate valve
296
how many air sources are there to feed the turbo charger system?
2. engine inlet and alternate air
297
why does air pass through an intercooler before entering the engine?
it is heated when passing through the compressor therefore requires cooling to allow increased power
