Cybrary Practice Exam Flashcards
You have ran an automated scan against the network at InterConn and found a number of vulnerabilities.
In an instance of LibreOffice Writer, you copy the vulnerabilities and look them up on https://cve.mitre.org/cve/ to see if you can find anything already reported on them.
For one of the vulnerabilities the response comes back
CVE-2019-17554
With a Date Entry created:
20191014
What from the above Data entry created is NOT indicated? (CHOOSE THREE)
A.Discovered B.Shared with vendor C.Reserved D.Disclosed publicly E.Allocated
A.Discovered
B.Shared with vendor
D.Disclosed publicly
Explanation:
The entry does NOT indicate the vulnerability is discovered, publicly disclosed or shared with the vendor.
According to CVE:
‘CVE IDs are used by cybersecurity product/service vendors and researchers as a standard method for identifying vulnerabilities and for cross-linking with other repositories that also use CVE IDs.
This date does not indicate when the vulnerability was discovered, shared with the affected vendor, publicly disclosed or updated in CVE.
That information may or may not be included in the description or references of a CVE Entry or in the enhanced information for the CVE Entry that is provided in the U.S. National Vulnerability Database (NVD).”
The “Date Entry Created” date in a CVE Entry indicates when the CVE ID was issued to a CVE Numbering Authority (CNA) or the CVE Entry was published on the CVE List.
“A CVE Entry is marked as “RESERVED” when it has been reserved for use by a CVE Numbering Authority (CNA) or security researcher, but the details of it are not yet populated. A CVE Entry can change from the RESERVED state to being populated, or Allocated, at any time based on a number of factors both internal and external to the CVE List. Once the CVE Entry is populated with details on the CVE List, it will become available in the U.S. National Vulnerability Database (NVD)”.
This particular entry has been allocated because all of the information has been populated. It is also reserved because it has been assigned to a particular vulnerability.
Common Vulnerabilities and Exposure (CVE) is a list of common identifiers for publicly known cybersecurity vulnerabilities. With a standardized description for each vulnerability or exposure, they are more of a dictionary than a database. CVE helps provide rankings on discovered vulnerabilities, but does not provide security compliance standards.
Objective:
Information Gathering and Vulnerability Identification
Sub-Objective:
Given a scenario, analyze vulnerability scan results.
References:
CompTIA PenTest+ Cert Guide, Chapter 3: Information Gathering and Vulnerability Identification, Understanding How to Analyze Vulnerability Scan Results
A penetration tester wants to run an Nmap script that will use MSRPC to enumerate user accounts on a target. Which script would be best for this scenario?
A.smb-enum-shares.nse
B.http-enum.nse
C.smb-enum-services.nse
D.smb-enum-users.nse
D.smb-enum-users.nse
Explanation:
The smb-enum-users.nse script enumerates all user accounts on a remote system. It uses the Microsoft Remote Procedure Call (MSRPC) protocol to perform the reconnaissance. MSRPC is a Microsoft client-server protocol that allows one program to request services of another machine without prior knowledge of the specific details of that machine’s internal network. From a pen test perspective, the information gained by using this protocol allows testers to build out an internal network and footprint specific users that exists on a remote system.
The smb-enum-shares.nse script retrieves information about remote shares. This technique can even display private files which is an opportunity for data exfiltration or malware propagation.
The smb-enum-services.nse script discovers services running on a remote system. The enumeration results, which can only be produced when running the scan from a privileged account, can also list service status (active or inactive).
The http-enum.nse script enumerates directories used by web applications and servers. It is an intelligent, highly accurate script capable of pattern recognition to identify specific version of web applications while avoiding false positive results.
Which of these options is NOT a risk management process?
A.Taking a new business risk B.Monitoring an existing risk C.Accepting the current level of risk D.Determining the organization’s tolerance for risk E.Taking action to reduce risk F.Calculating the current level of risk
A.Taking a new business risk
Explanation:
Taking a business risk is not a risk management process. It is the reason for risk management. All business activities carry some level of risk that must be faced to achieve rewards. Risk management is the attempt to ensure the business will benefit from potentially risky activities, such as managing customers’ financial data or acquiring new computer systems, without too much harm.
Determining the current level of risk faced by an organization, judging the organization’s appetite or tolerance for risk, accepting the current level of risk, and taking action to mitigate or avoid risk are all part of a risk management program.
Risk mitigation includes a combination of these strategies:
Risk monitoring, by continually gauging the current risks faced by the organization Risk avoidance, by modifying or stopping an activity or process that generates risk Risk reduction, by implementing countermeasures to protect against risk (such as cybersecurity) Risk sharing, by spreading the impact of the risk to another entity (such as hiring an outside firm to provide cybersecurity to the organization) Risk transference, by shifting the impact of the risk to another entity (such as buying insurance)
Compliance liability, which is defined by such federal regulations as GLBA, PCI-DSS, and HIPAA / HITECH, cannot be shared or transferred away from the organization. Organizations governed by these laws are always responsible for complying with their mandates. They cannot share or transfer this risk.
In a workstation you just gained remote access to, you find the following code:
super_list = [12, 21, 95, 45, 8, 100]
for number in super_list:
if number % 2 != 0:
print(number)
What is the first output?
A.45
B.21
C.12
D.95
B.21
Explanation:
The first output of this code is 21. This code determines which numbers within the list are odd. The for loop loops through the numbers within the list. The if statement then determines whether or not the number is evenly divisible by two. If it is not (meaning that the number is an odd number), then the number prints.
The first output is not 12 because 12 is an even number.
The first output is not 95, which will be the second output.
The first output is not 45, which will be the third output.
The code will provide output as follows: 21, 95, 45.
A penetration tester performs a security assessment for your company. When you examine the final report, seven vulnerabilities are listed. Four of the vulnerabilities are critical. However, your company does not have the resources to remediate all of the vulnerabilities listed in the report at the moment. You need to suggest which vulnerabilities should be addressed.
What should you recommend?
A.Implement the remediation for the most critical vulnerability first.
B.Implement the cheapest remediations first.
C.Implement the remediations that are easiest to implement first.
D.Implement the remediations that affect the most assets first.
A.Implement the remediation for the most critical vulnerability first.
