D4 Pros OSCE Flashcards

1
Q

When fitting a maxillary occlusal guard, its occlusal surface should be adjusted to …?

A

accommodate the mandibular teeth.

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2
Q

When adjusting occlusal guard, the adjustment should ensure that the mandibular incisors (should/should not) experience disclussion?

A

should not

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3
Q

When adjusting complete dentures, the adjustment should ensure that the mandibular incisors (should/should not) experience disclussion?

A

should

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4
Q

T/F: The occlusal guard’s ramp should maintain a rapid protrusive guidance against the mandibular incisors.

A

false (gentle)

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5
Q

It is crucial that the centric occlusion in an occlusal guard aligns with what?

A

MIP

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6
Q

The occlusal guard’s ramp should preserve bilateral what guidance by interacting with the mandibular canines?

A

canine guidance

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7
Q

1.

What is the critical error seen in provisional FPD 12-x-14?

a. Insufficient connector height
b. Limited oral hygiene for the patient Hygienic Portic
c. Insufficient occlusal gingival pontic height
d. Incorrect pontic for location in the mouth
e. There are no critical errors with the pontic

A

d. Incorrect pontic for location in the mouth * (Hygienic pontic should not be used on Mx)

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8
Q

The modified ridge lap is an () pontic design and (can, cannot) be used anywhere in the mouth, It can be used with () and all (_) FPD restorations

A

esthetic, can, PFM, ceramic

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9
Q

Describe this type of pontic that you see in this example?

a. Modified ridge lap
b. Ovate
c. Saddle
d. Hygienic

A

d. Hygienic

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10
Q

Complete the following sentence. The pontic in this case of FPD 12-x-14…

a. Used for the majority of Fixed partial dentures
b. Modified ridge lap in design
c. An esthetic pontic design and may be used anywhere in the mouth d. Able to be used with PFM and all ceramic FPD restorations
e. All of the above

A

e. All of the above

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11
Q

What is the purpose of a solid cast for a fixed partial denture?

a. To allow proper verification of fit to the model prior to intraoral try- in
b. To create more lab work
c. To verify shade and opacity or porcelain needed to veneer the fixed partial denture
d. To verify proper occlusal forces in MIP and on excursive movements
e. All of the above

A

a. To allow proper verification of fit to the model prior to intraoral try- in

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12
Q

What type of FPD design has the practitioner requested from the dental laboratory? Assuming no modification will be made to the FPD framework pictured.

a. Metal collars with porcelain covering the occlusal surfaces
b. Disappearing or Preston margins with partial metal and porcelain occlusal surfaces
c. Porcelain butt margins with full metal occlusal surfaces
d. Metal collars with partial metal and porcelain occlusal surfaces
e. Disappearing or Preston margins with full porcelain occlusal surfaces

A

e. Disappearing or Preston margins with full porcelain occlusal surfaces

The different types of metal substructure margins include, metal collars with porcelain covering the occlusal surfaces, disappearing or Preston margins with partial metal and porcelain occlusal surfaces, porcelain butt margins with full metal occlusal surfaces, Metal collars with partial metal and porcelain occlusal surfaces or disappearing or Preston margins with full porcelain occlusal surfaces.

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13
Q

When using 3D master shade guide, 2M1 compared to 1M1 has lower Value.

A. agree
b. disagree

A

a. agree

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14
Q

Compare 1M1 to 1M2

a. 1M2 has higher chroma than 1M1
b. 1M2 has lower chroma than 1M1
c. 1M2 has higher value than 1M1
d. 1M2 has lower Value than 1M1

A

a. 1M2 has higher chroma than 1M1

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15
Q

If the lab technician asked you if the case requires higher value…

a. Higher Value means “more white”
b. Higher Value means “less white”
c. Higher Value means “more red”
d. Higher Value means “less red”

A

a. Higher Value means “more white”

With regards to tooth whiteness, a whiter tooth compared to the adjacent tooth has a higher value rather than low value.

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16
Q

Hue in the photo describes

a. relative whiteness of the tooth/shade
b. relative redness or yellowness of the tooth/shade
c. relative intensity of the value
d. None of the above

A

b. relative redness or yellowness of the tooth/shade

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17
Q

Which hue has red/brown?

A

A

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18
Q

Which hue has red/yellow?

A

B

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19
Q

Which hue has gray?

A

C

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20
Q

Which hue has red/gray?

A

D

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21
Q

A patient is complaining that the restoration is too white. Describe the clinical condition related to the whiteness of the crown. Choose the best answer below:

a. The restoration on tooth #8 has high chroma compared to adjacent tooth #9
b. The restoration on tooth #8 has low value compared to adjacent tooth #9
c. The restoration on tooth #8 has high value compared to adjacent tooth #9
d. The restoration on tooth #8 has low chroma compared to adjacent tooth #9

A

c. The restoration on tooth #8 has high value compared to adjacent tooth #9

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22
Q

Assuming the shade of the restoration #8 is 3M1 and you want to go “darker”, which below would you choose and why.

a. 2M1 because it has higher hue than 3M1
b. 2M1 because it has lower value than 3M1
c. 4M1 because it has higher chroma than 3M1 d. 4M1 because it has lower value than 3M1

A

d. 4M1 because it has lower value than 3M1

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23
Q

In shade selection, the property most clinically significant which can affect the overall shade match is ____.

a. hue
b. value
c. chroma

A

b. value

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24
Q

In shade selection which property is the most clinically significant? A slight change… Property affects the overall shade match.

a. value
b. chroma
c. hue

A

a. value

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25
Q

T/F: For posterior tooth full coverage crown preparations, occlusal reduction should be equal to the lowest amount of reduction that provides the occlusal clearance necessary to satisfy the requirements of the restorative material.

A

true

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26
Q

Functional cusp bevel is critical for structural _____ of restoration.

A

durability

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27
Q

What is the step on shade selection on 3D master shade guide?

a. Value, Chroma, Hue
b. Hue, Value, Chroma
c. Value, Hue, Chroma
d. Chroma, Value, Hue

A

a. Value, Chroma, Hue

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28
Q

What is the step on shade selection on Vita classical shade guide?

a. Value, Chroma, Hue
b. Hue, Value, Chroma
c. Value, Hue, Chroma
d. Chroma, Value, Hue

A

b. Hue, Value, Chroma

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29
Q

Restoring tooth #4 is particularly challenging because of what clinical reason?

a. Too much taper
b. Not enough clinical tooth height
c. Not vital tooth
d. Tight inter-occlusal space

A

b. Not enough clinical tooth height

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30
Q

What factors do you consider for restorability of this tooth?

a. Amount of tooth structure left on the broken tooth
b. Ability to get ferrule
c. Relative distance of tooth margin to the crestal bone
d. a and b
e. a, b, and c

A

e. a, b, and c

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31
Q

Select the most appropriate indication for a FPD fabricated with a zirconia crown with feldspathic porcelain?

a. Patient’s inability to avoid excessive occlusal forces
b. Above average masticator forces
c. Frequent breakage of restorations
d. Sufficient limited space for an FPD
e. None of the above

A

d. None of the above

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32
Q

Because of the missing lateral and resultant diastema, the IDEAL treatment option is to extract teeth 6, 8, 9, and 11 and fabricate a removal partial denture.

a. Agree
b. Disagree

A

b. Disagree

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33
Q

In case of a large edentulous space in the anterior maxilla due to loss of #8 and #9, what are the possible treatment options for replacement of missing teeth, including what?

A

implants, FPD, and removable partial dentures

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34
Q

During treatment planning, one could consider working with a specialist such as an Orthodontist to obtain potential treatment options for this case.

a. Agree
b. Disagree

A

a. Agree

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35
Q

If the patient rejects an orthodontic option, crowns for teeth 6, 8, 9, and 11 could be recommended to close the diastema.

a. Agree
b. Disagree

A

a. Agree

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36
Q

The factors important for a short clinical crown include:

a. amount of tooth structure left on the broken tooth
b. ability to get ferrule
c. relative distance of tooth margin to the crestal bone
d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above

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37
Q

This type of impression technique is acceptable for which of the following indication?

a. Sound teeth both mesial and distal to the prepared tooth
b. A Fixed Partial Denture
c. When the preparation is the most distal tooth of the arch
d. Both a and c.

A

a. Sound teeth both mesial and distal to the prepared tooth

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38
Q

T/F: A triple tray or dual art impression technique with a metal dual-arch tray with VPS putty/wash viscosities produces less distortion in comparison with the same technique with the plastic dual-arch tray.

A

true

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39
Q

On the cast, you have all ceramic restorations on teeth #3 and #8.
The posterior crown has a zirconia substructure while the anterior crown is a monolithic restoration.

What restoration was most likely milled as one piece to a full contour?

a. Crown #8
b. Crown #3

A

a. Crown #8

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40
Q

On the cast, you have all ceramic restorations on teeth #3 and #8.
The posterior crown has a zirconia substructure while the anterior crown is a monolithic restoration.

Which restoration was most likely pressed or layered with porcelain over a substructure?

a. Anterior crown
b. Posterior crown

A

b. Posterior crown

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41
Q

On the cast, you have all ceramic restorations on teeth #3 and #8.
The posterior crown has a zirconia substructure while the anterior crown is a monolithic restoration.

