Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

ATPL > DA-42 TDI & CPL > Flashcards

DA-42 TDI & CPL Flashcards

1
Q

Va above 1542kg?

A

126 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Va up to 1542kg?

A

120 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

VFE Landing

A

111 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

VFE Approach

A

137 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

VLO Extension

A

194 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

VLO Retraction

A

156 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

VLE

A

194 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

VMCA

A

68 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

VNO

A

155 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

VNE

A

194 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Maximum propeller RPM

A

2300 RPM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Maximum overspeed RPM

A

2500 RPM for 20 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Minimum and Maximum oil pressure

A

1 - 6.5 Bar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Minimum and Maximum oil quantity

A

4.5 - 6.0 Litres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Maximum oil consumption

A

0.1 litres/hour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Engine minimum and maximum voltage

A

24.1V - 32V

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Prop pitch angle range

A

12-81

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Restart airspeed?

A

Below 90 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Minimum flight mass

A

1250kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

maximum take off mass

A

1785kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

MZFM

A

1650kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

MLM

A

1785kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Max load in nose baggage compartment

A

30kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Max load in cabin baggage compartment

A

45kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Max load in baggage extension?

A

18kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Max load in cabin baggage and baggage extension together?

A

45kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Positive and Negative load at Va

A

+3.8 and -1.52

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Positive and Negative load at Vne

A

+3.8 and -0.0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Positive and Negative load with flap in APP and LDG?

A

+2.0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

maximum operating altitude?

A

18,000ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Main tank total fuel quantity?

A

26 US Gal per tank

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Main tank usable fuel quantity?

A

25 US Gal per tank

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Aux tank total fuel quantity?

A

13.7 US Gal per tank

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Aux tank usable fuel quantity

A

13.2 US Gal per tank

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Fuel Temperature permitted range?

A

-30 to +75

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

VS1

A

64 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

VS0

A

57 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Full elevator deflection angle before and after backstop?

A

15.5 reduced to 13

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

When is the variable backstop initiated?

A

When 20% power is set on the power levers and the flaps are int he LDG position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

How are the ailerons and elevators operated?

A

Push Rods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

How are the flaps operated?

A

electrically by push rods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

How is the rudder operated?

A

Bowden cables

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Prop start lock position

A

15-degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Maximum restart altitude

A

8000ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Maximum restart attempts in the air?

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Propeller speed reduction ratio

A

1:1.69

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

How is propeller pitch controlled?

A

Gearbox oil

Oil pressure up = pitch down = RPM up
Oil pressure down = pitch up = RPM down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What must the RPM be above for the engine to feather the prop?

A

1300 RPM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

How is electrical power generated?

A

2 x 60Amp 28V Alternators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

How is electrical power stored?

A

1 x 10 Amp 24V DC Lead Acid battery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Dihedral Angle

A

5-degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What Antennas are on the bottom of the aircraft?

A

Com 2, DME, ADF, Transponder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What antennas are on top of the aircraft?

A

ELT, Com 1, GPS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What antennas are on both the top and bottom of the aircraft?

A

TAS Traffic Avoidance System

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What engine provides Defrost and Heat?

A

Left provides Defrost, Right provides Heat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is the max difference between each main tank and each aux tank?

A

5 US GAL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Max Crosswind component?

A

20 Knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Max crosswind in icing conditions?

A

20 Knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What does the emergency switch power and for how long?

A

Flood lights and standby artificial horizon for 1.5 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

VYSE

A

82 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

VYSE (Ice)

A

88 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

VOPS Ice

A

121-160 KIAS

63
Q

Wingspan

A

13.55m including Strobe

64
Q

Length

A

8.56m

65
Q

Height

A

2.49m

66
Q

Leading edge sweep

A

1-degree

67
Q

Wing aspect ratio?

A

11.06

68
Q

Track distance

A

2.95m

69
Q

Engine manufacturer?

A

Thielert Aircraft Engines

70
Q

Engine max power?

A

99kW

71
Q

1700kg VREF Flap Up, APP, LDG

A

85, 82, 76 KIAS

72
Q

1785kg VREF Flap Up, APP, LDG

A

86, 82, 78 KIAS

73
Q

VR up to 1700kg

A

70 KIAS

74
Q

VR above 1700kg

A

72 KIAS

75
Q

Vx and Vy up to 1700kg

A

77KIAS

76
Q

Vx and Vy above 1700kg

A

79KIAS

77
Q

Describe the Fuselage and Empennage

A

The fuselage and empennage is CFRP of semi monocoque moulded construction

78
Q

Describe the construction of the Ailerons, Elevators and Rudder.

A

GFRP composite sandwich construction

79
Q

At what temperature does the Fire Detection System activate?

A

250-degrees Celsius

80
Q

What does the protection fluid act as?

A

A freezing point depressant

81
Q

What happens when moisture in the air mixes with the ‘Freezing point depressant’?