Explanation:
You should recommend that the company implement the remediation for the most critical vulnerability first. The criticality of a vulnerability is based on a number of factors, including ease to exploit, value of affected asset, exposure of affected asset, and so on. Critical vulnerabilities should be handled first if there are limited resources available.
You should not implement the cheapest remediations first. Although this would allow your resources to be stretched, it would not ensure that the most critical vulnerabilities are addressed. The most critical vulnerabilities are those most likely to be exploited and most likely to cost the most if exploited.
You should not implement the remediations that affect the most assets first. While these remediations would seem like a logical choice because of the number of affected assets, these may not be the most critical. The most critical vulnerabilities should always have priority.
You should not implement the remediations that are easiest to implement first. Just because they are easy is not reason enough to implement them first. Often the easiest remediations are not addressing the most critical vulnerabilities. Always address the most critical first.
You are working for a contracting company that was employed by the federal government. Which organization’s publications are likely to be most closely related to your security compliance standards?
A.NIST
B.CVE
C.JPCERT
D.US-CERT
A.NIST
Explanation:
The National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) is an agency of the U.S Department of Commerce. Its main focus is to promote innovation and assessing organizations in the risk they encounter. Their publications will be most closely related to your security compliance standards.
Japan Computer Emergency Response Team (JPCERT) coordinates with Japanese network service providers, security vendors, and government agencies to provide incident response. They also gather and disseminate technical information on computer security incidents and vulnerabilities and security fixes, and other security information, as well as issue alerts and warnings.
The U.S. Computer Emergency Readiness Team (US-CERT) is an organization that was established by the U.S. Department of Homeland Security to analyze and reduce cyber threats and vulnerabilities, disseminate cyber threat warning information, and coordinate incident response activities. However, they do not provide security compliance standards.
Common Vulnerabilities and Exposure (CVE) is a list of common identifiers for publicly known cybersecurity vulnerabilities. With a standardized description for each vulnerability or exposure, they are more of a dictionary than a database. CVE helps provide rankings on discovered vulnerabilities, but does not provide security compliance standards.
A penetration tester has been hired to perform a security assessment for a startup firm. The report lists a total of ten vulnerabilities, with five of them identified as critical. The client does not have the resources to immediately remediate all vulnerabilities. Which of the following would be the BEST suggestion for the client?
A.Implement the least impactful of the critical vulnerabilities’ remediations first, and then address other critical vulnerabilities
B.Fix the most critical vulnerability first, even if it means fixing the other vulnerabilities may take a very long time.
C.Identify the issues that can be remediated most quickly and address them first.
D.Apply easy compensating controls for critical vulnerabilities to minimize the risk, and then reprioritize remediation.
B.Fix the most critical vulnerability first, even if it means fixing the other vulnerabilities may take a very long time.
Explanation:
The client should fix the most critical vulnerability first, even if it means fixing the other vulnerabilities may take a very long time. Correcting the most critical vulnerability would prevent an attacker from remotely compromising a system easily and possibly obtaining full control.
If the startup firm corrected the least impactful, quickest, or easiest vulnerabilities, then an attacker might be able to control and steal vulnerable information because the most critical vulnerabilities may not be handled.
Which of the following attacks can be prevented by properly shredding all sensitive documents?
A.Fence Jumping
B.Dumpster Diving
C.Tailgating
D.Piggybacking
B.Dumpster Diving
Explanation:
Dumpster diving occurs when someone goes through the trash in the dumpster looking for printed matter that might be helpful in an attack, such as network diagrams, phone lists, and organizational charts. It is best addressed by shredding all sensitive documents.
Piggybacking cannot be prevented by shredding all sensitive documents. Piggybacking is a social engineering attack that involves entering a facility which you are not authorized to enter by doing so when an authorized person opens the door using their credentials stored on a key card.
Fence jumping cannot be prevented by shredding all sensitive documents. This can only be done by making the fence tall enough to discourage a determined attacker. Another option is to have the top of the fence strung with razor wire.
Tailgating cannot be prevented by shredding all sensitive documents. Often you will see the terms piggybacking and tailgating used synonymously. However, there is a subtle difference between the two. Piggybacking implies that the person who has opened the door with their credentials knows the individual following them in through the secure door. Tailgating means that an individual following through the door is unknown by the person with credentials.
You want to share the results of your Nmap with other members of your team. Which parameter stores scan results in Normal, XML, and Grep-able formats?
A.-oG
B.-oA
C.-oX
D.-oN
B.-oA
Explanation:
The -oA parameter of the Nmap stores outputs in Normal, XML, and Grep-able output formats all at once. The following exhibit shows an example of this command:
The -oX parameter of the Nmap command changes the output behavior to an XML output. XML is easily parsed by software, which makes it preferred for many applications. The following is an example of this command:
The -oN parameter of the Nmap command changes the output behavior to a normal output. It is meant for human users to read, and the output will be analyzed. The following is an example of this command:
The -oG parameter of the Nmap command changes the output behavior to a Grep-able output. This format is easy to manipulate with simple Unix tools. The following is an example of this command:
Which of the following is NOT likely to be carried out after a penetration test is completed?
A.Remove the tools installed during the test.
B.Remove accounts created for the test.
C.Disable all services used during the test.
D.Remove shells created during the test.
C.Disable all services used during the test.
Explanation:
Disabling all services used during the test is NOT likely to be carried out after a penetration test is completed. You should only disable those services that were explicitly enabled for the penetration test. All other services will likely be valid services running in the enterprise.
You should perform the following actions after completing a penetration test:
Remove shells created during the test. Remove accounts created for the test. Remove the tools installed during the test.
Recently you heard of an organization that suffered a man-in-the-middle attack leveraging fake certificates. You would like to use a technique that always verifies that the name on the certificate matches the name of the system attempting to use the certificate. What is this technique called?
A.DNSSEC
B.OCSP
C.certificate pinning
D.wildcard certificates
C.certificate pinning
Explanation:
Certificate pinning is a technique performed by a software client to authenticate public keys and help protect against man-in-the-middle attacks. It verifies that the CA name and/or the host name matches that on the certificate.