Which restoration is an example of monolithic restoration?

a. PFM
b. Lithium Disilicate (Emax) pressed
c. FG (gold)C
d. Lava

A

b. Lithium Disilicate (Emax) pressed

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42
Q

Identify the type of crowns on a radiograph using their radio-opacity. Metal alloy and Zirconia crowns are radio-______ and lithium disilicates are radio-_______. PFM crown have opaque copings with partly lucent porcelain.

A

opaque, lucent

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43
Q

This is an impression for site #19

The impression is an example of what type of technique?

a. Close-tray
b. Open-tray
c. Triple tray
d. Custom-tray

A

a. Close-tray

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44
Q
A
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45
Q

What do you call the component imbedded in the impression material?

a. Implant analog
b. Abutment
c. Impression post
d. Healing cap

A

c. Impression post

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46
Q

Which of the following is indicated with the blue arrow, where it is partially in the impression?

a. implant analog
b. impression post

A

b. impression post

((The final impression didn’t have the tissue impression material on, so I thought the impression post was the one that is PARTIALLY covered by the impression)

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47
Q
A
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48
Q

Given this impression, what criteria or parameter will you choose below to assess if the impression is clinically acceptable to be used to fabricate the restoration?

a. The junction of the implant components are above the impression material
b. The implant analog is tall enough to make the base of the master cast
c. The impression material shows a clear, well-defined and continuous marginal implant component
d. The implant components fits the impression accurately and is very stable

A

d. The implant components fits the impression accurately and is very stable

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49
Q

Radiograph image of a molar crown on #18 on the distal (The distal was basically flat, mesial was normal)
a. Undercontoured on the distal surface of #18 crown
b. Overcontoured on the distal surface of #18 crown
c. Crown appears normal

A

a. Undercontoured on the distal surface of #18 crown

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50
Q

Radiograph of open margin/undercontour on the distal.
a. Crown has an overhang, and needs to redo
b. Crown has an overhang
c. Crown has an openmargin/undercontour, next thing to do is reimpression
d. Crown has an openmargin/undercontour
e. Crown has an openmargin/undercontour

A

c. Crown has an openmargin/undercontour, next thing to do is reimpression

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51
Q

Evaluate the radiograph taken for FPD #29-x-30. What is the most pertinent finding?

a. Connector thickness is inadequate
b. Proximal contact with adjacent is open
c. Pontic impinges on the tissue
d. Open margin

A

d. Open margin

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52
Q

Which of the following statement is INCORRECT in regard to the fabrication of a provisional crown with EZ post?

a. Provisional crown and EZ post should be one piece
b. It is important to provide a mechanical retentive form (nail head shape) at the end of the plastic endowel for the temporary crown material in order to achieve a secure connection between the provisional crown an-d EZ post
c. Temporary cement is applied along the entire length of a post for a strong retention.
d. Most common failure is a disconnection of provisional crown and EZ post
e. None of the above

A

c. Temporary cement is applied along the entire length of a post for a strong retention.

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53
Q
A
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54
Q

In regards to the device in the picture, which of the following statements is INCORRECT?

a. This is a manual torque wrench.
b. 20 Ncm torque wrench is recommended to use on a Zimmer implant abutment screw
c. Main reason for using torque wrench is to get a maximum preload without fracturing the abutment screw
d. Too much torque applied on the abutment screw might fracture the abutment screw
e. None of the above

A

b. 20 Ncm torque wrench is recommended to use on a Zimmer implant abutment screw

(It should be 30 Ncm)

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55
Q

This is a picture of a manual torque: All is true, EXCEPT?

a. Can adjust 10 Ncm to 45 Ncm
b. … right
c. … right
d. … right
e. All of the above is true

A

e. All of the above is true

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56
Q

Photo of FGC preparation - which fundamental is wrong:
a. Taper
b. Functional cusp bevel

A

b. Functional cusp bevel

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57
Q

Natural tooth #3 is lost due to decay, bone height is 7-8mm. What is Incorrect for this situation?
a. Patient can make an informed decision to have a FPD rather than an implant. An elderly patient who has a personal concern with sinus bone grafting procedure and implant surgery typically tends to make those decisions.
b. Indirect sinus can be an option.
c. Sinus and implant placements are typically done at the same time in this (7-8mm bone height) situation
d. 3-4 month delayed implant placement when indirect sinus lift is performed is an option to the surgeon
e. None of the above

A

d. 3-4 month delayed implant placement when indirect sinus lift is performed is an option to the surgeon

Sinus lifting is a surgical procedure aimed at increasing bone height in the posterior maxilla to facilitate implant placement. The choice between direct and indirect sinus lifting depends on several factors, including the amount of residual bone height, the desired implant length, and the patient’s specific anatomical and clinical conditions.

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58
Q

Indications for direct sinus lift

A

Residual Bone Height ≤ 4 mm: Insufficient bone for primary implant stability. Requires significant vertical bone augmentation.

Severe Pneumatization of the Maxillary Sinus: When the sinus floor is extensively low and impinges on the intended implant site.

Large Volume Augmentation Needed:When more than 4-6 mm of bone height is required.

Sinus Pathology Addressed Simultaneously: Cases with sinus membrane perforation, thickened membrane, or minor sinus polyps needing correction.

Multiple Implants in the Posterior Maxilla: When multiple implant sites require substantial bone support.

Complex Anatomical Variations: Cases with a thin or irregular sinus membrane. Presence of septa or other structural challenges.

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59
Q

Indications for Indirect Sinus Lift

A

Indications for Indirect Sinus Lift
Residual Bone Height ≥ 5 mm: Allows for controlled augmentation without opening a lateral window. Minimal Vertical

Augmentation Needed: When 3-4 mm of additional bone height is sufficient.

Stable Maxillary Sinus Anatomy: No septa, significant membrane thickening, or sinus pathology. Single or Small Number of

Implant Sites: Suitable for localized augmentation in fewer implant
placements.

Minimally Invasive Approach Desired: For patients with higher surgical risks or those preferring less invasive procedures.

Good Bone Quality and Primary Stability: Facilitates simultaneous implant placement with minimal sinus floor elevation.

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60
Q

Final restoration on #18 and #19 implants resulted in a ridge lap style contour (shown in picture. below). What was the primary cause for that outcome?
a. Implants were placed too lingually
b. Implants were placed too distally
c. Implants were placed too deeply
d. Implants were placed too shallowly e. Restorative dentist’s mistake

A

a. Implants were placed too lingually

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61
Q
A
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62
Q

Radiograph of a #19 implant crown that was too distally-placed. Questions: Whats wrong with the implant position?

A

a. Too distal

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63
Q
A
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64
Q

What should be done at delivery?
a. Take out mesial eccentric
b. Take out of excursive movements
c. , etc. basics answers

A

remove implant

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65
Q
A
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66
Q

Choose the most accurate statement concerning the following: “In these images the functional cusp bevel is a feature of occlusal reduction related to”:

a. Maxillary lingual cusps.
b. Mandibular lingual cusps.
c. Maxillary buccal cusps.
d. Mandibular buccal cusps.

A

d. Mandibular buccal cusps.

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67
Q

What is the proper sequence of making soft tissue cast from closed tray implant impression?

  1. VPS impression making
  2. Blow air into the impression to make sure any debris or water left in implant site of impression is gone and then place impression post back into the impression.
  3. Connect impression post to implant analogue
  4. Place polyether soft tissue material around the impression post/implant analogue complex.
  5. Pour improved (green) stone into the impression

a. 1,2,3,4,5
b. 1,3,2,4,5
c. 1,2,4,3,5
d. 1,4,3,2,5
e. 1,3,2,5,4

A

b. 1,3,2,4,5

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68
Q

A Study (Craddoch et al. J Prosthodont 2007) looking at the supra-eruption of unopposed molars reealed which of the following EXCEPT:

a. Supra-eruption was found in 93% of subjects’ unopposed teeth
b. Supra-eruption was more prevalent in the maxillary arch.
c. The mean supra-eruption for subjects was 1.68 mm (SD 0.79 range 0 to 3.99 mm)
d. Attachment loss was the main predictor of supra eruption

A

d. Attachment loss was the main predictor of supra eruption

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69
Q

Assuming roots are long and bone supports are good. To make a successful restoration on these endodontically treated teeth #28, 29, 30, all of following should be considered EXCEPT:

a. Surgical crown lengthening
b. Making sure that the post is as long as possible while 4-5 mm apical seal is maintained
c. Creating a maximum Ferrule effect without violating biologic width.
d. Preparing crown margin down to the bone level
e. None of the above

A

d. Preparing crown margin down to the bone level

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70
Q

Surgical crown lengthening (SCL) serves two main purposes: to ensure the crown is not placed too far below the gum line, which would compromise the biologic width, and to provide adequate support for the crown.

T/F: This procedure may involve the removal of both soft tissues and bone.

A

true

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71
Q

The decision of restoring #6, 7, 8, 9, 10 with a cast dowel and core was made. All of the following is an appropriate technique EXCEPT:

a. Impression of multiple canals from multiple teeth is made.
b. Crown margins are prepared before the canal preparation to preserve maximum Ferrule structure by being conservative during canal preparation
c. Direct patterns of multiple teeth should be fabricated in patient’s mouth
d. The technique that consumes less clinic time should be used
e. None of the above

A

c. Direct patterns of multiple teeth should be fabricated in patient’s mouth

When restoring several adjacent front teeth using multiple cast dowel cores, it is advisable to prepare the crown margins prior to the canal preparations. This approach helps preserve the maximum Ferrule structure by exercising caution during the canal preparation process. It is possible to create impressions of multiple canals for different teeth. The choice between direct and indirect techniques should be based on which method requires less time in the dental clinic.

