cysa+ study guide Flashcards

1
Q

Security Intelligence

A

The process through which data generated in the ongoing use of information systems is
collected, processed, analyzed, and disseminated to provide insights into the security
status of those systems

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2
Q

What is a Cybersecurity Analyst ?

A

A senior position within an organization’s security team with direct responsibility for protecting sensitive information and preventing unauthorized access to electronic data
and the systems that protect it.
Cybersecurity teams contain junior and senior analysts

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3
Q

What are some functions of a cybersecurity analyst?

A

Implementing and configuring security controls
Working in a SOC or CSIRT
Auditing security processes and procedures
Conducting risk assessments, vulnerability assessments, and penetration tests Maintaining up-to-date threat intelligence

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4
Q

What is “SOC”

A

Security Operations Center
A location where security professionals monitor and protect critical information assets in
an organization
The SOC should be the single point of contact for security, monitoring, and incident response
SOCs usually exist for larger corporations, government agencies, and health care
organizations

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5
Q

What are security controls?

A

Security Control is a technology or procedure put in place to mitigate vulnerabilities and
risk in order to ensure the confidentiality, integrity, availability, and nonrepudiation of data and information.

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6
Q

What are the 4 main security controls?

A

AC – Access Control
AA – Accountability
IR – Incident Response
RA – Risk Assessment

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7
Q

What is Technical (Logical) Controls

A

A category of security control that is implemented as a system (hardware, software, or
firmware)

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8
Q

What is Operational Controls

A

A category of security control that is implemented primarily by people rather than systems

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9
Q

What is Managerial Controls

A

A category of security control that provides oversight of the information system

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10
Q

What is Preventative Control

A

A control that acts to eliminate or reduce the likelihood that an attack can succeed

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11
Q

What is Detective Control

A

A control may not prevent or deter access, but it will identify and record any attempted or successful intrusion

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12
Q

What is Corrective Control

A

A control acts to eliminate or reduce the impact of an intrusion event

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13
Q

What is a Physical Control

A

A type of security control that acts against in-person intrusion attempts

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14
Q

What is a Deterrent Control

A

o A type of security control that discourages intrusion attempts

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15
Q

What is a Compensating Control

A

A type of security control that acts as a substitute for a principal control

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16
Q

What is the CIA TRAID

A

Confidentiality, Integrity and Availability

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17
Q

Cyber Threat Intelligence

A

The process of investigating, collecting, analyzing, and disseminating information about emerging threats and threat
sources to provide data about
the external threat landscape
▪ Narrative reports ▪ Data Feeds
You don’t use narrative reports or data feeds… you use both!

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18
Q

5 steps of Intelligence Cycle

A

Requirements (Planning & Direction)
Collection (& Processing)
Analysis
Dissemination
Feedback

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19
Q

Intelligence Sources

A

You must consider the sources of your intelligence
● Timeliness
Property of an intelligence source that ensures it is up-to-date
● Relevancy
Property of an intelligence source that ensures it matches the use cases intended for it
● Accuracy
Property of an intelligence source that ensures it produces effective results
● Confidence Levels
Property of an intelligence source that ensures it produces qualified statements about
reliability

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20
Q

Proprietary

A

Threat intelligence is very widely provided as a commercial service offering, where access
to updates and research is subject to a subscription fee

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21
Q

Closed-Source

A

Data that is derived from the provider’s own research and analysis efforts, such as data from honeynets that they operate, plus information mined from its customers’ systems, suitably anonymized

22
Q

Open-Source

A

Data that available to use without subscription, may include threat feeds similar to the
commercial providers, and may contain reputation lists and malware signature databases

23
Q

Examples of Open-Source

A

▪ US-CERT
▪ UK’s NCSC
▪ AT&T Security (OTX)
▪ MISP
▪ VirusTotal
▪ Spamhaus
▪ SANS ISC Suspicious Domains

24
Q

Open-Source Intelligence (OSINT)

A

Methods of obtaining information about a person or organization through public
records, websites, and social media

25
Q

(ISACS)

A

Information Sharing and Analysis Center (ISAC)
o A not-for-profit group set up to share sector-specific threat intelligence and security best
practices amongst its members