Domain Name System Security Extension (DNSSEC) is a form of DNS that makes additional checks of name resolutions. DNSSEC adds two important features to the DNS protocol, but does not prevent certificate issues.
Data origin authentication Data integrity protection
Wildcard certificates are used to certify the identity of devices and users in multiple sub-domains of a domain. It is not used to enhance certificate security.
Online Certificate Status Protocol (OCSP) is an Internet protocol used to check the status of a certificate in real time, as opposed to using CRLs. It does not address the certificate issues described in the scenario.
To perform network reconnaissance, you use Nmap to perform a SYN scan. After completing this scan, you want to create more custom packets and gain more control over the traffic you are sending. Which tool should you use to do this?
A.DNSrecon
B.Scapy
C.Metasploit
D.Recon-ng
B.Scapy
Explanation:
Scapy is a program in which enables users to create, adjust, modify, and send network packets. It allows the user to gain more control over the packets being sent.
Recon-ng is a tool built to conduct the initial phase in reconnaissance of an offensive security exercise. With Recon-ng you can configure options, perform recon and output results to different report types.
Metasploit is a framework used in penetration testing that probes systematic vulnerabilities on networks and servers.
DNSrecon is a tool used for DNS-oriented information gathering. It can perform various enumerations, such as zone transfers, domain brute force, and wildcard resolution.
You are attempting to execute an SNMP sweep. After identifying the correct SNMP community string, you find that several live systems do not respond.
Which of the following is NOT a reason a device may not respond?
A.The system is firewalled.
B.The system is offline.
C.An incorrect community string is being used.
D.The TCP three-way handshake is not completing.
D.The TCP three-way handshake is not completing.
Explanation:
Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) does not use the TCP protocol. Therefore, a failure of the three-way handshake is not a possible reason a device may not respond. SNMP uses UDP, not TCP.
Valid reasons why a system may not respond are:
An incorrect community string is being used. The system is offline. The system is firewalled. The SNMP service is disabled.
You want to engage a pen testing company for a series of tests to be performed over the next two years. You do not want to negotiate with the company for each individual test. What type of document could you execute?
A.NDA
B.SOW
C.MSA
D.Rules of Engagement
C.MSA
Explanation:
A master services agreement (MSA) is used to set parameters for ongoing tests, each with their own SOW. Having a MSA on file means that penetration testers do not need to renegotiate terms for every test with established clients, and that companies can quickly create new SOWs with an established pen testing organization.
The statement of work (SOW) defines a number of details concerning a pen test, and must be unique to every pen test performed. It includes:
Timelines, including the report delivery schedule Scope of the work to be performed Location of the work (geographic location or network location) Technical and nontechnical requirements Cost of the penetration tests Payment schedule
The non-disclosure agreement (NDA), which is signed by the tester, requires the tester to keep all company information private. It does not address the details of individual tests.
The rules of engagement specifies allowed actions and allowed targets for an individual test. Its parameters are more specific than those contained in a MSA.
A network security analyst for the U.S Department of Defense (DoD) is looking to gain information about a foreign adversary. What method should be used FIRST to collect and analyze information on this target?
A.Packet crafting
B.OSINT
C.Vulnerability Scanning
D.Port Scanning
B.OSINT
Explanation:
Open source intelligence (OSINT) refers to information collection without the need for any covert methods. This is often a good first step in reconnaissance or threat hunting. Typically, the information could be found on the Internet, and this type of collection can often start with a simple Google search.
Vulnerability scanning is running a tool against a target to see what vulnerabilities, or weaknesses, it may hold. A scanner will often actually use a tool like Nmap to perform the port scan process.
Packet crafting is the process of generating packets to test network devices. Packets are crafted to test IDS, TCP, Firewall, etc. It also helps to find inconsistencies and poor network protocol implementations.
Port scanning is a method to look for open, closed, or filtered ports. An open port represents an avenue into a network. That’s why it’s important to close any unnecessary or unused ports as part of the system hardening process.
You performed a pen test for a retail organization that processes credit card information. During the test you identified several sensitive credit card items were stored with other data that was widely available to users. What concept required by PCI-DSS would rectify this situation?
A.intrusion prevention systems
B.next generation firewalls
C.network segmentation
D.key management
C.network segmentation
Explanation:
Network segmentation, also referred to as data isolation, is one of the key requirements of PCI-DSS and calls for sensitive credit card data, such as PANs, to be stored apart from other sensitive items. In this way, if there is a breach, not every sensitive item can be readily available.
In general, when dealing with any compliance-based pen test, the penetration tester should verify the presence of the following best practices:
Data isolation Secure key management Proper password policies
While next generation firewalls and intrusion prevention systems are certainly an advisable addition to any network holding sensitive data, it is not one of the requirements of PCI-DSS. The main goals of the PCI-DSS standard are as follows:
Build and Maintain a Secure Network Protect Cardholder Data Maintain a Vulnerability Management Program Implement Strong Access Control Measures Regularly Monitor and Test Networks Maintain an Information Security Policy
Your company carries out a penetration test on a regular basis. You are currently reviewing the report from the most recent penetration test. However, you recognize most of the findings as those that were reported in the last penetration test report. What does this indicate?
A.Different tools were used to perform the most recent penetration test.
B.The appropriate mitigations for the vulnerabilities were not deployed after the last penetration test.
C.The current penetration test was not properly completed.
D.A different contractor was used to perform the most recent penetration test.
B.The appropriate mitigations for the vulnerabilities were not deployed after the last penetration test.
Explanation:
If you recognize most of the findings in the report as those that were reported in the last penetration test report, then the appropriate mitigations for the vulnerabilities were not deployed after the last penetration test. If the mitigations had been deployed, the majority, if not all, of those vulnerabilities should be absent from the most recent report.
Using a different contractor or different tools would not cause the same vulnerabilities to show up. Often different contractors and tools are used to increase the likelihood that all vulnerabilities are discovered.
Discovering many of the same vulnerabilities as the last penetration test is not an indication that the penetration test was not properly completed. An improperly completed test is likely to show few to no vulnerabilities.
After completing a penetration test and reviewing the results, it is important for a company to ensure that mitigations are deployed for the vulnerabilities reported in the findings section. Failure to do so is negligent and can result in legal issues. Companies should implement a time frame wherein all mitigations should be implemented.