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72
Q

Indications for ______ post and core include: significant crown structure loss but sufficient root canal filling. Minimal to moderate esthetic requirements. Straight root canal without curvature.

A

direct

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73
Q

Post Space Preparation: Leave at least ____mm of apical gutta-percha for sealing. Use a post drill compatible with the selected post system.

A

4-5mm

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74
Q

What type of post is desired due to esthetics and stress distribution?

A

fiber post

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75
Q

What material is commonly used for direct core build-up?

A

composite resin

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76
Q

Maintain ____mm ferrule height for retention and resistance.

A

1.5-2mm

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77
Q

What is the most important factor in tooth survival between teeth with fiber posts and without fiber posts?

a. 4 coronal walls
b. 3 coronal walls
c. 2 coronal walls
d. 1 coronal wall
e. ferrule effect
f. no ferrule

A

e. ferrule effect

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78
Q

Avoid excessive root dentin removal to prevent _______.

A

fracture

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79
Q

Indication for ______ post and core include extensive crown and root destruction. Esthetic and functional demands (e.g., anterior teeth in visible zones). Curved or irregular root canals.

A

indirect post and core

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80
Q

Post space preparation for indirect post and core are similar for direct post but adapt space for ______.

A

impression taking

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81
Q

For a long term success for indirect post and core, use a ______ fitting, _____-surfaced, _____ cast D & C with adequate root dentin thickness and 4-5 mm of GP apical seal.

A

passively, rough, long

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82
Q

To ensure the strongest connection of all parts when cementing an indirect (D&C) metal post, use a _____ cement (Rely x Unicem) for cast D & C into the canal space and use _____ type cements for a crown on top of cast D & C.

A

self-adhesive resin, resin

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83
Q

For posts, the post length should be _____.

Post Width should be ______.

Dentin Thickness should be ______.

A
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84
Q

Which of the following statements in INCORRECT in regards to the post on #29?

a. It is a metal prefabricated post X
b. Canal preparation is adequate in width
c. Looking at the bone loss at the distal of #29, 2-3mm longer canal preparation might have been better
d. There is a concern for the Gutta Percha apical seal.
e. None of the above

A

b. Canal preparation is adequate in width

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85
Q

Diagram of Evidence-Based Dentistry defined by ADA

It is an approach to oral health care that requires the judicious integration of systematic assessments of clinically relevant scientific evidence, relating to the patient’s oral and medical condition and history with dentist’s clinical expertise and the patient’s treatment needs and preferences.

a. True
b. False.

A

a. True

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86
Q
A
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87
Q

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

a. Treatment recommendations should be determined for each patient by his or her dentist.
b. Patient preferences should be considered in all decision
c. EBD does not provide a “cookbook” that dentists must follow nor does it establish a standard.
d. Dentist experience and other circumstances, such as patients’ characteristics, should also be
considered in treatment planning
e. None of the above

A

e. None of the above

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88
Q

According to Perdigao’s Cementation Guide table, Lithium Disilicate ceramic crown is cemented to the tooth with conventional dual-cured cement (Rely x Ultimate), its chance for fracture decreases, compared to cementation with self-cured dual resin cement (Rely x Unicem 2):

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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89
Q

For porcelain fused to metal and gold crowns, the most frequently utilized cement is …

A

RMGIC

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90
Q

Which of the following is the incorrect statement regarding conventional dual-cured resin cement (Rely x Ultimate) and light-cured resin cement (Rely x Veneer)?

a. The porcelain veneer is thicker than 0.75mm, using light-cured resin cement can be dangerous due to incomplete curing of the resin cement.
b. The advantage of using light-cured resin cement over the dual-cured resin cement is that its long-term cement color stability is superior to dual-cured resin cement.
c. Light-cured resin cement is contraindicated for PFM crown or Zirconia crown.
d. Light-cured resin cement comes with try-in pastes and matching cements to that the most adequate shade of the cement can be selected for a final veneer cementation
e. None of the above

A

e. None of the above

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91
Q

RMGIC is most commonly used cement for FGC and PFM.

a. true
b. false

A

a. true

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92
Q

Which of the following statement is incorrect?

a. Primers condition the intaglio surface of restorations so that stronger bond is achieved.
b. Microsandblasting with Aluminum oxide less than 50 micro in 30 psi (2-bar) will increase the retention of Zirconia crown when used with Rely x Unicem 2.
c. Phosphoric acid side of phosphoric acid methacrylate interacts (improves bonding) Zirconia crown
d. Methacrylate side of phosphoric acid methacrylate interactions with resin cements.
e. If you need a maximum retention, 35% phosphoric acid gel (blue) can be applied for 15 seconds inside of sandblasted zirconia crown before Monobond plus is applied

A

e. If you need a maximum retention, 35% phosphoric acid gel (blue) can be applied for 15 seconds inside of sandblasted zirconia crown before Monobond plus is applied

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93
Q

Which of the following is true about zirconia, except:

Made up of Yttrium
b. Can increase mechanical retention by oxide
c. Can increase bond by placing HF
d. Can increase bond by adding primer

A

c. Can increase bond by placing HF

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94
Q

According to 2018 cementation guideline by Dr. Hodd and Seong, the choice of cementation for fiber post is dual-cure self-adhesive resin cement

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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95
Q

What is the incorrect statement regarding cementation of posts?

a. No treatment is necessary on fiber post before the cementation. Just alcohol wipe and dry should be suffice
b. If a Cast D & C needs more retention, a microsandblasting with aluminum oxide less than 50 micron can be done. Steam it off and all dry it for a cementation.
c. A choice of cement for cast D & C is dual cure self-adhesive resin cement
d. None of the above

A

d. None of the above

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96
Q

Picture of missing #8 and #9 with wide space missing, plan for implant:

Which of the following is the most important step in order to evaluate esthetics and space needed?

a. Diagnostic cast
b. Panoramic x-ray
c. Diagnostic wax up

A

c. Diagnostic wax up

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97
Q

Patient wishes to have implants placed in the posterior maxillary area, which has a lot of bone resorption. Would you place single implant crowns or splint them?

A

As maxillary bone resorption advances, the bone available for implant placement is often palatal to the original position of natural tooth. Crossbite relationship of implant restoration is common finding in this situation. Oral hygiene is often difficult for the patient. Separate single restorations are recommended over splinted restorations for less future mechanical complications

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98
Q

Interocclusal space provided is 10-12mm. Enough for cement retained abutment?

A

Yes, (COC needs at least 5mm of interocclusal space)

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99
Q

Which of the following is true about the bridge?
a. PFM
b. Gold

A

b. gold

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100
Q

Picture of a FGC FPD rx, asked which material? Asked if it can be used for survey crown?

A
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101
Q

2 implants with 4mm diameter #29 and #30:

A to B: 3.5mm (between implant #29 and mesial to #28 natural tooth)

B to C: 7mm (between implants #29 and #30)

If diameter of implant is 4mm, what should be the distance from center of 1 implant to center
of 1 implant if you’re restore #13 and #14?

A

7mm

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102
Q

Between implants & natural tooth: ___mm

A

1.5

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103
Q

Between 2 implants: __mm

A

3

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104
Q

Rule for Pilot Drill Placement- When planning the pilot drill hole

A
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105
Q

Key considerations for accuracy when using a pilot drill for implant placement

A
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106
Q

Radiograph of an impression post with a radiopaque material on the mesial and distal (looks like a zirconia abutment) radiopaque – looks like open-tray technique impression post, answer choice is:

a. calculus
b. residual cement
c. resin
d. none of the above

A

c. resin

The arrowed part is resin which can be used for capturing the soft tissue emergence around the implant.

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107
Q

The centric contact on an implant crown should be adjusted to be approximately _____μm lighter than that of adjacent natural teeth. This can be verified by ensuring shimstock paper _______ on the implant restoration while being firmly held by the adjacent teeth during a bite.

T/F: If the patient exhibits no clinical symptoms at the delivery appointment, a recall check is not necessary.

To minimize biomechanical complications or failures, a _____ occlusal scheme may be implemented.

A

10-30um, drags lightly

False: Even if the patient exhibits no clinical symptoms at the delivery appointment, a recall check should be scheduled.

group function

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108
Q

Using a ______ to tighten the abutment screw significantly reduces the risk of screw loosening compared to hand-tightening.

A

torque wrench

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109
Q

Radiograph of an impression post with a radiopaque material on the mesial and distal (looks like a zirconia abutment) radiopaque: What type of impression technique is used?

A

Abutment-level, open-tray

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110
Q

Which one needs an opaque layer?

a. a only
b. b only
c. a and b
d. none

A

a. a only

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111
Q

Which one has metal substructure?

a. a only
b. b only
c. a and b
d. none

A

a. a only

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112
Q

Which one is more esthetic

a. a only
b. b only
c. a and b
d. none

A

b. b only (zirconia)

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113
Q

Which part (Silane vs methacrylate) bonds to the crown?