26
Q

CISP,

A

Cyber Security Information Sharing Partnership, is like an ISAC within the UK

27
Q

Critical Infrastructure

A

Any physical or virtual infrastructure that is considered so vital to the United States that
their incapacitation or destruction would have a debilitating effect on security, national economic security, national public health or safety,
or any combination of these
ICS, SCADA, and embedded system threats are a main focus within critical infrastructure

28
Q

Types of Critical Infrastructure

A

● Government
Serves non-federal governments in the US, such as state, local, tribal and territorial
governments
● Healthcare
Serves healthcare providers that are targets of criminals seeking blackmail and ransom opportunities by compromising patient data records or interfering with
medical devices
● Financial
Serves the financial sector to prevent fraud and extortion of both the consumer and financial institutions
● Aviation
Serves the aviation industry to prevent fraud, terrorism, service disruptions, and unsafe
operations of air traffic control systems

29
Q

Threat Intelligence Sharing is part of which intelligence cycle phase

A

Dissemination Phase

30
Q

Whats are the steps of dissemination

A

● Risk Management
Identifies, evaluates, and prioritizes threats and vulnerabilities to
reduce their negative impact
● Incident Response
An organized approach to addressing and managing the aftermath of a security breach or cyberattack
● Vulnerability Management
The practice of identifying, classifying, prioritizing, remediating, and mitigating software
vulnerabilities
● Detection and Monitoring
The practice of observing activity to identify anomalous patterns for further analysis

31
Q

Known Threats

A

A threat that can be identified using basic signature or pattern matching

32
Q

Malware

A

Any software intentionally designed to cause damage to a computer, server, client, or
computer networ

33
Q

Documented Exploits

A

A piece of software, data or sequence of commands that takes advantage of
a vulnerability to cause unintended behavior or to gain unauthorized access to sensitive data

34
Q

Unknown Threats

A

A threat that cannot be identified using basic signature or pattern matching

35
Q

Zero-day Exploit

A

An unknown exploit in the wild that exposes a vulnerability in software or hardware and
can create complicated problems well before anyone realizes something is wrong

36
Q

Obfuscated Malware Code

A

Malicious code whose execution the malware author has attempted to hide through various techniques such as compression, encryption, or encoding to severely limit attempts to statically analyze the malware

37
Q

Behavior-based Detection

A

A malware detection method that evaluates an object based on its intended actions
before it can actually execute that behavior

38
Q

Recycled Threats

A

Refers to the process of combining and modifying parts of existing exploit code to create new threats that are not as easily identified by automated scanning

39
Q

Known Unknowns

A

A classification of malware that contains obfuscation techniques to circumvent
signature-matching and detection

40
Q

Unknown Unknowns

A

A classification of malware that contains completely new attack vectors and exploits

41
Q

Nation-state Actor

A

A type of threat actor that is supported by the resources of its host country’s military
and security services

42
Q

Organized Crime

A

A type of threat actor that uses hacking and computer fraud for commercial gain

43
Q

Hacktivist

A

A type of threat actor that is motivated by a social issue or political cause

44
Q

Insider Threat

A

A type of threat actor who is assigned privileges on the system that cause an intentional or unintentional incident
Insider threats can be either intentional or unintentional

45
Q

What about an ex-employee?
Are they threats

A

Ex-employees can be classified as internal threats or treated as external threats with
insider knowledge

46
Q

Intentional Threat

A

A threat actor who conducts an attack with a specific purpose

47
Q

Unintentional threat

A

A threat actor that causes a vulnerability or exposes an attack vector without malicious
intent
o Shadow IT is a form of unintentional insider threat

48
Q

Commodity Malware

A

Malicious software applications that are widely available for sale or easily obtainable and
usable
dentifying if the malware is commodity or targeted can help determine the severity of an
incident

49
Q

Zero-day Vulnerability

A

A vulnerability that is discovered or exploited before the vendor can issue a patch to fix it

50
Q

APT

A

dvanced Persistent Threat (APT)
o An attacker’s ability to obtain, maintain, and diversify access to network systems using exploits and malware
o APTs are considered a known unknown threat
APTs often target financial institutions, healthcare companies, and governments to get large PII data sets

51
Q

Command and Control (C2)

A

An infrastructure of hosts and services with which attackers direct, distribute, and control malware over botnets

52
Q

Persistence

A

The ability of a threat actor to maintain covert access to a target host or network