You want to detect the services running on a targeted host. Which of the following is the correct Nmap command?
A.nmap -sU -T4 192.168.1.1
B.nmap -sV-T4 192.168.1.1
C.nmap -sS -T4 192.168.1.1
D.nmap -sT -T4 192.168.1.1
B.nmap -sV-T4 192.168.1.1
Explanation:
The Nmap service identification command uses the -sV parameter. This gives information on which services are running, including mail or DNS server services. This could help determine the exploits to which a server could be vulnerable.
The -sS parameter of the Nmap command performs a SYN scan. It is an active scan which sends a TCP SYN packet, and does not require a full connection. Depending on the response (or lack thereof), you can determine the status of a port. The following graphic is an example of this command:
The -sT parameter of the Nmap command performs a TCP connect scan. It establishes a full TCP connection with the target. It is the default Nmap scan type when no command is specified. It should only be used when the user does not have permission to read/write raw packets. The following exhibit shows this command:
The -sU parameter of the Nmap command performs a UDP scan. It is used to enumerate DNS, SNMP, or DHCP servers, all of which require UDP packets for communication. The following exhibit shows this command:
A large retail company has hired a white-hat hacker to perform testing in order to detect vulnerabilities in the system. What technique would this hacker use to gather information in the most discreet manner possible?
A.Passive reconnaissance
B.OSINT
C.Active reconnaissance
D.Topology
A.Passive reconnaissance
Explanation:
Passive reconnaissance is a method of gathering information without interacting with the system, leaving little or no trace. This may include activities such gleaning information from publicly available resources.
Active reconnaissance is a method which requires the tester to interact with a target system in order to gain information. This method can be very helpful, but there is risk of detection.
While open source intelligence (OSINT) may be used in passive reconnaissance. it is not a type of reconnaissance method. A webpage can be used to gather more information about a target. For example, the tester can search a public website for key company employee’s names and positions, employee emails and other contact information, technical job openings which may reveal the type of network equipment or other valuable information. These are all details which aid the tester in passive reconnaissance and exploitation.
The network topology is a byproduct that will be learned about during the process of reconnaissance but it is not a reconnaissance technique itself.
The board is discussing the benefits of having a pen test performed. One of the members is concerned that the danger of the pen tester leaking information may outweigh the benefits of the test. What document could help allay these fears?
A.Permission to test document
B.SOW
C.NDA
D.MSA
C.NDA
Explanation:
The non-disclosure agreement (NDA), signed by the tester, requires the tester to keep all company information private.
The permission to test document is a critical document that explicitly authorizes you to attempt to penetrate the client’s network, system, or devices. These documents typically include the dates for which the permission is valid, the locations and types of systems to be penetrated, and the full title of the person authorized to grant permission. Its purpose is not to address confidentiality.
A master services agreement (MSA) is used to set parameters for ongoing tests, each with their own SOW. Having a MSA on file means that penetration testers do not need to renegotiate terms for every test with established clients, and that companies can quickly create new SOWs with an established pen testing organization.
The statement of work (SOW) defines a number of details concerning a pen test, and must be unique to every pen test performed. It includes:
Timelines, including the report delivery schedule Scope of the work to be performed Location of the work (geographic location or network location) Technical and nontechnical requirements Cost of the penetration tests Payment schedule
- occurs when a hacker intercepts messages from a sender, modifies those messages, and sends them to a legitimate receiver
- occurs when IP addresses and host names are given out with the goal of traffic diversion
- occurs when a hacker tries all possible values for such variables as user names and passwords
- occurs when a combination of Internet Protocol (IP) spoofing and Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) messages saturates a network
A. Brute force attack
B. DNS poisoning
C. Man-in-the-middle attack
D. Smurf
- C
- B
- A
- D
The attacks should be matched with the descriptions in the following manner:
Brute force attack - occurs when a hacker tries all possible values for such variables as user names and passwords DNS poisoning - occurs when IP addresses and host names are given out with the goal of traffic diversion Man-in-the-middle attack - occurs when a hacker intercepts messages from a sender, modifies those messages, and sends them to a legitimate receiver Smurf - occurs when a combination of Internet Protocol (IP) spoofing and Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) messages saturates a network
DNS poisoning is similar to ARP poisoning. With ARP poisoning, an attacker sends fake (“spoofed”) Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) messages on a network with the goal of traffic diversion.
You want to employ a Linux distribution mainly aimed at network security monitoring. Which Linux distribution would BEST support network security monitoring?
A.Skadi
B.DEFT
C.ADIA
D.Security onion
D.Security onion
Explanation:
Security Onion is a Linux distribution mainly aimed at network security monitoring. It also has other advanced forensic analysis tools.
The answer is not Skadi. Skadi is an all-in-one solution for parsing collected data. This makes the data easily searchable and allows for the searching through multiple hosts simultaneously.
The answer is not Appliance for Digital Investigation and Analysis (AIDA). AIDA is an appliance with many tools aimed for digital investigation/acquisition. It is VMware-based.
The answer is not the Digital Evidence and Forensics Toolkit (DEFT). This tool is a Linux distribution mainly aimed for the collection of computer forensic evidence.
After being engaged by a client, you executed a SOW to perform a pen test. During the test, you were asked by the client to test an additional system that was not included in the original SOW. The original SOW was not revised and signed, and a new SOW was not executed. If you tested the additional system, what has occurred?
A.corruption of results
B.test dilution
C.task bleed
D.scope creep
D.scope creep
Explanation:
Pen tests are planned and carried out as formal projects. In project management, scope creep occurs when the original project plan is not followed precisely. It typically indicates the addition of tasks or initiatives not included in the original plan scope.
Usually when things are added to the project’s scope, it can be because the client is really happy with how it’s going. But it is essential that when this occurs, the original SOW is updated or a new one is executed to document the additional work. Also, do not be afraid to ask for additional funding when tasks are added to your scope.
Task bleed and test dilution are not terms used when discussing project management and pen tests.
You need to perform a penetration test. You have decided to use an automated vulnerability scanner. What should you check for when the test is complete?