A

silane

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114
Q

Which part (Silane vs methacrylate) bonds to resin cement?

A

methacrylate

115
Q

T/F: The silane part of silane metacrylate bonds to the zirconia ceramic crowns.

A

false

116
Q

T/F: primer is used in pre-doc (Primer has both silane and methacrylate mixed)

A

true

117
Q

While recording impression for implant/abutment, tissue blanching did not go away for 10 minutes – what can be done about this? COC #7 abutment (UCLA) blanched tissue around the abutment.

a. Place 2 releasing incisions on the mesialBu and distalBu of the implant.
b. Place 1 incision at the direct facial
c. Do nothing, over time the tissue will stretch

A

a. Place 2 releasing incisions on the mesialBu and distalBu of the implant.

From Dr. V:
Delivering anatomical custom abutment can blanch the gingiva around the abutments (this is normal), however If it does not subside in more than 10 minutes, it is better to redesign the abutment with a narrower profile so the tissue does not stretch as much, rather than making releasing incisions.

118
Q

Placement of implants should be in the _____ of the ridge in the mesio-distal dimension to avoid complications.

A

middle

119
Q

Off-center implant placement can cause:

a. screw loosening or fracture
b. affect emergency profile
c. black triangles
d. difficulty achieving interproximal contacts
e. increase risk of cement retention
f. hygiene complications and peri-implantitis
g. all of the above

A

all of the above

120
Q

Implant Placement Depth - If the implant platform is placed too far below the bone crest, the abutment may encounter interference with the _____ during seating.

A

surrounding bone

121
Q

Management strategies for deep implant placements

A
122
Q

Inability to seat implant abutments due to deep implant placements

A
123
Q

What are some reasons for bone loss around anterior implant restorations?

A

Peri- implantitis, shared incisal guidance, aggressive tooth brushing, and a buccal bone plate thinner than 1mm remaining after implant surgery.

124
Q

The primary method for evaluating peri-implant bone loss is through _____ assessment.

A

radiographic

125
Q

Acceptable bone loss is considered to be up to ____mm during the first year post-loading, followed by less than ___mm annually thereafter.

A

1.5, 0.2

126
Q

Implants are typically deemed successful if they exhibit less than ___mm of bone loss three years after loading.

A

2.0

127
Q

Dental implants can be affected by a destructive inflammatory condition known as peri-implantitis, which impacts both the soft and hard tissues surrounding the implant. This condition may be triggered by ….

A

periodontal pathogens or residual cement from the crown cementation procedure

128
Q

When excess cement remains at the interface between the implant and mucosa, it can result in a condition that causes symptoms such as bleeding during probing, resorption of alveolar bone, and in some instances, the formation of pus.

A

peri-implantitis

129
Q

To ensure complete cement removal, it is advised to _____ and utilize a cement with higher radiopacity.

A

take a post-cementation X-ray

130
Q

Zirconia, also known as zirconium oxide, possesses a Yttrium _____ zirconia polycrystal structure.

A

tetragonal

131
Q

In prosthodontic clinics, Zirconia crowns are often recommended over Lithium Disilicate crowns for posterior teeth due to their superior ______.

A

strength

132
Q

2 abutments provided: Identify the difference: (Picture was a bit difficult to see)

a. Emergence profile of A is more than B
b. Cuff height of A is less than B
c. Platform diameter of A is less than B
d. All of the above

A
133
Q
A
134
Q

Definition of periimplantitis

A

Know that it may be caused by bacteria, heavy pre-load, etc.

135
Q

What is the most likely reason for #9?

a. <1mm buccal plate after surgery
b. Bruxism
c. Peri-implantitis

A

a. <1mm buccal plate after surgery

136
Q

Rx of #8 and #9 temporary immediate restoration. #8 is seated and had screws in the implant. #9 didn’t seat, but didn’t look like it had any screws. It asked why?

a. If #9 screwed all the way down, will be like #8
b. #9 with heavy proximal contact

A

b. #9 with heavy proximal contact

137
Q

Failing implant shown with interproximal bone resorption. Pictures provided every year for the implant. Which is correct? (Compared 2005 image vs 2007 image. Implant was placed on 2004. The 2005 image shows that the bone is right at the first thread, then 2007, there was a vertical bone loss. Know basic periimplantitis and cause of it. Also know that the first year, bone loss to first thread is normal.)

a. Resorption till first thread in the implant in the first year is not normal (False)
b. A cause of failing implant could be overloading the implant.

A

b. A cause of failing implant could be overloading the implant.

138
Q

Know component of implants: conical seal, platform, cuff height, comparison of 2 abutment which has wider emergence profile, which has higher cuff height.

a. Cuff height determination is dependent mainly on the thickness of soft tissue surrounding the implant

A
139
Q

Definition of emergence profile

a. axial contour that extends from the base of the gingival sulcus ending at the free gingival margin
b. axial contour that extends from the base of the gingival sulcus past the free gingival margin and continuous to the height of contour

A

b. axial contour that extends from the base of the gingival sulcus past the free gingival margin and continuous to the height of contour

140
Q

Observe the green-shaded area at the left, disto-lingual posterior border of the mandibular denture. Please choose the correct statement(s)

A. The distal extension of the shaded area would be captured during border molding by asking the patient to keep the tongue in a retruded position.
B. The anatomical location that this shaded denture border would occupy in the mouth is described as the “Masseteric Notch”
C. A symptom of over-extension of this border would be the patient reporting “When I have my denture in, it hurts when I swallow”

A

C. A symptom of over-extension of this border would be the patient reporting “When I have my denture in, it hurts when I swallow”

141
Q

Observe the black-shaded area at the lingual border of the mandibular denture. Please choose the correct statement(s)
a. It is the Alveolingual sulcus
b. …
c. The patient is asked to protrude their tongue and touch the custom tray handle to border mold
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

142
Q

Observe the maxillary complete denture. The pattern of occlusal contacts (marked in blue) are ind-icative of: -
A. Ideal centric contacts for a bilateral balanced, fully anatomical posterior denture occlusal scheme.
B. Ideal centric contacts for a lingualized occlusal scheme with anatomical maxillary posterior opposing
mandibular zero degree posteriors.
C. Both A and B are correct
D. None of the above

A

B. Ideal centric contacts for a lingualized occlusal scheme with anatomical maxillary posterior opposing

143
Q

Observe the maxillary SBOR. Assume the SBOR was sent to you from a commercial laboratory. Choose the correct statement(s):

A. The height of the posterior occlusion rim (indicated with the blue arrow) should be a standard measurement intended to provide you with a starting point
B. The height of the anterior occlusion rim will be adjusted with the patient to provide the desired amount of “show”
C. The facial lingual width of the anterior rim appears properly contoured D. A and B are correct
E. All of the above

A

C. The facial lingual width of the anterior rim appears properly contoured D. A and B are correct

144
Q

Observe the maxillary SBOR. For the SBOR, choose the correct statement(s) from the following:
A. The straight, vertical, indent inscribed in the occlusion rim and encircled by two blue lines is characteristic of the technique to transfer the location of a patient’s esthetic facial midline to the denture tooth arrangement.

B. The straight indentations inscribed on each buccal side of the occlusal rim and encircled by one black line are characteristic of the technique of determining the width of the six anteriors on a curve.
C. The location of the lines in item B are determined using the position of the patient’s mental foramen on each side of the mandible D. A and B
E. A, B, and C

A

D. A and B

145
Q

Concerning an occlusal splint,-please choose the correct statement(s):
A. When mounting casts for the fabrication of an occlusal splint, the mandibular cast should always be centric relation position (CR).
B. When a patient is wearing an occlusal splint, a concurrent disadvantage is an opening of the VDO.
C. When fabricating an occlusal splint, there must be accommodation for the arc of closure which will result in the inciso-gingival thickness of the splint being greater in the anterior than in the posterior.
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

146
Q

Another question of this picture, which of the following is true, EXCEPT:

a. anteriors should not be touching, setting up like complete dentures
b.
c. CO is consistent with MIP
d. All of the above is correct

A

d. All of the above is correct

147
Q

Picture of lower ridge that had recent extraction of the anterior:

a. Recommends healing before starting CD
b. May need alveoloplasty to remove huge undercut
c. treatment plan: interim CD transitional to CD
d. all of the above is true

A

d. all of the above is true

148
Q

Regarding the pictured impression of an edentulous patient during treatment for a complete denture, please choose the correct statement(s):

A. The imprint displays no positive distortions that would render it unacceptable.
B. The imprint displays no negative voids, creases, or material interruptions that would render it unacceptable.
c. The imprint displays acceptable anatomical accuracy at the rugae area.
d. All of the above.

A

d. All of the above.

149
Q

Regarding “Mizzy” Pressure Indicating Paste (PIP) used during the insertion and adjustment of complete denture. Please choose the correct statement(s).

A. Mizzy Pressure Indicating Paste (PIP) is used to evaluate the location of functional tissue contacts.
B. “Mizzy” Spray is applied to the PIP before seating the denture.
C. PIP will aid the operator to perform appropriate adjustments that will direct occlusal pressures onto primary and secondary stress bearing areas and help prevent excessive pressures over relief and
peripheral tissues.
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

150
Q

Picture of PIP Paste on Mandibular complete denture intaglio surface with pressure indicative on (Picture shows pressures on primary stress areas, i.e. RMP, buccal shelf, and alveolar ridge):

a. RMP
B. Left and right buccal shelf
c. Alveolar ridge
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

151
Q

Observe the Dentsply Truebyte set of six “Portrait” anterior denture teeth. From the Dentsply information that is provided with a mold guide, which face form are these denture teeth:

A. Square
B. Square Tapering
C. Square Ovoid
D. Tapering
E. None of the above

A

A. Square

152
Q

A question on this, just know that the Width of the six-anteriors is based on the measurement from _______, not infraorbital foramen. It is also NOT based on the shape of the mold.

A

ala of the nose

a. Answer: “12E” is specific shape and size.

153
Q

Observe the two maxillary complete dentures. Each denture has a -different number of posterior teeth. Choose the correct statement(s):

A. Whenever a denture is fabricated with less denture teeth than the number of natural teeth, the patient must be informed of the fact – and why there are less denture teeth.
B. The definitive factor that determines the most posterior maxillary denture tooth is the requirement of having the last maxillary denture tooth slightly distal than the opposing mandibular tooth.
C. All of the above
D. None of the above

A

C. All of the above

154
Q

Observe the immediate Complete Denture master cast. Please choose the correct statement(s):

A. Periodontal probing depths and current radiographs would be necessary to make an estimation of tissue height following extraction.
B. The position, angulation, rotation, drift, and super-eruption of the remaining teeth will make the
choice of denture teeth more challenging and the esthetic outcome unpredictable.
C. During treatment plan discussions for a patient with such advanced oral problems, the option of an immediate denture should be discouraged or not even included
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

155
Q

Observe the preliminary cast and custom tray. Please choose the correct statement(s): A. The wax on the cast at the white arrows is most likely relief wax.
B. The size of the handle should not interfere with border molding
C. The wax on the cast at the blue arrows is most likely blockout wax.
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

156
Q

Observe the maxillary custom impression for a complete denture. Please choose the correct statement(s):

A. There are evidence that the midline resin (along the mid-palatal suture) of the processed denture have to be relieved
B. There is evidence that the rugae were compressed during the procedure.
C. There is evidence that the incisive papilla was compressed during the procedure.
D. All of the above.

A

D. All of the above.

157
Q

Consider this two-implant retained mandibular complete denture – and assuming the anterior occlusion is at the correct height to the alveolar ridge crest – please choose the correct statement(s):

A. The metal housing on #22 is showing through acrylic resin of the processed denture (marked green) which in-
alveoloplasty was necessary.
B. #27 implant was placed at a height position that provided adequate vertical space for the metal housing and denture acrylic resin.
C. An advantage of a “Locator” attachment system compared to a “Ball O-Ring” style of attachment dictates that the implant at #22 should have been placed at a lower level to the crest - even if need for less vertical space (with the Locator).
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

158
Q

Based on the image above, what is the left and right image?

A

Left: locator abutment
Right: locator impression coping

159
Q

For an ideal class one -maxilla-m-andibular relation, complete denture occlusion – when the condyles are in centric relation - should provide:

A. Bilateral, simultaneous,
B. Posterior contact at the patient’s natural vertical dimension of occlusion.
posterior functional contacts.
C. Bilateral, simultaneous anterior functional contacts
D. Both A and B are correct
E. None of the above

A

D. Both A and B are correct

160
Q

Observe the Mandibular RPD metal framework seated on the cast. Please choose the correct statement(s):
A. The superior border of the lingual bar major connector appears to extend too close to the gingival margin at some of the anterior teeth.
B. The rests on both right and left first premolars (#’s 21 & 28) provide indirect retention.
C. The four clasps are defined as infrabulge style X
D. A and B are correct
E. A, B, and C are correct

A

A. The superior border of the lingual bar major connector appears to extend too close to the gingival margin at some of the anterior teeth.

161
Q

2 questions on palatal plate major connector (Know what it looks like, and how far it can extend posteriorly)

A

PPS, vibrating line

162
Q

What kind of major connector is this?

A

A-P strap

163
Q

The processed RPD was designed for the K-en-nedy class II, Mod 1 – partially edentulous arch. Please
choose the correct statement(s):

A. The infrabulge, bar style retentive arm (white arrow) is indicated when a distal occlusal rest (red arrow) placed on the left terminal abutment (#21)

B. Assuming that there had been an adequate undercut present on the mesio buccal side of the left abutment (#21) an Akers-style clasp with a cast circumferential retentive arm would be the design of choice.
C. The Akers clasp on the right terminal abutment #31 (blue arrows) is an acceptable clasp for the tooth-supported side of the RPD
D. None of the above

A

C. The Akers clasp on the right terminal abutment #31 (blue arrows) is an acceptable clasp for the tooth-supported side of the RPD

164
Q

Name the primary and secondary indirect retainer for this Kennedy class I partially edentulous scenario. Please choose the correct combination:

A. Primary: Linguoplate, secondary: MO rest on #29
B. Primary: MO rest on #28, secondary: Linguoplate
C. Primary: MO rest on #29, secondary: MO rest on #28

A

B. Primary: MO rest on #28, secondary: Linguoplate

165
Q

Observe the two diagnostic casts. Which combination is the correct Kennedy classification for the partially edentulous scenarios (cast 1 & 2):
For cast 1): #18 will be replaced with an RPD

A. 1) Kennedy III mod 2 – 2) Kennedy IV.
B. 1) Kennedy II mod 4 – 2) Kennedy I
C. 1) Kennedy II mod 3 – 2) Kennedy IV
D. 1) Kennedy III Mod II – 2) Kennedy III mod 1.

A

C. 1) Kennedy II mod 3 – 2) Kennedy IV

166
Q

There are two main methods to preserve a chosen path of insertion for a surveyed crown working cast: an RPD master cast: Vertical parallel Lines on the cast base – or – “Tripod” marks. Considering these methods, please choose the correct statement(s):
A. The Tripod method allows the analyzing rod to be moved to different vertical height on three areas of the cast
B. If using the Parallel Vertical Lines method, lines must be made while maintaining the tip of the analyzing rod at the same vertical height – for each marking
C. If a survey crown’s working cast went to a commercial lab with parallel vertical lines or Tripod marks would not be necessary to check the contours of the survey crown before cementation.
D. None of the above

A

D. None of the above

167
Q
  1. Regarding the altered cast impression procedure, choose the correct statement(s):
    A. The altered cast impression procedure is intended to correct for discrepancies in master casts that can result from differing tissue responses to different impression materials.
    B. The altered cast impression procedure is intended to combine the functional soft tissue support with the abutment tooth support to their maximum integrated advantage.
    C. The altered cast impression is indicated for both unilateral and bilateral distal extension removable partial denture
    D. All of the above
A

D. All of the above

168
Q
  1. Observe the pictured cast. The area on the patient’s left that is indicated by the green crosshatched marking is most likely described as:

A. The Buccal frenum
B. The posterior buccal vestibule
C. The retro-mylohyoid space.
D. The masseteric notch
E. None the above

A

E. None the above

169
Q

Same question, but there was an answer choice: Buccal shelf and masseteric influence as answer choice. What is the answer?

A

buccal shelf

170
Q

Observe the lines on the complete denture master cast and the SBOR seated on the same cast. Please choose the correct statement(s):
A. The green lines could represent the beginning of the ascending mandible which would indicate the most distal extent for the placement of mandibular denture teeth.
B. The black lines could represent the anterior/posterior middle of the retromolar pad which would be to estimate the height of the posterior plane of occlusion.
C. The red lines could represent the projected bucco-lingual middle of the posterior denture support are… which the bucco-lingual center of the posterior denture should be located.
D. The lines are extended onto the land area of the cast to enable the locations they represent – to be when the SBOR is on the cast.
E. All of the above

A

E. All of the above

171
Q

Observe the GREEN -highlighted border on the maxillary complete denture (anterior). Please choose the correct statement that best completes the following: To border mold..
A. Elevate and extend the lip out, downward, and inward
B. Ask the patient to remain as motionless as possible during the molding of the border.
C. Ask the patient to extend the tongue outward, up, and over the upper lip.

A

A. Elevate and extend the lip out, downward, and inward

172
Q

Question on border molding of the posterior periphery for CD:
a. In order to capture the posterior extension, have the patient hold their nose and ask the patient to blow through their nose
b.
c. Both are correct

A

c. Both are correct

173
Q

Question on border molding buccal frenum
a. Have the patient pucker and purse their lips
b. Reflect their cheeks outward, downward, inward
c. a and b

A

b. Reflect their cheeks outward, downward, inward

174
Q

Observe the “card” of Trubyte Portrait maxillary anterior denture teeth. Please choose the correct statement:
A. The “mold” number is 12E and denotes the desired “face shape”, proportion/contour, and a mm range of width of the six anterior denture teeth on a curve (width between the distal surfaces of the canines)
B. The “mold” number is A2 and denotes the desired “face shape”, proportion/contour, and a mm range of width of the six anterior denture teeth on a curve (width between the distal surfaces of the canines)
C. The shade is not included on the card and must be determined with a “Portrait” (Dentsply) shade guide.
D. None of the above

A

A. The “mold” number is 12E and denotes the desired “face shape”, proportion/contour, and a mm range of width of the six anterior denture teeth on a curve (width between the distal surfaces of the canines)

175
Q

Observe the denture set up on the articulator. Please choose the statement that best completes the following: The set up:
A. Is a “Lingualized” posterior occlusal scheme.
B. Follows the “Neutrocentric” concept of having a flat occlusal plane.
C. Both A and B statements are correct
D. Neither statement is correct because the posterior occlusal scheme more closely follows the concepts of Anatomical Bilateral Balance.

A

C. Both A and B statements are correct

176
Q

Choose the correct statement(s) that apply to the circled component.
A. Serves as a secondary source of indirect retention to resist the rotation that is possible with tooth and tissue support.
B. The circled area is a portion of the Linguoplate major connector.
C. A distinct disadvantage of the component is the amount of tissue it covers with metal.
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

177
Q

Know why you want to plate a tooth that is mobile
a. may need to come out in the future and be able to have better retention of replacement denture tooth

A
178
Q

What is the Kennedy classification of this patient’s tooth loss is

A. Class I, mod 3.
B. Class II, mod 3.
C. Class III, mod 1.
D. Class IV.
E. None the above

A

E. None the above

179
Q

What is the Kennedy classification of this patient’s tooth loss is (Teeth #’s 18, 19, 20, 21, 29, & 30 are being replaced):
A. Class I, mod. 1.
B. Class II, mod. 1.
C. Class III, mod. 1.
D. Class IV, mod. 1.

A

B. Class II, mod. 1.

180
Q

Observe the RPD framework. Please choose the correct statement(s) (Teeth #’s 9, 10, 11, & 14 are being replaced).
A. The Kennedy Classification of this patient’s tooth loss is Class IV, mod 1
B. The major connector is a full palatal plate
C. The loss of tooth #11 will make it necessary to develop any left lateral disclussion protection on the posterior teeth.
D. None the above

A

C. The loss of tooth #11 will make it necessary to develop any left lateral disclussion protection on the posterior teeth.

181
Q

Choose the correct statement(s) that apply to the maxillary RPD design (Teeth # 3,4,5,6,11,12, & 13 are to be replaced):

A. The Kennedy Classification of this patient’s tooth loss is class III, mod 1.
B. The clasp assemblies on teeth #’s 7 and 10 are “Combination” style.
C. The lingual plating of the anterior teeth may serve to provide mechanical retention for a denture in the event of the loss of an anterior natural tooth.
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

182
Q

Observe the RED-highlighted border on the maxillary complete denture (the buccal flange and frenum) Please choose the most correct statement:
A. A portion of the patient’s contribution to the molding process is to “pucker” and “purse” the
B. A portion of the operator’s contribution to the molding process is to elevate the cheek, pull it outward, downward, and inward.
C. Both statements are correct

A

B. A portion of the operator’s contribution to the molding process is to elevate the cheek, pull it outward, downward, and inward.

183
Q

Observe the red-shaded AREA on the stimulated mandible. Please choose the statement that best completes the following: “The indicated area depicts the location of the..”:
A. Insertion of the pterygomandibular raphe
B. Retromylohyoid space
C. Insertion of the masseter muscle D. Location of the sublingual gland E. Hamular notch

A

B. Retromylohyoid space

184
Q

Final Impression of a complete denture- only “off” was a greenish color on the posterior portion of a greyish impression,.
a. Impression is not accurate
b. Voids (Didn’t have voids)
c. Positives (Didn’t see positives)
d. None of the above

A

d. None of the above

185
Q

A picture of a custom tray with notches at the buccal frenum. What is A?

A

Buccal frenum notch – Is made so that the provider can see the frenum attached to alveolar ridge

186
Q

A picture of a custom tray with notches at the buccal frenum. What is B?

A

Buccinator notch – Is made to activate muscles without interference

187
Q

(Different picture, but similar concept, it asked the area “A”, but it seems to be located a bit more posteriorly and anteriorly) The area “A”:
a. Includes the Pterygomandibular raphe, approaching near the buccal frenum area

A
188
Q

A picture of an upper SBOR with wax indentation that is straight and has undercut (obviously bad error)
a. Will be able to obtain CR record with these indentation
b. Will NOT be able to obtain CR record

A

b. Will NOT be able to obtain CR record

189
Q

4 questions on a rest seat (Pretty obvious errors)
- First question: Occlusal rest is small and did not flare out with sharp edges
- Second question: Occlusal rest was WAY too big and sharp edges
- Third question: Cingulum rest located too incisal and had sharp edges(didn’t include the
cingulum on the preparation, also know that if the rest is located too incisal, it can put more
stress on the tooth)
- Fourth question: Cingulum rest without the inverted “V” shape, it was flat.

A
190
Q

Upper CD, lowers have #18,21-27. Missing #19,20, 28-31.
1. Know Tripodization (Can’t move the pin up/down, gotta stay at the same vertical height)
2. Know the Line record (You can move the pin vertically for third, it should not have multiple lines
on each side of the cast)
3. Know how to survey, etc. again, basic questions on survey lines, guide planes, red dot means
undercut area, 0.25mm = 0.01in, tissue undercut record (use a graphite marker), when measuring undercut for an I-bar you can move the undercut slightly mesial

A
191
Q

Gingivally approaching clasps are also called _____ clasps. I bar is an example of infra-bulge clasp/ direct retainer. I-bar is more ____ than a round wire. An occlusal ____ can also act as an indirect retainer. Be able to identify the different major connectors of RPD for mandibular and maxillary RPD dentures.

A

infra-bulge, rigid, rest

192
Q

Following the loss of a natural tooth, this method creates a space for mechanical retention to secure the denture tooth. However, it contradicts the principle of minimizing tooth structure coverage. In cases where a lingual bar cannot be constructed to achieve the desired thickness and rigidity, this major connector can offer sufficient metal bulk to withstand bending forces.

A

Lingual plate major connector.

193
Q

This major connector covers the complete palate. The framework’s rear edge should not extend beyond the point where the hard and soft palates meet. It should not encroach upon the soft palate. At the midline, the rear edge should form a 90-degree angle.

A

complete palatal coverage

194
Q

Compared to alternative designs such as plate or AP strap, this framework’s flexibility may allow sideways bending under biting forces, potentially exerting lateral pressure on supporting teeth. When subjected to occlusal stress, the structure might compress the tissue beneath it. Increasing the framework’s thickness to improve stiffness could potentially interfere with speech by affecting tongue-palate contact areas.

A

horseshoe shaped major connector

195
Q

When creating any type of interim removable partial denture (RPD), it is important to survey the diagnostic cast to determine the insertion path and contour heights. The process of seating an interim RPD can be challenging due to denture acrylic filling in the embrasures and tooth and tissue undercuts during fabrication. A key distinction between cast metal RPDs and interim RPDs is that the latter rely solely on….

A

tissue support, without rests on abutment teeth.

196
Q

T/F: An incisal rest seat is favored over a cingulum rest because it is positioned nearer to the abutment’s horizontal axis of rotation (tipping axis).

A

False

A cingulum rest seat is favored over an incisal rest because it is positioned nearer to the abutment’s horizontal axis of rotation (tipping axis).

197
Q

A posterior spoon rest seat dimension should be:

Mesiodistal Width: Approximately ____ to ____ the mesiodistal width of the tooth.

Buccolingual Width: About _____ the buccolingual width of the tooth at the marginal ridge.

At the Marginal Ridge: ____ mm deep to accommodate the thickness of the metal framework.

Deeper Toward the Center: Gradually deepens toward the ______ fossa to create a spoon- shaped contour, ensuring the rest does not interfere with the opposing occlusion.

Marginal Ridge Reduction: Reduced by approximately _____ mm to allow proper thickness of the rest and the metal framework.

A

Mesiodistal Width: Approximately ____ to ____ the mesiodistal width of the tooth.

Buccolingual Width: About 1/2 the buccolingual width of the tooth at the marginal ridge.

At the Marginal Ridge: 1.5 mm deep to accommodate the thickness of the metal framework.

Deeper Toward the Center: Gradually deepens toward the central fossa to create a spoon- shaped contour, ensuring the rest does not interfere with the opposing occlusion.

Marginal Ridge Reduction: Reduced by approximately 1.5 mm to allow proper thickness of the rest and the metal framework.

198
Q

T/F: Floor of the Rest Seat should be Concave or Spoon-Shaped so that the floor slopes gently toward the center of the tooth to avoid sharp angles and distribute forces effectively.

A

true

199
Q

The floor of the rest seat should be inclined less than ___° to the long axis of the tooth. This ensures that occlusal forces are directed along the long axis, reducing the risk of tipping or harmful lateral forces.

A

90

200
Q

The outline of the spoon rest of an RPD should be what shape?

A

rounded triangular or oval

201
Q

Directs occlusal forces along the ________ of the abutment tooth to maintain periodontal health.