A

The freezing point of the mixture reduces slow the ambient temperature

82
Q

What are the two application types in the ice protection system?

A

Spray Nozzles and Porous skin panels

83
Q

What is the normal freezing point of the glycol fluid?

A

-12 degrees celcius

84
Q

What is the freezing temperature range once the glycol is mixed with water?

A

-22 to -40 degrees celsius

85
Q

Describe the ‘Normal’ Mode of the icing system

A

2 pumps run simultaneously, but cycle 30 seconds on and 90 seconds off

86
Q

Describe the ‘High’ Mode of the icing system

A

1 pump is on continuously

87
Q

Describe the ‘Max’ mode of the icing system

A

2 pumps on for 2 minutes simultaneously

88
Q

What is the typical operating time in Normal Mode

A

around 2.5 Hours

89
Q

What is the typical operating time in High Mode

A

around 1.0 hours

90
Q

What is the typical operating time in Max Mode

A

around 0.5 hours

91
Q

Describe the windshield protection system

A

Only 1 pump operates at a time, operates for 5 seconds per operation

92
Q

What happens when the Alternate switch is selected?

A

When the alternate switch is selected, pump number 2 is connected directly to the right hand main bus, the system operates in high mode only when the alternate switch is selected

93
Q

Describe the ice protection system

A

From the main tank there is two independent systems. One for the windscreen and the other for the airframe and prop. Each of the two independent systems have 2 pumps each. The system is ‘normally’ powered by the LH main bus

94
Q

When is an aerodrome traffic zone radius 2NM?

A

When the longest runway is shorter than 1850m

95
Q

What is the maximum altitude parachuting sites are able to operate?

A

FL150

96
Q

What is the maximum altitude glider sites can winch up to?

A

2500FT

97
Q

What is the freezing and flash point of Jet A1?

A

Freezing: -47 Flashpoint: 38

98
Q

The additional yaw which defines the critical engine is caused by?

A

Asymmetric blade effect

99
Q

When the throttle is brought to idle on an asymmetric landing which direction will the aircraft yaw?

A

Towards the working engine

100
Q

In an asymmetric climb with 5-degrees bank to the live engine, the balance ball should be?

A

Approximately 1/2 ball width towards the live engine

101
Q

How long should the starter motor operate for? how long should it be left to cool after each attempt?

A

10 seconds and left to cool for 20 seconds after each attempt

102
Q

Max number of start attempts before allowing the starter to cool? How long should it be left to cool for?

A

Maximum 6 attempts before leaving for 30 minutes to cool

103
Q

the trend vector on the PFD displays shows the figure that will be reached in how many seconds?

A

6 seconds

104
Q

Cabin heating and ventilation is supplied from?

A

RH engine for seats and floor, LH engine for canopy, fresh air from underside of the right wing.

105
Q

Convert IAS to TAS?

A

TAS= IAS +2% per 1000ft

106
Q

What is the difference between gross and net performance?

A

Gross: What you can reasonably expect to achieve on the average day

Net: Gross performance reduced to ensure an acceptable level of safety

107
Q

Minimum climb gradient all engines operative?

A

4% at screen height

108
Q

minimum climb gradient with one engine inoperative at 400agl and 1500agl?

A

400agl: measurably positive
1500agl: 0.75%

109
Q

minimum climb gradient on the missed approach/ go around?

A

0.75% at a speed no lower than 1.2 Vs1

110
Q

What is the weather minima for destination and alternate at this ATO?

A

More than 5km Vis

ceiling 2000ft or circling +500ft (whichever is higher) within +/-1 hour of ETA

111
Q

What conditions cause Haze?

A

Haze often occurs when dust and smoke particles accumulate in relatively dry air. When weather conditions block the dispersal of smoke and other pollutants they concentrate and form a usually low-hanging shroud that impairs visibility.

112
Q

What causes mist?

A

Mist is tiny droplets of water hanging in the air. These droplets form when warmer water in the air is rapidly cooled, causing it to change from invisible gas to tiny visible water droplets

113
Q

what causes fog?

A

Fog forms when the difference between air temperature and dew point is less than 2.5 °C. Fog begins to form when water vapor condenses into tiny liquid water droplets that are suspended in the air. … This occurs from either added moisture in the air, or falling ambient air temperature

114
Q

What are the types of icing you can encounter in cloud, precipitation and clear air?

A

hoar frost, Rime ice, clear ice

115
Q

Describe Hoar Frost

A

Direct sublimation of water vapour from the air. Firry, white and brittle. Most commonly forms on cold surfaces, either on the ground or during descent after a prolonged period of cold soaking at altitude

116
Q

Describe rime ice

A

Small SCWD which freeze instantly trapping air. White or milky white and brittle. Builds forwards. Found in stratiform clouds.

117
Q

Describe Clear Ice

A

Large SCWD which freeze slowly. Clear transparent, dense and tough. Found in cumuliform clouds.