A.False positives
B.Speed and frequency
C.People’s feelings
D.Detection
A.False positives
Explanation:
A.False positives
Communication details are contained in the penetration test’s engagement plan. One of the members of the penetration testing team wants to ensure that they understand the appropriate communication triggers.
Which of the following is NOT a communication trigger?
A.Unexploited findings
B.Indicators of compromise
C.Completion of a testing stage
D.Critical findings
A.Unexploited findings
Explanation:
Unexploited findings is NOT a communication trigger. This information would be contained in the final report.
Communication triggers include: stages of the penetration test, critical findings, and indicators of compromise. These are standard communication triggers. Some organizations may include other communication triggers as part of the engagement plan. It is important that the penetration tester understands these triggers and acts accordingly.
- WEP/WPA cracking
- Warchalking
- Evil twin
A.A rogue access point is configured with the same SSID as a valid access point.
B.Mathematical algorithms are used to determine the pre-shared key used on the access point.
C.SSID and other authentication details regarding a wireless network are placed in a prominent place.
1B
2C
3A
The wireless security issues should be matched with the descriptions in the following way:
WEP/WPA cracking - Mathematical algorithms are used to determine the pre-shared key used on the access point. This is considered a WEP/WPA attack. Warchalking - SSID and other authentication details regarding a wireless network are written down in a prominent public place. Evil twin - A rogue access point is configured with the same SSID as a valid access point.
When performing a compliance-based assessment, which of the following will present the largest challenges to obtaining complete results?
A.lack of assessment tools
B.limited time spent on assessment
C.limited network access
D.limited knowledge by assessor
C.limited network access
Explanation:
n many compliance-based assessments, restrictive rules of engagement, specifically those that limit the areas of testing, are the biggest impediment to good results. Another key problem can be limited access to certain storage areas.
There is no lack of assessment tools available to perform a good assessment. That is not the biggest impediment to good results.
While the knowledge and skill of the assessor will certainly have an effect on results, history has not shown this to be the biggest impediment to good results.
Finally, while there must be proper time given for the assessment, lack of time is not typically the main issue with incomplete results of a compliance-based assessment.`
While performing a penetration test, you encounter several issues that you plan to document in the final report. However, you need to ensure that management is immediately notified of any critical issues documented in the communication escalation path.
Which of the following is MOST likely to result in immediate communication to management?
A.Unpatched applications exist on a system marked for retirement.
B.A finding was discovered regarding an out-of-scope system.
C.A network compromise has previously occurred about which management knows nothing.
D.Encrypted personally identifiable information (PII) was discovered on several systems.
C.A network compromise has previously occurred about which management knows nothing.
Explanation:
Of the situations given, only the network compromise that has previously occurred about which management knows nothing should be immediately reported to management.
None of the other findings are critical, nor are they indicators of compromise. Critical findings and indicators of compromise are the only discoveries that should trigger communication, unless otherwise noted in the communication escalation directions.
Issues with out-of-scope systems should be noted in the final report. However, out-of-scope systems should not be thoroughly tested. Often you may accidentally discover an issue with an out-of-scope system, but issues with out-of-scope systems should only be reported and not investigated further unless priorities change.
Encrypted PII will often exist on multiple systems. However, encrypted PII is usually considered protected (unless a compromised encryption algorithm is being used). This issue would be included in the final report and only considered critical if 1) the PII should not be on the system on which it was discovered, or 2) the encryption algorithm being used to protect the PII has been compromised or is no longer considered secure.
Unpatched applications may exist on systems marked for retirement. However, this is usually not a critical issue because systems marked for retirement are often not updated regularly. The tester should note the discovery in the final report and should instruct the organization that the soon-to-be retired system should be updated if retirement does not take place in the near future (next three months or so).
Communication triggers should include: critical findings, stages, and indicators of prior compromise. All other discoveries should simply be included in the final report.
Sam is reviewing web server logs after an attack. He discovers that many records contain semicolons and apostrophes in queries from end users. What type of attack should Sam suspect?
A.Cross-site scripting
B.LDAP injection
C.Buffer overflow
D.SQL injection
D.SQL injection
Explanation:
In an SQL injection attack, the attacker uses a web application to gain access to an underlying, backend database. Semicolons (;) and apostrophes (‘) are characteristics of these attacks. For example, the single quote in SQL is a limiter, meaning it ends any current SQL string. This is important for attackers to craft true conditions or true statements to bypass authentication or pull more information from a database than allowed.
Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) Injection is an attack that send malicious LDAP queries to a web application that could result in sensitive data disclosure or authentication bypass.
Cross-site scripting (XSS) attacks are a type of injection attack where a malicious script is injected into a website. Because the attacker is feeding the script into a trusted website, the end user’s browser has no way to know that the script is malicious and will execute the script.
A buffer overflow attack revolves around malicious code requiring more memory than is allocated by a buffer. (A buffer is a memory allocation that is designed to hold a finite amount of data.) In other words, the attacker is trying to write more data into an application’s pre-built buffer than it was intended to hold. When an attacker can add data that exceeds the buffer limits, the extra information spills over past the buffer, into adjacent memory where it can then crash the system or execute malicious code.
Which of the following attack types takes advantage of an electronic door opening from the inside when someone approaches?
A.shoulder surfing
B.piggybacking
C.egress sensor attack
D.fence jumping
C.egress sensor attack
Explanation:
An egress sensor attack takes advantage of an electronic door opening from the inside when someone approaches. It does not use shimming but usually uses an “under the door tool” to cause an electronic door to open due to motion on that side of the door.
Fence jumping is exactly what it sounds like. This can only be prevented by making the fence tall enough to discourage a determined attacker. Another option is to have the top of the fence strung with razor wire.
Shoulder surfing is the unauthorized viewing of sensitive information on another user’s screen.
Piggybacking is a social engineering attack that involves entering a facility which you are not authorized to enter by doing so when an authorized person opens the door using their credentials stored on a key card.
Often you will see the terms piggybacking and tailgating used synonymously. However, there is a subtle difference between the two. Piggybacking implies that the person who has opened the door with their credentials knows the individual following them in through the secure door. Tailgating means that an individual following through the door is unknown by the person with credentials.