A

long axis

202
Q

What ensures proper seating of the framework without interfering with occlusion?

a. support
b. stability
c. retention
d. preservation
e. compatibility with framework

A

c. retention

203
Q

Prevents horizontal movement of the prosthesis during function.

a. support
b. stability
c. retention
d. preservation
e. compatibility with framework

A

b. stability

204
Q

Minimizes the risk of tooth fracture or damage by maintaining adequate tooth structure.

a. support
b. stability
c. retention
d. preservation
e. compatibility with framework

A

d. preservation

205
Q

Accommodates the necessary thickness of the rest and ensures a passive fit of the RPD.

a. support
b. stability
c. retention
d. preservation
e. compatibility with framework

A

e. compatibility with framework

206
Q

The first step in designing a RPD is …

A

surveying the cast

207
Q

When surveying the dental cast, the direction of insertion and removal determines the extent of natural undercut available on the selected abutments. This path is chosen to ensure that the retentive components of the clasp assemblies can withstand dislodgement during use. The insertion path should be as close to ______ to the occlusal plane as possible, while still providing sufficient undercuts and guiding planes.

A

perpendicular

208
Q

At the initial cast survey, the analyzing rod is used to identify or change the tilt in the _____ direction only in order to establish the best path of insertion with the least amount of guiding plane tooth reduction.

A

anterior-posterior

209
Q

There is a slight amount of leeway (approximately ___ degree) with the path relative to the plane of occlusion because the plane of occlusion is actually curved due to the curves of Spee and Wilson when surveying the cast. The tilt can be changed to any angle that will provide the desired undercuts. After identifying the tilt of the cast, the height of contour (survey lines) on the abutment teeth of the Dx cast are identified using the graphite marker.

A

10

210
Q

T/F: The instrument for identifying undercuts locates the desired undercut on the tooth serving as an abutment. The specific undercut position for a particular gauge is determined by the point where both the horizontal lip and vertical shaft of the gauge make contact with the abutment tooth. Typically, a red dot is used on the cast to mark the preferred undercut location.

A

true

211
Q

Which of the following helps record the condylar inclination?
a. Protrusive record
b. Left and right excursive record

A

a. Protrusive record

212
Q

Surveying – ___ degrees maximum

A

10

213
Q

In normal occlusion functional cusps include, the maxillary _____ cusps of the posterior teeth and the mandibular _____ cusps of the posterior teeth

A

palatal, buccal

214
Q

In a natural dentition with mutually protected occlusion, several characteristics are observed.

  1. Strong bilateral contacts exist between posterior teeth in the ____ position, while anterior teeth have slightly less pronounced contacts.
  2. During protrusive movements, ____ causes the posterior teeth to separate.
  3. Similarly, _____ leads to the disclusion of posterior teeth during lateral movements.
A
  1. centric
  2. incisal guidance
  3. canine guidance
215
Q

Which method of transferring condylar inclinations from a patient to an articulator involve obtaining a protrusive wax or resin record and use it to adjust the sagittal condylar inclination on the articulator and is commonly used?

A

protrusive record

216
Q

Which method of transferring condylar inclinations from a patient to an articulator involve capturing lateral movements to determine the Bennett angle and adjust the articulator accordingly?

A

lateral excursive records

217
Q

Which method of transferring condylar inclinations from a patient to an articulator involve transferring the orientation of the maxillary arch and the approximate condylar axis from the patient to the articulator?

A

facebow transfer

218
Q

Which method of transferring condylar inclinations from a patient to an articulator involve use a pantograph or similar device to record mandibular movements and transfer the condylar inclinations to the articulator and is rarely used?

A

direct measurement

219
Q

Which method of transferring condylar inclinations from a patient to an articulator involve setting the articulator to average values (e.g., 30° for sagittal condylar inclination and 15° for Bennett angle) when patient-specific records are unavailable (these methods vary in accuracy, with pantographs and protrusive records providing more precise patient-specific adjustments)?

A

arbitrary settings

220
Q

Using a Non-arcon articulator for the fabrication of a removable prosthesis, if the vertical dimension of occlusion (VDO) is opened after the casts are mounted, it will result in error at the ______ of the articulator. In addition, arc-of-closure error, the mandibular cast should be _____ at the new VDO using a clinical record.

A

horizontal condylar inclinations, remounted

221
Q

For individuals with severe periodontal disease who require full dentures, predicting the post-operative shape of the supporting tissues can be challenging. The natural teeth’s orientation, movement, and overgrowth complicate the selection of artificial teeth, necessitating patient education about potential aesthetic limitations. ______ and _____ are key factors indicating that, following the healing process, a new denture may need to be fabricated rather than simply applying a hard reline to the existing one.

A

Significant gum recession and tooth displacement

222
Q

T/F: When creating a denture with fewer teeth than the natural set, it is essential to inform the patient about this decision and explain the reasoning behind it. The positioning of the rearmost upper denture tooth is primarily determined by the need to place it slightly behind the last lower denture tooth.

A

true

223
Q

For the lower denture, the placement of the most posterior tooth is dictated by what?

A

the space available in front of the mandible’s ascending ramus

224
Q

Methods for Selecting Shape and Size of Anterior Maxillary Denture Teeth

A
225
Q

For dentures, which method has the definition of: measure the distance between the outer edges of the patient’s alae (nose wings).
Guidelines: This measurement is approximately equal to the combined width of the six anterior teeth on the occlusal plane.

A

Interalar Width Method

226
Q

For dentures, Phonetics: Evaluate “__” and “__” sounds for proper incisal edge positioning relative to the lower lip. Check “___” sounds to ensure adequate vertical overlap and spacing. Esthetics: Position and shape of the central incisors are critical for achieving a natural appearance.

A

F and V: incisal edge positioning
S: adequate vertical overlap and spacing

227
Q

For dentures, Wax Rim Measurements: Incisal Length: Adjust the wax rim so that the incisal edges of the maxillary teeth are visible about ____mm below the relaxed upper lip.

A

2-3

228
Q

For dentures, the golden Proportion (Esthetic Rule) is the width of the lateral incisor should be about _____% of the central incisor, and the canine width should be similar or slightly less than the lateral incisor.

A

60-70

229
Q

T/F: Age: Younger patients may require sharper and more prominent incisal edges, while older patients may need smoother and more worn teeth.

A

true

230
Q

Which gender require rounded and delicate denture teeth?

A

female

231
Q

Which gender require square and robust denture teeth?

A

male

232
Q

Distobuccal Arch of the mandibular complete denture and is influenced by the _____. And its over-extention can cause discomfort when the patient occludes.

A

masseter muscle

233
Q

Distobuccal corner (posterior buccal flange) of the maxillary complete denture includes the ______ and extends anteriorly to just short of the buccal frenum.

A

pterygomandibular raphe

234
Q

This part of the maxillary complete denture is molded in part by the operator extending the cheek outward, downward, and inward and having the patient open wide.

A

distobuccal corner (posterior buccal flange)

235
Q

Border molding in the ________ in the maxillary complete denture, patient’s contribution to the molding process is to “pucker” and “purse” the lips.

A

buccal flange and frenum area

236
Q

A portion of the operator’s contribution to the molding process of this area is to elevate the cheek and pull it outward, downward, and inward.

A

buccal flange and frenum area

237
Q

Border molding in the _____ area, requires elevation and extend the lip out, downward, and inward to activate the labial frenum.

A

anterior flange

238
Q

T/F: Border molding the anterior flange area require asking the patient to remain as motionless as possible during the molding of this border or Asking the patient to extend the tongue outward, up, and over the upper lip.

A

false

239
Q

T/F: Border molding in the maxillary post palatal seal area, the operator must ask the patient to pinch the nose closed while trying to blow air through the nose. This posterior border must extend to the patient’s vibrating line.

A

true

240
Q

What is the implant overdenture study by Kordatzis (2003) state?

A

A study by Kordatzis (2003) examined the difference between mandibular complete dentures supported by two implants and conventional mandibular dentures. The research revealed that over a five-year period, patients with implant-supported dentures experienced posterior mandibular ridge resorption of 0.69mm, while those with conventional complete dentures showed 1.63mm of resorption. Due to the superior retention of two-implant supported complete dentures compared to traditional mandibular complete dentures, patient satisfaction is notably higher with the implant-supported option. In 2002, the McGill consensus recommended that a mandibular denture retained by two implants should be considered the standard treatment for edentulous patients.

241
Q

In a clinical situation, a remount cast like the mandibular example would be mounted onto the articulator using a

a. CR record
b. facebow record
c. MIP
d. none of the above

A

a. CR record

242
Q

In a clinical situation, a remount cast like the maxillary where the occlusal scheme included eccentric contacts, would be mounted onto an articulator with…

a. CR record
b. facebow record
c. MIP
d. none of the above

A

b. facebow record

243
Q

Lingualized occlusal scheme utilizes maxillary anatomical posterior denture teeth opposing mandibular ____ degree posterior denture teeth.

a. 0 degree
b. 10 degree
c. 15 degree
d. 20 degree

A

a. 0 degree

244
Q

The dimensions of the mandibular occlusal rim typically follow standard guidelines, but they may vary slightly depending on the patient’s anatomical features. What are the general dimensions?

Anterior Height: ____ mm from the deepest point of the labial vestibule to the incisal edge.

Posterior Height: ___ the height of the retromolar pad or approximately ____ mm from the deepest point of the buccal vestibule.

Width:
Anterior: About ____ mm. Posterior: About _____ mm.

A

Anterior Height: 18–20 mm from the deepest point of the labial vestibule to the incisal edge.

Posterior Height: 2/3 the height of the retromolar pad or approximately 15–18 mm from the deepest point of the buccal vestibule.