118
Q

What is the minimum RVR single crew?

A

800m unless using an AP with ILS or MLS in which case normal minima apply as long as the DH is not less than 250ft

119
Q

What does a turn coordinator measure? What does It display?

A

It measures rate of roll and yaw

It shows rate of turn and shows whether you are in balance.

120
Q

Where can you find the list of documents required to be carried in flight by a UK aircraft public transport?

A

EU OPS subpart B

121
Q

How many air sources are the to feed the turbocharger system?

A

2

  • Engine air inlet
  • Alternate air inlet
122
Q

how does the ECU calculate the correct setting of the waste gate?

A

Manifold pressure sensor behind the compressor

123
Q

When does the DEIC LVL LO annunciation illuminate?

A

Below 10L, which provides around 45 minutes in NORM mode

124
Q

Where do the RH and LH main busses connect to?

A

RH main bus and LH main bus connect to the battery bus through a 90Amp circuit breaker

125
Q

How long does gear extension take?

A

6-10 seconds

126
Q

What engines are installed on L3 DA42?

A

Thielert Engine. 2.0L 99kW, 135hp

127
Q

What materials are used to construct the blades of the prop?

A

wood composite blades with fibre-reinforced plastic coating and stainless steel edge cladding

128
Q

Autopilot airspeed limiting range?

A

90 -185 KIAS

129
Q

Factor for wet and dry grass on take off distance?

A

x1.2 and x1.3

130
Q

Take off factor for a paved wet runway?

A

x1.0

131
Q

Factor applied for upslope on take off?

A

5% for every 1% of upslope

132
Q

Factor applied for downslope on landing?

A

5% for every 1% of downslope

133
Q

What must the landing distance from screen height not exceed?

A

70% of the landing distance available or a factor of 1.43

134
Q

What landing factor must be applied to a landing on a wet paved runway?

A

x1.15

135
Q

What is performance Class B?

A

Aircraft with 9 or less passenger seats and a MTOW of 5700kg or less

136
Q

CPL Hour Requirements

A

Dual: 80hr (5 ground time)
PIC: 70hr
XC: 20hr PIC including 300NM QXC with 2 Full stop landings at airports other than the starting point
Night: 5 Hours (3 Dual, 1 Nav, 1 solo with 5 circuits)
Instrument: 10 hours (5 Ground)
Aircraft certified for at least 4 people, variable pitch prop and retractable gear: 5 Hr

137
Q

What is a warm occlusion?

A

A warm occlusion will occur if the cold air behind the occlusion is warmer than the cold air in front of it

138
Q

What is a cold occlusion?

A

A cold occlusion will occur if the cold air behind the occlusion is colder than the cold air in front of it

139
Q

What is the form of the earth?

A

Oblate Spheroid

140
Q

Model of the earth used in CAA Charts?

A

WGS84

141
Q

Uk CAA Chart Projection

A

Lambert Conformal Conic Projection

142
Q

Why is there no deviation correction required on the G1000?

A

Because there is a magnetometer (flux detector) installed

143
Q

What is an agonic line?

A

An imaginary line on the earth’s surface connecting the north and south magnetic poles and passing through those points where there is no magnetic declination and where a freely suspended magnetic needle indicates true north

144
Q

Describe the materials used to construct the engine firewall

A

Fire resistance matting, covered on the engine side by stainless steel

145
Q

Describe Buys Ballot’s Law

A

If one stands with their back to the wind, in the northern hemisphere the atmospheric pressure will be lower on their left

146
Q

Describe Coriolis Force

A

Due to the earths rotation we experience an apparent force known as Coriolis Force. This deflects the direction of the wind to the right in the Northern hemisphere and to the left in the southern.

147
Q

What type of SCWD can be found 0 to -20 degrees?

A

Both large and small supercooled water droplets

148
Q

What type of SCWD can be found -20 to -40 degrees?

A

Small supercooled water droplets can exist

149
Q

What type of SCWD can be found below -40 degrees?

A

Most droplets have frozen. Some very small droplets can remain in the liquid phase.

150
Q

Characteristics of a Forward CG?

A
  • Increased Fuel Consumption
  • Higher Stall speed
  • Higher Stability
  • Lower Controllability
  • Harder to flare when landing
151
Q

Characteristics of an Aft CG?

A
  • More efficient
  • Lower stall speed
  • Lower Stability
  • Higher controllability
  • Requires lots of input
152
Q

What is washout?

A

Washout is when the wing tip has a slightly lower angle of attack than the root of the wing. This ensures that during the stall the roots will stall first ensuring the pilot is given the classic symptoms before entering the full stall. By stalling the root first there is still lots of controllability in the ailerons.

by reducing the angle of incidence at the wind tip there is a reduction in wing tip vortices, therefore a reduction in induced drag.

153
Q

How can you reduce the angle of attack at the wing tip?

A

Washout and Camber change

ATPL (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions