D2 Fall PAR 8 Flashcards

1
Q

Erythematous Definition

A

Red in color due to dilation and congestion of capillaries, increased blood flow; implies injury, infection, or inflammatory process

“Red” does NOT always mean erythematous

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2
Q

Fibroma

A

(aka irritation fibroma, traumatic fibroma, hyperplastic scar)

reactive fibrous hyperplasia (connective tissue)

people 40-60 years old

most are 1.5cm or less

smooth surfaced papule/nodule

similar color to surrounding tissue

common at buccal mucosa along line of occlusion

MUST BIOPSY

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3
Q

Epulis Fissuratum/Inflammatory Fibrous Hyperplasia

A

fibrous hyperplasia developing because of an ill-fitting removable prosthesis (denture or partial)

IFH can also occur WITHOUT a prosthesis because of inflammatory factors like plaque and calculus– cannot call this epulis fissuratum

firm and fibrous

usually on FACIAL ASPECT

Good prognosis when the ill-fitting prosthesis is fixed

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4
Q

Bumps on the Gums– 4 P’s

A
  1. Pyogenic Granuloma
  2. Peripheral ossifying fibroma
  3. Peripheral giant cell granuloma
  4. Peripheral odontogenic fibroma
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5
Q

Pyogenic Granuloma

A

Anywhere on oral mucosa

LOCAL IRRITANT causes granulation tissue response

may have rapid/alarming growth rate

  • smooth or lobulated mass
  • pedunculated
  • Very vascular (red/blue color, may blanche with pressure)
  • compressible, spongy
  • surface frequently ulcerated

several mm to several cm

PREGNANT WOMEN common– may resolve after delivery

May recur if local irritant isn’t removed

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6
Q

Peripheral Ossifying Fibroma

A

ONLY ON GINGIVA/EDENTULOUS ALVEOLAR RIDGE

TEENS AND YOUNG ADULTS

  • nodular mass
  • varying degrees of calcified material (“ossifying”)
  • pedunculated or sessile
  • reactive
  • red/pink color
  • often ulcerated

Most are less than 2 cm

Tx: excision to periosteum

Recurrence rate is low, 8-16%

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7
Q

Peripheral Giant Cell Granuloma

A

Reactive lesion caused by LOCAL IRRITATION or TRAUMA

ONLY ON GINGIVA/EDENTULOUS ALVEOLAR RIDGE

  • Red/Purplish nodular mass
  • most less than 2cm
  • may or may not be ulcerated

ANY AGE

Tx: excision to underlying bone

10-18% recurrence rate

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8
Q

Recurrent Aphthous Stomatitis

A

likely IMMUNOLOGICAL
- HIV
- HLA types
- trauma, food, stress

Tx: Topical corticosteroids
- augmented betamethasone dipropionate 0.05% gel
- clobetasol propionate 0.05% gel

can use elixirs/syrups with corticosteroids for ulcerations that are hard to reach

Three types: (detailed in other cards)
1. Minor recurrent aphthous stomatitis
2. Major recurrent aphthous stomatitis
3. Herpetiform recurrent aphthous stomatitis

All three forms are on UNATTACHED GINGIVA

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9
Q

MINOR Recurrent Aphthous Stomatitis

A

Ulcer with yellow-white membrane

Erythematous halo

Small (3-5mm)

Unattached mucosa, usually on the ANTERIOR

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10
Q

MAJOR Recurrent Aphthous Stomatitis

A

Can be associated with HIV or other immunocompromised states

Larger (up to 3cm) and longer duration (2-6 weeks)

usually a deeper ulcer– may SCAR once healed

Unattached mucosa, usually on the POSTERIOR

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11
Q

HERPETIFORM Recurrent Aphthous Stomatitis

A

Numerous, small lesions

NON-KERATINIZED unattached mucosa

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12
Q

Herpes Simplex Virus

A

Self limiting (resolves itself if not immunocompromised)

Primary infection that can be reactivated (secondary infection)

Most orofacial infections caused by HSV-1 (remainder by HSV-2)

Primary HSV infection usually ages 2-4 (TODDLERS)