You are preparing a penetration report. One of the findings indicated that a system is susceptible to SQL injection attacks.
Which of the following mitigation strategies should you recommend?
A.Implement a password complexity policy.
B.Sanitize user input.
C.Implement multi-factor authentication.
D.Harden the SQL server.
B.Sanitize user input.
Explanation:
You should recommend that the company sanitizes user input to prevent SQL injection attacks. You could also recommend that the company parameterizes queries.
Implementing a password complexity policy is the appropriate remediation if you discover that weak passwords are being used, which is not the case here.
Implementing multi-factor authentication is the appropriate remediation if you discover that only a single type of authentication is being used. Multi-factor authentication can include: something you know (username and password), something you have (smart card), something you are (biometrics), somewhere you are (GPS or particular host), and something you do (signature dynamics or typing patterns).
Hardening the SQL server is the appropriate remediation if you find unnecessary open services. Hardening steps include:
Remove unnecessary services and applications. Remove unnecessary accounts. Close unnecessary ports. Implement patch management. Deploy security templates and group policies. Implement configuration baselines using network access control.
While attacking InterConn’s network, you see an attack vector against their server using the following address:
http://example.interconn.com/example.php?file=http://www.malicious-example.com/malicious.php
What attack is being used here?
A.SQL injection
B.XSS
C.Directory traversal
D.RFI
D.RFI
Explanation:
Remote file inclusion (RFI) is being used here. RFI is an attack vector that was more popular several years ago, but unfortunately people and companies are still lazy about sanitizing PHP: Hypertext Preprocessor (PHP). PHP is a general-purpose programming language used with HTML to create web sites. You can still find ways of running shells in the scenario being described.
File inclusions themselves are normal, and useful, parts of a server-side scripting language. They are there to help in maintenance, update, and for code-editing. They are there also to allow web applications to pull and read files from the server’s file system. They are vulnerable to LFI and RFI attacks.
Local file inclusion (LFI) and remote file inclusion (RFI) are similar to the nefarious cross site scripting (XSS) attacks. All of them are forms of code injection, with LFI being less sophisticated and therefore easily preventable. RFI is a method which allows an attacker to employ a script to include a remotely hosted file on the web server. LFI is very similar to RFI, the only difference being that to carry out the LFI attack, the attacker has to use local files on the current server, and RFI uses remote files.
This is not a directory traversal attack. Directory traversal is a way of gaining unauthorized file system access. In a directory traversal attack, also known as path traversal, an attacker enters information in a web form, URL address line, or another input method that gives them access to a file or directory that they shouldn’t have access to, such as adding some periods and a backslash into the address to get to the parent directory.
This is not a cross-site scripting (XSS) attack because XSS is a code injection attack that targets web application input and client-side scripting vulnerabilities. It comes in many flavors such as the more common versions: Stored cross-site scripting (XSS) or persistent XSS, and it occurs when someone has implanted malicious code into the site that is always run when someone accesses that website. The attacker usually accesses the site via login, message board, or some other type of input.
A SQL injection is a type of injection attack in which malicious SQL statements are injected into an input field in a web request and executed on a database server.
A log analysis reveals the following input into a login portal:
Jsmith2)(&)
Admin1
Which type of attack has most likely occurred?
A.Brute Force
B.LDAP Injection
C.XSS
D.SQL Injection
B.LDAP Injection
Explanation:
This is an LDAP injection attack. Because LDAP is a protocol that is often used for authentication, the above is an example of an LDAP injection to bypass authentication.
Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) Injection is an attack that send malicious LDAP queries to a web application that could result in sensitive data disclosure or authentication bypass. The & symbol will end the query after the first line. So, the attacker is trying to create a condition that effectively asks the back end database “check to see if we have a valid user named Jsmith2”. If so, allow for authentication. The attacker doesn’t need to enter a proper, matching password since the query is ended prematurely.
A brute force attack is a technique used to figure out a user’s credentials by trying every possible combination until it cracks the user’s credentials.
Cross-site scripting (XSS) attacks are injection attacks where malicious script is injected into a website. Because the attacker is feeding the script into a trusted website, the end user’s browser has no way to know that the script is malicious and will execute the script. An example of a cross site script would be Deface();.
In a SQL injection attack, the attacker uses a web application to gain access to an underlying, backend database. Semicolons (;) and apostrophes (‘) are characteristics of these attacks. For example, the single quote in SQL is a limiter, meaning it ends any current SQL string. This is important for attackers to craft true conditions or true statements to bypass authentication or pull more information from a database than allowed.
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named nutex.com. The network has a Windows Server 2012 server, named DNS1, that has the AD DS and the DNS server roles installed. You have several visitors and guests visit your office. You notice that users that are not part of the domain are registering A records in the nutex.com zone.
You need to prevent computers that are not members of the domain from registering with DNS. Which PowerShell script should you run?
A.Set-DnsServerPrimaryZone -Name “nutex.com” -DynamicUpdate “Secure”
B.Set-DnsServerPrimaryZone -Name “nutex.com” -ReplicationScope “Forest”
C.Set-DnsServerPrimaryZone -Name “nutex.com” -SecondaryServers 10.0.0.2
D.Set-DnsServerPrimaryZone -Name “nutex.com” -DynamicUpdate “NonsecureAndSecure”
A.Set-DnsServerPrimaryZone -Name “nutex.com” -DynamicUpdate “Secure”
Explanation:
You should run the Set-DnsServerPrimaryZone -Name “nutex.com” -DynamicUpdate “Secure” command from PowerShell. This command will specify that the nutex.com zone should allow only secure dynamic updates, rather than secure and nonsecure updates. Secure dynamic updates prevent users who are not members of the domain from registering in the zone.
If you had a user who was in a workgroup with the same name as the zone and the zone was configured for dynamic updates, then the user’s computer could register a host record in the zone. In this scenario, you know the zone is stored on a server that is also a domain controller because it has the AD DS role installed. A DNS server that is a domain controller can have a zone that is an Active Directory-integrated zone. An Active Directory-integrated zone can support secure dynamic updates, which only allow computers that are members of the domain to create a host record in the zone.
All other answers are incorrect, because they do not change the properties of the zone to only support secure dynamic updates.