Width:
Anterior: About 4–6 mm. Posterior: About 8–10 mm.

These dimensions are used as guidelines for fabricating a mandibular occlusal rim and can be adjusted based on individual patient anatomy, esthetic considerations, and functional needs.

245
Q

Normal extensions of the baseplate for complete denture fabrication for maxilla in the anterior

A

extend to cover the labial and buccal vestibules up to the mucogingival junction ensuring that the baseplate reaches but does not impinge on the movable tissues

246
Q

Normal extensions of the baseplate for complete denture fabrication for maxilla of the posterior

A

extend to the vibrating line (junction of the hard and soft palate) for a proper posterior palatal seal. This line is typically 2 mm anterior to the fovea palatini.

247
Q

Normal extensions of the baseplate for complete denture fabrication for maxilla of the lateral

A

Extend to include the buccal vestibule, reaching the maxillary tuberosities without overextension into the coronoid process pathway during functional movements.

248
Q

Normal extensions of the baseplate for complete denture fabrication for maxilla of the midline

A

Follow the midline of the hard palate, ensuring even thickness and proper adaptation.

249
Q

Normal extensions of the baseplate for complete denture fabrication for mandible of the anterior

A

Extend to cover the labial and buccal vestibules up to the mucogingival junction, similar to the maxilla, ensuring proper retention and stability

250
Q

Normal extensions of the baseplate for complete denture fabrication for mandible of the posterior

A

Extend to cover the retromolar pad entirely, without extending over the ascending ramus or into the pterygomandibular raphe.

251
Q

Normal extensions of the baseplate for complete denture fabrication for mandible of the lateral

A

Extend into the buccal shelf area for maximum support and stability while avoiding impingement on the buccinator muscle during function.

252
Q

Normal extensions of the baseplate for complete denture fabrication for mandible of the lingual

A

Extend to the lingual vestibule, up to but not beyond the mylohyoid ridge, ensuring proper adaptation without interference with the tongue or mylohyoid muscle movements.

253
Q

Normal extensions of the baseplate for complete denture fabrication for mandible of the sublingual area

A

Extend to the sublingual fold without impinging on the floor of the mouth or the lingual frenum.

254
Q

The baseplate wax of complete dentures are placed to:

a. protect fragile areas of the cast such as the frenum, mid palatine raphe and the incisive papilla
b. blockout and fill undercutss to prevent locking the baseplate onto the cast
c. to estimate what the final dentures will look like
d. all of the above
e. a and b

A

e. a and b

255
Q

T/F: For patients that need alveoloplasty, you can perform the alveoloplasty and wait until the patient is fully healed before denture fabrication, OR provide an interim CD with a planned definitive prosthesis to be fabricated after fully healing.

A

true

256
Q

Some important landmarks in the maxilla and mandibular edentulous arch are, Buccal shelf area, which serves as a ____ support tissue for a complete denture.

A

primary

257
Q

Disto-buccal Arch, which is the area of influence of the _____ Muscle.

A

Masseter

258
Q

The ____ muscle can limit the extension of the buccal flange of a mandibular denture. Overextension in this region can cause soreness or dislodgement due to the muscle’s activity.

A

masseter

259
Q

Located posterior to the _____ and near the _____, this area is compressed during masseter contraction. Proper shaping of the denture flange to accommodate this movement is critical for comfort and retention.

A

buccal shelf, RMP

260
Q

The posterior fibers of the masseter insert near the _____ and influence the stability and seating of mandibular dentures in this area.

A

retromolar pad

261
Q

The masseter exerts pressure on the _____ muscle, affecting the contour of the buccal vestibule during function.

A

buccinator

262
Q

T/F: Complete denture impressions with deep crevice depressions should be blockout along the midline of the palate with wax before an SBOR can be made with resin.

A

true

263
Q

T/F: To assist in positioning denture teeth within the occlusion rim, lines are extended from the alveolar ridges of the cast onto the surrounding land area. A solid line is drawn across the front portion of the cast, marking the furthest forward point of the mandibular ridge. It is beneficial to place at least part of the cervical base of the lower anterior denture teeth over this line.

A

true

264
Q

The primary structure of the facebow that extends around the patient’s face.

a. frame
b. bitefork
c. upright supports
d. condylar rods
e. nasion pointer
f. spring mechanism

A

a. frame

265
Q

A flat plate or fork used to hold an impression material (e.g., wax or bite registration material) to record the maxillary arch.

a. frame
b. bitefork
c. upright supports
d. condylar rods
e. nasion pointer
f. spring mechanism

A

b. bitefork

266
Q

Vertical rods or extensions that connect the bitefork to the frame.

a. frame
b. bitefork
c. upright supports
d. condylar rods
e. nasion pointer
f. spring mechanism

A

c. upright supports

267
Q

Extensions on either side of the frame that are positioned near the external auditory meatus to approximate the hinge axis. When the “Spring bow” ear tabs are positioned in the external meatus of the patient’s ears, the line projected between the tabs (red-dotted line in picture) is an arbitrary estimation of the patient’s “transverse hinge axis”.

a. frame
b. bitefork
c. upright supports
d. condylar rods
e. nasion pointer
f. spring mechanism

A

d. condylar rods

268
Q

A support or guide that stabilizes the frame against the nasion (bridge of the nose) for added accuracy.

a. frame
b. bitefork
c. upright supports
d. condylar rods
e. nasion pointer
f. spring mechanism

A

e. nasion pointer

269
Q

A tension-based system to stabilize the facebow during use.

a. frame
b. bitefork
c. upright supports
d. condylar rods
e. nasion pointer
f. spring mechanism

A

f. spring mechanism

270
Q

The Hanau spring records the Maxillomandibular Relationship by capturing the spatial orientation of the maxillary arch in relation to the _______ of the TMJ.

A

hinge axis

271
Q

Maxillary denture overextension of what part will cause the following problem:

Irritation of the labial mucosa. Denture instability due to interference with lip movement. Esthetic concerns from a bulky appearance.

a. labial flange
b. buccal flange
c. posterior palatal seal
d. palatal coverage

A

a. labial flange

272
Q

Maxillary denture overextension of what part will cause the following problem:

Soreness in the buccal vestibule. Difficulty with mastication and cheek movement. Dislodgement due to interference with the buccinator muscle.

a. labial flange
b. buccal flange
c. posterior palatal seal
d. palatal coverage

A

b. buccal flange

273
Q

Maxillary denture overextension of what part will cause the following problem:

Gagging if the extension goes beyond the vibrating line. Ulceration of the soft palate. Loss of retention due to improper tissue adaptation.

a. labial flange
b. buccal flange
c. posterior palatal seal
d. palatal coverage

A

c. posterior palatal seal

274
Q

Maxillary denture overextension of what part will cause the following problem:

Excessive coverage may impair phonetics and the sense of taste. Tissue irritation or soreness.

a. labial flange
b. buccal flange
c. posterior palatal seal
d. palatal coverage

A

d. palatal coverage

275
Q

Mandibular denture overextension of what part will cause the following problem:

Irritation or ulceration of the labial vestibule. Instability during speaking or chewing due to interference with lip movement.

a. labial flange
b. buccal flange
c. lingual flange
d. posterior extension
e. sublingual extension

A

a. labial flange

276
Q

Mandibular denture overextension of what part will cause the following problem:

Soreness in the buccal vestibule. Displacement of the denture due to masseter muscle interference. Painful impingement during mastication.

a. labial flange
b. buccal flange
c. lingual flange
d. posterior extension
e. sublingual extension

A

b. buccal flange

277
Q

Mandibular denture overextension of what part will cause the following problem:

Ulceration or irritation of the floor of the mouth. Discomfort from impingement on the mylohyoid muscle. Interference with tongue movement, affecting speech and swallowing.

a. labial flange
b. buccal flange
c. lingual flange
d. posterior extension
e. sublingual extension

A

c. lingual flange

278
Q

Mandibular denture overextension of what part will cause the following problem:

Soreness or ulceration of the retromolar pad. Displacement during mastication. Difficulty in achieving proper retention and stability.

a. labial flange
b. buccal flange
c. lingual flange
d. posterior extension
e. sublingual extension

A

d. posterior extension

279
Q

Mandibular denture overextension of what part will cause the following problem:

Pain and irritation of the floor of the mouth. Discomfort during tongue movement. Gagging or difficulty swallowing.

a. labial flange
b. buccal flange
c. lingual flange
d. posterior extension
e. sublingual extension

A

e. sublingual extension

280
Q

In general, what are the general effects of overextension for both dentures?

a. discomfort and pain that includes soreness and ulceration
b. denture instability that causes frequent dislodgement
c. difficulty in function
d. tissue damage
e. patient dissatisfaction
f. all of the above

A

f. all of the above

281
Q

There are two main techniques to fabricate a 2-implant-retained CD. the “pick up” technique and the “processing” technique. For pick up impressions the gold-colored locator abutments will remain on the patient’s implants. The silver-colored components are the Locator impression copings are placed on locators. The type of impression is regarded as abutment-level impression.

A

patient, locators

282
Q

Compared to circumferential clasps, I-bars cover a larger area of gingival tissue. It is recommended to place a _____ on each side of an edentulous space. The use of I-bars originating from embrasure rests contradicts the principle of maintaining a simple design.

A

rest

283
Q
A