80-90% asymptomatic

The symptomatic cases are called ACUTE HERPETIC GINGIVOSTOMATITIS

Spread by saliva and direct contact with active perioral lesions

Multiple vesicles and ulcers ANYWHERE ON SKIN OR ORAL CAVITY

Unattached AND attached mucosa

Quickly rupture and leave shallow, painful ulcers

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13
Q

HSV remains latent in regional ganglia, and can be reactivated by…

A
  • UV light
  • physical trauma
  • upper resp. tract infection
  • pregnancy and menstruation
  • immunosuppression
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14
Q

Herpes labialis

A

Cold sore/fever blister

Secondary HSV form

prodromal signs and symptoms 6-24 hrs before lesions develop

Vesicles rupture and crust within 2 days– minimal risk for infection after lesions crust

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15
Q

Intraoral Secondary HSV

A

KERATINIZED MUCOSA bound to bone in immunocompetent patients (attached gingiva and hard palate)

Less intense symptoms

Healing in 7-10 days

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16
Q

Treatment for acute herpetic gingivostomatitis

A

must treat within first 3 symptomatic days to be effective

Systemic valacyclovir (preferred) or acyclovir

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17
Q

Treatment for herpes labialis

A

initiation of treatment during prodromal period has maximum benefit

systemic valacyclovir, acyclovir, or penciclovir cream

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18
Q

Treatment for recurrent intraoral herpes

A

usually no treatment necessary

Chlorhexidine rinse with or without valacyclovir/acyclovir

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19
Q

Candida albicans (general microbiology)

A

Most common fungal infection in humans

common dimorphic yeast

yeast form = commensal
hyphae = pathogen

yeast can undergo transformation to hyphae form, producing germinative or “germ tubes”

Candida hyphae never penetrate deeper than the keratin layer

Microabscesses may be seen on superficial spinous layer

acanthosis often present (benign thickening of stratum spinosum)

chronic inflammation of the connective tissue

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20
Q

Candidiasis Spectrum of Disease

A

(most mild to most serious):

  • Carrier state
  • superficial mucosal/cutaneous infection
  • localized invasive candidiasis
  • disseminated candidiasis
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21
Q

Candida infections are more prevalent in…

A

(remember it is opportunistic)

  • infants
  • pts who had recent abx tx
  • pts on corticosteroids
  • immunodeficiency
  • people with RPD
  • pregnancy
  • overweight/diabetes
  • zinc or iron deficiency
  • hypothyroid conditions
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22
Q

Candida Diagnosis

A

often clinical signs and symptoms are enough

Culture– may not distinguish between carrier and infection

Exfoliative cytology

Biopsy usually NOT NEEDED

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23
Q

Candidiasis Treatment

A

Superficial oral mucosal infections can be treated with milder topical or systemic antifungals:

  • clotrimazole 10mg troches
  • nystatin oral susp. (100,000 units/mL)
  • fluconazole 100mg tablets

Life threatening infections:
- IV amphotericin B

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24
Q

Erythematous candidiasis

A

Common on TONGUE

area of redness, variable borders

diffuse atrophy of dorsal tongue papillae, particularly after broad-spectrum antibiotics… causes “burning sensation”

2 forms of erythematous candidiasis:
- central papillary atrophy
- denture stomatitis

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25
Q

4 types of Oral Candidiasis

A
  1. Erythematous candidiasis
    (two types– central papillary atrophy and denture stomatitis)
  2. Angular cheilitis
  3. Acute pseudomembranous candidiasis
  4. Hyperplastic candidiasis
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26
Q

Central Papillary Atrophy

A

One of the 2 types of Erythematous Candidiasis

previously called “median rhomboid glossitis”

Most caused by chronic candidiasis

Well-defined area of redness, mid-posterior dorsal tongue

Usually asymptomatic

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27
Q

Denture Stomatitis

A

One of the 2 types of Erythematous candidiasis

May be called “chronic atrophic candidiasis”

Denture is often contaminated with candida organisms, but NO INVASION OF MUCOSA is seen

Erythema of palatal denture-bearing area

Usually asymptomatic

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28
Q

Angular Cheilitis

A

Usually related to candidiasis, but may have other cutaneous bacterial microflora

Redness, cracking of corners of the mouth

Often waxes and wanes

Usually required topical anti-fungal therapy

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29
Q

Treatment for angular cheilitis

A

Angular cheilitis with intramural candidiasis:
- clotrimazole troches– have pts lick corners of mouth while using troches

