Cysa + Flashcards

1
Q

A location where security professionals monitor and protect critical
information assets in an organization

A

Security Operations Center (SOC)

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2
Q

This document is called the security and privacy controls for federal
information systems and organizations

A

NIST Special Publication 800-53 Revision 5

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3
Q

mitigates vulnerabilities and risk to ensure the confidentiality, integrity,
availability, nonrepudiation, and authentication of data

A

Security Control

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4
Q

an international standard and a proprietary framework

A

ISO 27001

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5
Q

A category of security control that is implemented as a system
(hardware, software, or firmware)

A

Technical (Logical) Controls

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6
Q

A category of security control that is implemented primarily by
people rather than systems

A

Operational Controls

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7
Q

A category of security control that provides oversight of the
information system

A

Managerial Controls

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8
Q

A control that acts to eliminate or reduce the likelihood that an
attack can succeed

A

Preventative Control

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9
Q

A control that may not prevent or deter access, but will identify
and record any attempted or successful intrusion

A

Detective Control

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10
Q

A control that acts to eliminate or reduce the impact of an
intrusion event

A

Corrective Control

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11
Q

A type of security control that acts against in-person intrusion
attempts

A

Physical Control

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12
Q

A type of security control that discourages intrusion attempts

A

Deterrent Control

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13
Q

A type of security control that acts as a substitute for a principal
control. Not the top line, but gives you some protection

A

Compensating Control

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14
Q

A control that uses a system that actively monitors for potential vulnerabilities or
attacks, and then takes action to mitigate them before they can
cause damage

A

Responsive Control

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15
Q

a system that monitors all incoming and outgoing network, traffic and
blocks

A

Firewall

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16
Q

Devices that can monitor network traffic for patterns that indicate an
intrusion is occurring such as a repeated failed log on attempt (takes action)

A

Intrusion Prevention System (IPS)

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17
Q

The process where data is generated and is then collected, processed,
analyzed, and disseminated to provide insights into the security status of
information systems

A

Security Intelligence

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18
Q

Investigation, collection, analysis, and dissemination of information about
emerging threats and threat sources to provide data about the external
threat landscape

A

Cyber Threat Intelligence

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19
Q

What are the 5 stages of the Intelligence Cycle?

A
  1. Requirements (Planning & Direction) 2. Collection (& Processing) 3. Analysis 4. Dissemination 5. Feedback
20
Q

A not-for-profit group set up to share sector-specific threat intelligence
and security best practices amongst its members

A

Information Sharing and Analysis Center (ISAC)

21
Q

Similar to ISAC, but set up within the UK

A

Cyber Security Information Sharing Partnership (CISP)

22
Q

Identifies, evaluates, and prioritizes threats and vulnerabilities to reduce
their negative impact

A

Risk Management

23
Q

An organized approach to addressing and managing the aftermath of a
security breach or cyberattack

A

Incident Response

24
Q

The practice of identifying, classifying, prioritizing, remediating, and
mitigating software vulnerabilities

A

Vulnerability Management

25
The practice of observing activity to identify anomalous patterns for further analysis
Detection and Monitoring
26
A threat that can be identified using basic signature or pattern matching
Known Threats
27
Any software intentionally designed to cause damage to a computer, server, client, or computer network
Malware
28
A piece of software, data or sequence of commands that takes advantage of a vulnerability to cause unintended behavior or to gain unauthorized access to sensitive data
Documented Exploits
29
A threat that cannot be identified using basic signature or patter
Unknown Threats
30
An unknown exploit in the wild that exposes a vulnerability in software or hardware and can create complicated problems well before anyone realizes something is wrong
matching Zero-day Exploit
31
Malicious code whose execution the malware author has attempted to hide through various techniques such as compression, encryption, or encoding to severely limit attempts to statically analyze the malware
Obfuscated Malware Code
32
A malware detection method that evaluates an object based on its intended actions before it can actually execute that behavior
Behavior-based Detection
33
Refers to the process of combining and modifying parts of existing exploit code to create new threats that are not as easily identified by automated scanning
Recycled Threats
34
A classification of malware that contains obfuscation techniques to circumvent signature-matching and detection
Known Unknowns
35
A classification of malware that contains completely new attack vectors and exploits
Unknown Unknowns
36
Uses other people’s tools to conduct their attacks as they do not have the skills to make their own tools
Script Kiddie
37
People who have authorized access to an organization’s network, policies, procedures, and business practices who can cause either intentional or unintentional harm
Insider Threat
38
A rogue business attempting to conduct cyber espionage against an organization
Competitor
39
Focused on hacking and computer fraud to achieve financial gains
Organized Crime
40
Politically-motivated hacker who targets governments or individuals to advance their political ideologies
Hacktivist
41
A group of attackers with exceptional capability, funding, and organization with an intent to hack a network or system
Nation-State
42
An attacker that establishes a long-term presence on a network in order to gather sensitive information
Advanced Persistent Threat (APT)
43
Malicious software applications that are widely available for sale or easily obtainable and usable
Commodity Malware
44
A vulnerability that is discovered or exploited before the vendor can issue a patch to fix it
Zero-day Vulnerability
45