You should not run the Set-DnsServerPrimaryZone -Name “nutex.contoso.com” -DynamicUpdate “NonsecureAndSecure” command from PowerShell. This command will specify that the nutex.com zone allow both secure and nonsecure dynamic updates.
You should not run the Set-DnsServerPrimaryZone -Name “nutex.com” -SecondaryServers 10.0.0.2 command from PowerShell. This command adds the address and name of another DNS server that is allowed to receive zone transfers, which would be a required step (either in the GUI or using PowerShell) to make it possible for a second DNS server to host a secondary copy of the zone.
You should not run the Set-DnsServerPrimaryZone -Name “nutex.com” -ReplicationScope “Forest” command from PowerShell. This command will change the scope of replication for the nutex.com zone to forest-wide.
As part of a WLAN pen test, your team has set up an AP solely for the purpose of sniffing and capturing probe requests sent by stations in your environment. The ultimate aim of the test is to generate SSIDs on the AP to which it is hoped that the stations will attempt to associate.
What type of attack is this?
A.Deauthentication
B.KARMA
C.KRACK
D.Downgrade
B.KARMA
Explanation:
This is a Karma Attacks Radioed Machines Automatically (KARMA) attack. In this attack the goal is to enumerate and generate SSIDs which the stations (which can include phones, laptops, and anything with a radio) have saved in their Preferred Network List (PNL). These are network profiles saved in the station complete with credentials that stations attempt to locate with probe requests at all times when they are not associated with an AP.
This is not a key reinstallation attack (KRACK). When successfully exploited, that attack, which targets WPA and WPA2, could allow unauthenticated attackers to reinstall a previously used encryption or integrity key. They can then use the key to decrypt captured traffic. Many capture utilities have the ability to use the key to decrypt the traffic in real time as it is captured.
This is not a downgrade attack. This attack forces a system to use a weaker encryption protocol, one where hopefully for the tester or hacker it will be easier to crack the key. The Padding Oracle On Downgraded Legacy Encryption (POODLE) vulnerability in OpenSSL is an example.
This is not a deauthentication attack. That is a DoS attack in which the tester or hacker sends deauthentication frames, which causes stations to disconnect from the AP making wireless communication impossible.
You are running a Nmap TCP FIN scan against a target. The scan output shown below indicates that port 53 is open.
Which of the following occurred that would indicate that the port is open?
A.No response received
B.TCP FIN received
C.RST packet received
D.SYN/ACK received
B.TCP FIN received
Explanation:
The given exhibit show that the nmap command is being run with the -v -sF parameters. The -sF parameter runs a TCP FIN scan. With a TCP FIN scan, the TCP FIN bit is set in the packet header. The expected behavior when receiving such a packet is for a receiving target with an open port to just ignore or drop the packet. Therefore, if there is no response, that means the packet made it to its destination, was then dropped, which indicates an open port.
The answer is not No response received. It is important to note that a non-response doesn’t always mean an open port because a basic TCP FIN scan cannot distinguish between an open port versus a filtered port.
Also note that a TCP FIN scan is not useful when scanning Windows-based systems, as it will respond with RST packets, no matter if the port is open or closed.
A web application is finally finished. The developer wants to test the code of the application for errors and weaknesses before it goes out to a full Q/A.
Which of the following scan processes should the software developer perform? (Choose two.)
A.Dynamic
B.Static
C.Compliance
D.Vulnerability
A.Dynamic
D.Vulnerability
Explanation:
The software developer should perform a dynamic vulnerability scan. Dynamic scans are performed while the software is running, preferably in a sandbox or non-production environment, and do not have back-end access to the code.
Vulnerability scanning is a category of tools under the Dynamic Application Security Testing (DAST) tools. It is always best to run vulnerability scanning against a web application because it is going to find issues such as cross-site scripting, SQL injection, and command injection. A good example of this tool is Open Web Application Security Project Zed Attack Proxy, or OWASP ZAP.
Static analysis is what the name implies, investigating something when it is not up and running. Usually this involves looking under the hood, tearing apart the code, and seeing what would happen if it was alive and running. This analysis can be done on a number of programs, even malware, where it’s considered safer and/or won’t be intrusive. Hopefully a static analysis was already performed before releasing the software online, or else the vulnerability scan will find many issues.
Compliance scans, by their very nature, are only interested in whatever compliance rules your company needs to follow. For instance, if you are a hospital or medical clinic, you need to be in compliance with HIPAA. In this scenario, the developer should perform an overall vulnerability/dynamic scanning of this web app for errors and weaknesses.
Which of the following security issues can be mitigated with deadbolts?
A.lock picking
B.entry key theft
C.lock bypass
D.failsafe
C.lock bypass
Which of the following security issues can be mitigated with deadbolts?
A.lock picking
B.entry key theft
C.lock bypass
D.failsafe
C.lock bypass
Explanation:
Lock bypass is a technique where the lock mechanism is never engaged or attacked but rather is bypassed. An example is where an attacker inserts a sprung steel device to retract the spring-loaded catch that restrains the shackle, preventing it from operating. The use of deadbolts helps avoid lock bypass. The locking mechanism and bolt are operated by the key. This prevents the device from being opened without the locking mechanism itself being properly operated.
Lock picking cannot be prevented by deadbolt. This is an attack on the lock mechanism itself rather than an attempt to go around the mechanism.
Entry key theft cannot be mitigated with deadbolts because the stolen key will operate and unlock the deadbolt.
Failsafe is a principle by which an electronic door defaults to an unlocked state when power is lost to the door. This cannot be prevented with deadbolts, as the deadbolt will open when power is lost.
In the process of performing a pen test, one of your associates spent a significant amount of time outside in the smoking area near the trash bins discussing a wide range of topics with employees, such as favorite sports teams, favorite bands, and other topics about which the employees seemed passionate.
What is this social engineering technique called?
A.spear phishing
B.dumpster diving
C.pretexting
D.elicitation
D.elicitation
Explanation:
This information gathering technique is called elicitation. It is the art of getting information without directly asking for it. Using this technique testers (or hackers) use open-ended questions to prompt users to share information while in an unguarded mental state. When discussing topics of interest to the users, they often share data that could be useful in compromising a network, such as data bits that could be used in passwords (favorite team, favorite band).