Isolated or severe: topical anti fungal creams
- 1%/1% iodoquinol/hydrocortisone
- nystatin/triamcinolone cream
- OTC 1% clotrimazole

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30
Q

Pseudomembranous Candidiasis

A

Also called “thrush”

White “curdled milk” or “cottage cheese-like” plaques that CAN BE WIPED OFF and leave an erythematous base

BUCCAL MUCOSA
PALATE
TONGUE

May be asymptomatic
- burning or unpleasant taste occasionally noted

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31
Q

Hyperplastic Candidiasis

A

also known as “candidal leukoplakia”

White patch that CANNOT be rubbed off

ANTERIOR BUCCAL MUCOSA

May be problematic because a true leukoplakia may have superimposed candidiasis (leukoplakia is premalignant and you may not recognize it due to the candida growth)

should resolve with anti fungal therapy

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32
Q

Leukoplakia

A

white patch or plaque that cannot be characterized as any other disease

considered PREMALIGNANT (most common precancerous oral lesion–may transform to SCC)

Well-defined with crisp margins

May be homogenous, variably thick, or speckled

Common areas: “soft areas”
- lateral/ventral tongue
- floor of mouth
- soft palate

hyperkeratosis with or without acanthosis

most do NOT show dysplasia

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33
Q

Possible etiologies of leukoplakia (there are 3)

A
  1. tobacco smoking
  2. sanguinaria (blood root) [this is a flower]
  3. betel nut use

Alcohol is NOT necessarily associated with leukoplakia

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34
Q

5 Lesions that ARE NOT LEUKOPLAKIA:

A

“Frick, This is Not A Leukoplakia”

Frictional keratosis
Tobacco pouch keratosis
Nicotine stomatitis
Amalgam reactions
Lichen Planus

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35
Q

Prognosis and Tx of Leukoplakia

A

BIOPSY MANDATORY (premalignant.. duh)

Tx: clinical monitoring, excision, laser ablation

Small risk of transformation to SCC

Follow-up appt is essential, with or without removal

Recurrences COMMON (1/3 of patients)

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36
Q

Proliferative Verrucous Leukoplakia (PVL)

A

More than 1 precancerous lesion in the mouth OR a single lesion greater than 3cm

no definite etiology

OLDER FEMALES (mean age = 67)

Malignant transformation in more than 70% of patients

almost guaranteed recurrence (87-100%)

Prognosis is GUARDED

Management:
- 3-6 month recall with excellent documentation
- biopsy at least every 12-18 months, sooner if it changes or a new lesion appears.

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37
Q

Erythroplakia

A

Red patch that cannot be clinically or pathologically diagnosed as any other condition

MUCH MORE DYSPLASIA upon biopsy than leukoplakia
- 90% of erythroplakia shows dysplasia (CIS)

Same etiology as SCC (tobacco, alcohol)

OLDER MALES

Same locations as leukoplakia (very soft areas)
- floor of mouth
- ventral tongue
- soft palate

Well-demarcated velvety, red plaque

May be adjacent to areas of leukoplakia

Epithelial atrophy with lack of keratin production

Chronic inflammation

BIOPSY and close follow-up are MANDATORY

Tx depends on how severe the dysplasia is

Recurrence, developing separate lesions, and malignant transformation are all common

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38
Q

Most common oral cancer? Most common demographic for this cancer?

A

Oral Squamous Cell Carcinoma

Most common in BLACK MALES

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39
Q

OSCC Risk Factors

A

Tobacco (especially combustible)–75-85% have OSCC association

Alcohol (not directly a carcinogen here, but works synergistically with tobacco)

Betel quid

Radiation

Plummer Vinson Syndrome
- iron deficiency anemia
- glossitis
- dysphagia

Immunosuppression

High-risk HPV strains
- not a major risk factor for oral cavity cancer
- associated more with OROPHARYNX cancers (base of tongue, tonsillar pillars, back of throat)– usually attributed to HPV16

** 20-25% of OSCC present with NO IDENTIFIABLE RISK FACTORS

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40
Q

How long is OSCC usually present before pt seeks medical attention?

A

4-8 months

longer (8-24 months) in lower socioeconomic classes

denial, lack of pain, and insufficient education play a role

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41
Q

OSCC has highly varied features that may include:

A

exophytic (growing out from tissue)

endophytic (growing down into tissue

ulcerated

erythroplakic

leukoplakic

** it doesn’t have all these features at once, these are just possible appearances

42
Q

OSCC histologic features

A

islands and strands of malignant squamous epithelial cells

Pleomorphism, hyperchromatism, increased nuclear:cytoplasmic ratio, increased mitotic rate

43
Q

OSCC most common locations

A

Tongue more than 1/2 of cases (ventral and lateral… very rarely dorsal)

Floor of mouth and soft palate 2nd most common

Gingiva
Buccal mucosa
Labial mucosa
Hard palate

44
Q

Metastasis of OSCC

A

spread through LYMPHATICS

Firm nodes, moveable or fixed

distant spread to lungs, liver, bones

Stage at diagnosis is the most important prognostic factor!!

45
Q

OSCC Treatment and Prognosis

A

Surgical excision/resection

radiation

usually chemotherapy does NOT respond well

Prognosis:
- carcinoma of LIP has a much better prognosis

stage 1 has okay prognosis, stage 4 has very bad prognosis

“Field cancerization”– person with one carcinoma are at increased risk of a second mucosal tumor

46
Q

SCC of the LIP

A

Cause: chronic UV light

MALES (usually light skinned with outdoor occupations)

Slowly growing, indurated (hardened) ulceration

47
Q

Verrucous Carcinoma

A

first reported as a smoke-less tobacco related lesion

SCC is much more common, even among smokeless tobacco users

May be associated with proliferative verrucous leukoplakia (PVL)

MALES older than 55

white, warty plaque

mandibular vestibule
buccal mucosa
hard palate

VERY RARE METASTASIS

GOOD PROGNOSIS
- up to 20% have foci of SCC

48
Q

Branchial Cleft Cyst (Cervical Lymphoepithelial Cyst)

A

arise from remnants of the branchial clefts–95% from the 2nd arch

swelling ANTERIOR to the sternocleidomastoid

more likely on the LEFT side

Fixed position on the neck (doesn’t move around)

stratified squamous epithelial lining

lymphoid tissues present in wall, with germinal center formation

Recurrence is RARE

49
Q

Thyroglossal Duct Cyst

A

CHILDREN 10-12

Fluctuant midline swelling from foramen cecum to suprasternal notch

80% located BELOW the HYOID BONE

Cysts often move up and down upon swallowing

columnar and/or stratified squamous epithelial lining

Often with thyroid tissue present in cyst wall

TX: Sistrunk Procedure (removal of cyst with midline segment of hyoid bone and muscle… less than 10% recurrence)

50
Q

Xerostomia is most common in which demographic

A

ELDERLY FEMALES

51
Q

Medications associated with xerostomia are…

A

Antihistamines
Decongestants
Antidepressants
Antipsychotics
Antihypertensives
Anticholinergics

52
Q

Xerostomia Treatments

A
  • continuous hydration
  • artificial saliva
  • fluoride application
  • Pilocarpine (Salagen) or cevimeline (Evoxac), but they have side effects
  • Chlorhexidine/other antimicrobial mouthrinse
53
Q

Mucocele (Mucous Extravasation Phenomenon)

A

blockage or rupture of salivary gland duct and spillage of mucin into surrounding tissue

usually children or young adults

usually by local trauma, like a lip bite

Usually on lower lip, followed by floor of mouth (ranula), anterior ventral tongue, buccal mucosa, and palate

RARE in upper lip– submucosal nodule in upper lip is probably a neoplasm– not a mucocele!!

Dome shaped submucosal swelling 2mm to several cm in size

Bluish translucence to normal color

Fluctuant or firm on palpation

54
Q

Ranula

A

Mucocele that is on the floor of the mouth

55
Q

Sialolithiasis

A

Salivary stone
- calcified structures that develop within salivary ductal system

Etiology: deposition of calcium salts around nidus of debris (bacteria, etc)

usually SUBMANDIBULAR gland duct– because duct is long and has a tortuous uphill course

Increased pain and swelling at mealtime

Firm (rock-hard) mass in floor of mouth or cheek

Smooth surfaced radiopaque mass, can see concentric rings on radiograph

Surrounded by salivary duct epithelium

56
Q

Most salivary gland tumors involve the ______ gland

A

Parotid (most are benign)

57
Q

2nd most common site for salivary gland tumors? What percent are malignant here?

A

Minor salivary glands

about 50% are malignant here

58
Q

Sublingual gland tumors are rare, but they are usually _____________ when present

A

MALIGNANT (around 90%)

59
Q

Features of BENIGN salivary gland tumors

A

slow growth
painless
firm
most have normal surface

60
Q

Features of MALIGNANT salivary gland tumors

A

fast growth
pain or paresthesia
firm
ulcerated surface

61
Q

Pleomorphic Adenoma (Benign Mixed Tumor)

A

MOST COMMON salivary gland tumor

arises from ductal epithelium and myoepithelial elements

ADULT FEMALES

slowly growing, rubbery-firm mass

If in the parotid gland, it is usually the superficial lobe

If in a minor salivary gland, it is usually seen in the palate or upper lip

well circumscribed, encapsulated tumor

tumors may be completely composed of myoepithelial cells

GOOD PROGNOSIS with adequate surgical excision

small amount will undergo malignant transformation

62
Q

Papillary Cystadenoma Lymphomatosum (Warthin Tumor)

A

BENIGN tumor of PAROTID

almost exclusively in the parotid gland (slow growing in tail of parotid)

strong association with SMOKING

OLDER MALES

very small percent is bilateral

relatively low recurrence rate

VERY RARE malignant transformation

63
Q

Mucoepidermoid Carcinoma

A

Most common MALIGNANT salivary gland tumor

mucous and squamous differentiation

Wide age range, but peak is in pt’s 30s

FEMALES

parotid and minor salivary glands of the palate most common

may present as intraosseous jaw tumor

Low grade– very good prognosis
High grade– bad prognosis

Children have better prognosis than adults

64
Q

Intraosseous Mucoepidermoid Carcinoma

A

MALIGNANT

central tumor, possibly arising from entrapped, ectopic salivary gland tissue or odontogenic epithelium

histologically identical to soft tissue tumor (mucoepidermoid carcinoma)

MIDDLE AGED FEMALES

MANDIBLE more common

Swelling, pain, paresthesia

Unilocular or multilocular radiolucency

GOOD PROGNOSIS–90% cure rate

65
Q

Odontogenic ________ are relatively common in dental practice, but odontogenic __________ are uncommon.

A

Cysts– common

Tumors– uncommon

66
Q

Odontogenic Cysts (general definition)

A

epithelium-lined cysts in bone, seen only in the jaws (rare exceptions)

subcategorized into developmental and inflammatory cysts

67
Q

Dentigerous Cyst

A

Cyst originating around the crown of an unerupted tooth

MOST COMMON DEVELOPMENTAL ODONTOGENIC CYST

usually MAND. 3RD MOLARS

other common sites:
- maxillary canines
- maxillary 3rd molars
- mandibular 2nd premolars

usually PERMANENT TEETH

may cause root resorption of adjacent teeth

usually between ages 10-30

Well-defined, unilocular radiolucency around crown of unerupted tooth

68
Q

Treatment/Prognosis for Dentigerous Cyst

A

surgical enucleation of cyst with removal of unerupted tooth

tooth may be left in place if eruption is deemed feasible (orthodontic assistance may be necessary)

EXCELLENT PROGNOSIS
- rare recurrence

69
Q

Odontogenic Keratocyst (OKC)

A

arise from cell rests of the dental lamina

Multiple OKCs are associated with nevoid basal cell carcinoma syndrome (Gorlin syndrome)

Any age, but mostly between ages 10-40

MANDIBLE usually
- posterior body and ramus

sometimes involves unerupted teeth

small vs. large lesions described in another card

stratified squamous epithelial lining, 6-8 cells thick

Tx: enucleation and curettage
Recurrence is 30%

70
Q

OKC Small vs. Large Lesions

A

SMALL OKC LESIONS:
- well defined, unilocular radiolucency
- NO clinical expansion
- asymptomatic

LARGE OKC LESIONS:
- well defined multilocular radiolucency
- pain, swelling, drainage
- occasional clinical expansion

71
Q

Odontoma

A

type of mixed odontogenic tumor

MOST COMMON ODONTOGENIC TUMOR

Developmental anomaly (hamartoma)

Compound and complex types

composed mostly of enamel and dentin, variable amounts of pulp and cementum

KIDS AND TEENS (median is 14)

asymptomatic and small, but some can be 6+ cm in size

may cause clinical expansion

Radiograph: calcified mass or tooth-like structures surrounded by well-defined, narrow radiolucent border

EXCELLENT PROGNOSIS

72
Q

Ameloblastoma

A

most common clinically significant odontogenic tumor

odontogenic epithelial origin

slow-growing, locally invasive tumor

3rd-7th decade

MANDIBLE
- molar/ascending ramus

small lesions are asymptomatic, pain and paresthesia are UNCOMMON

may slowly enlarge to massive proportions

Radiograph, histology, tx described in another card

73
Q

Ameloblastoma Radiograph Characteristics

A

Well-defined, multilocular radiolucency, but could be unilocular

Resorption of roots of adjacent teeth

Buccal and lingual expansion

Common association with unerupted tooth

74
Q

Ameloblastoma Histologic Patterns

A

6 histologic patterns… these are the shared features:

  • columnar ameloblast-like cells with hyper chromatic nuclei
  • nuclei of these cells orient away from the basement membrane (reverse polarity)

appearance reminiscent of PIANO KEYS

75
Q

Treatment of Ameloblastoma

A

if you only do removal and curettage, there is usually recurrence.

Marginal resection is more commonly used
- less chance of recurrence

some surgeons advocate 1-2cm margins past radiographic limits

76
Q

When the odontoma is made up of toothlets, it is ______________

A

Compound

77
Q

Most tumors arriving from this salivary gland are malignant

A

Sublingual (about 90% are malignant)

78
Q

Percent of salivary gland tumors that are benign

A

75%

79
Q

Most common salivary gland tumor: parotid, palate, upper lip are most common sites

A

pleomorphic adenoma

80
Q

Most common odontogenic cyst?

A

Periapical cyst

81
Q

Typical treatment for ameloblastoma

A

Marginal resection

82
Q

Approximate recurrence rate for odontogenic keratocysts treated with enucleation and curettage?

A

30%

83
Q

Most common odontogenic tumor that is a hamartoma of dental hard and soft tissue

A

Odontoma

84
Q

Most common developmental odontogenic cyst; develops around the crown of an unerupted tooth

A

Dentigerous cyst

85
Q

Percent of pleomorphic adenomas that will undergo malignant transformation

A

5%

86
Q

Prognosis for intraosseous mucoepidermoid carcinoma

A

GOOD

87
Q

Most common location for mucoceles

A

Lower lip

88
Q

Odontoma made up of a disorganized mass of dental hard/soft tissue

A

Complex

89
Q

Fluctuant midline swelling that tends to move up and down upon swallowing

A

Thyroglossal Duct Cyst

90
Q

Most common clinically significant odontogenic tumor; slow growing and locally invasive

A

ameloblastoma

91
Q

Dental consideration for patients with xerostomia that may be combated with supplemental fluoride

A

Root caries

92
Q

Characteristic histologic appearance of ameloblastoma resembles these

A

Piano keys

93
Q

Second most common site for salivary gland tumors; about half of these tumors are malignant

A

Minor salivary glands

94
Q

Benign tumor of the parotid gland strongly associated with tobacco smoking

A

Papillary cystadenoma lymphomatosum

95
Q

Most common site for dentigerous cyst

A

Mandibular 3rd molars

96
Q

Surgical procedure to treat thyroglossal duct cysts

A

Sistrunk procedure

97
Q

Most cases arise in mandible of teens/younger adults; may be multilocular, typically without clinical expansion

A

Odontogenic keratocyst

98
Q

Most common location for a salivary gland stone

A

Submandibular gland duct

99
Q

Most common malignant salivary gland tumor

A

mucoepidermoid carcinoma

100
Q

Most cases arise in the mandible in adults, may be multilocular, and large lesions show clinical expansion

A

ameloblastoma

101
Q

Cyst appearing clinically as swelling anterior to the sternocleidomastoid

A

branchial cleft cyst