While it did happen near the trash bins, this is NOT dumpster diving. This is the process of going through the trash to locate written material that may be helpful, such as network diagrams and organizational charts.
This is not spear phishing. Spear phishing is a form of phishing that is targeted to a single individual rather than to thousands of users.
This is not pretexting. Pretexting is the process of establishing a reason to talk to someone as a method of putting them at ease and lowering their guard. One of the ways of doing this is to present yourself as an IT technician. Pretexting often involves a scam where the liar pretends to need information in order to confirm the identity of the person they are talking to (password) .
You are designing a pen test in which you want to see if you can successfully send unsolicited text messages to company smartphones and laptops.
What type of attack are you simulating?
A.RFID cloning
B.Jamming
C.Bluejacking
D.WPS implementation weakness
C.Bluejacking
Explanation:
You are testing the likelihood that a Bluejacking attack will succeed. In this attack, the Bluetooth service is utilized to send unsolicited text messages to devices where the Bluetooth service is enabled and the device is left in a discoverable mode.
You are not simulating a WPS implementation weakness attack. This is an attack on the Wi-Fi Protected Setup (WPS) service, which was designed to make attaching new devices to a home wireless network easier by transmitting the WPA or WPA2 PIN to the new device. By using a utility called Reaver, the PIN can be cracked.
You are not simulating an RFID cloning attack. In this attack, RFID tag information is captured wirelessly as it is transmitting between label and reader. In some cases, this cloned information may be that which is required to enter a secure room or area (user badges).
You are not simulating a jamming attack. This is a DoS attack in which the frequency the company AP uses is jammed, preventing all communication with the AP.
As a digital forensics investigator you find the following code on a system.
super_code = “pentest+” new_code = []
for letters in super_code[0:6:2]:
new_code.append(letters+” “)
print(new_code)
What is the correct output of this code?
A.[‘p’, ‘e’, ‘n’, ‘t’, ‘e’, ‘s’, ‘t’]
B.[‘p’, ‘n’, ‘e’]
C.[‘p’, ‘e’, ‘n’, ‘t’]
D.[‘p’, ‘e’, ‘n’, ‘t’, ‘e’]
B.[‘p’, ‘n’, ‘e’]
Explanation:
The code starts with the variable super_code being set to pentest+. It then initializes another variable, new_code, but it is set to be an empty list.
The for loop will go through all of the indented code as long as the condition is true. Therefore, in our case, the loop will occur the number of times that there are characters in super_code. Thus, we get eight cycles through the loop. However, the numbers within the brackets change the situation. The three numbers signify the following [starting position: ending position (not inclusive): the step value]. In this question, we have [0:6:2], which in turn means that the letter would be p for the first iteration. Then it would be n because we go from 0 to 2 (due to the step value) and the index value of 2 gives us n. Once again, we go from 2 to 4, which gives us e. Now the step value brings us to 6. However, since the end position is 6, it is not inclusive. Therefore, we are left with p, n, and e.
As the for loop is iterating, each of the letters is appended to the list new_code. The last line calls the print function to print the list new_code.
Shimming is an example of which of the following?
A.egress sensor attack
B.lock picking
C.lock bypass
D.badge cloning
C.lock bypass
Explanation:
Shimming, in which a thin slip of material is inserted between the door and the lock mechanism, is an example of lock bypass. Lock bypass is a technique where the lock mechanism is never engaged or attacked, but rather is bypassed by inserting a sprung steel device to retract the spring-loaded catch that restrains the shackle, preventing it from operating. The use of deadbolts helps to avoid lock bypass.
Shimming is not an example of lock picking because in lock picking the lock mechanism is attacked, not bypassed.
Shimming is not used in an egress sensor attack. This is an attack that takes advantage of an electronic door opening from the inside when someone approaches. It does not use shimming but usually uses an “under the door tool” to cause an electronic door to open due to motion on that side of the door.
Shimming is not used in security badge cloning. One of the most common techniques to do this is to clone radio-frequency identification tags on the badges.
The value of the target has the largest effect on which characteristic of the pen test?
A.rules of engagement
B.budget
C.NDA
D.schedule
B.budget
Explanation:
When critical resources, or targets, are high-value or mission-critical, organizations tend to spend more time and money to test these against vulnerabilities. Therefore, the budget is most affected by the value of the target being pen tested.
The value of the target will not impact the schedule. What will impact the schedule is any need to assess resources under heavy loads, which is typically at certain times of the day.
While the rules of engagement can be used to exempt a high-value target from assessment, its value will not affect the rules of engagement if the target needs to be assessed.
Because the NDA typically prohibits the tester sharing any information from the test, the value of a target will not affect the NDA.
While attacking the network at InterConn, you were able to do some VLAN hopping around their supposedly segmented networks and you scored a hit.
Which of the following best practices would have helped to protect against VLAN hopping and made the pen tester’s job harder? (Choose all that apply.)
A.Administratively configure access ports as access ports.
B.You should control Spanning Tree features to stop unknown devices or all users from manipulating the controls.
C.Limit the number of MAC addresses learned on a given port.
D.Disable Dynamic Trunking Protocol.
B.You should control Spanning Tree features to stop unknown devices or all users from manipulating the controls.
C.Limit the number of MAC addresses learned on a given port.
Explanation:
All of these options are correct. VLAN hopping is a method of gaining access to traffic on other VLANs that would normally not be accessible. There are two primary methods of VLAN hopping: switch spoofing and double tagging.
When you perform a switch spoofing attack, you imitate a trunking switch by sending the respective VLAN tag and the specific trunking protocols.
Double tagging is modifying the ethernet frame on a packet to allow packets to go through any VLAN. This works due to inherent defaults in many switches and how they process tags, If you put two tags on the ethernet frame of a packet the switch will, by default, only remove one tag and the frame is still tagged, so the packet moves on inside the network. Now there are things to remember on this attack, it’s only one way as it’s impossible to do this on a return packet.
Several best practices can help mitigate VLAN hopping and other Layer 2 attacks. The following are a few examples of best practices for securing your infrastructure, including Layer 2:
Select an unused VLAN (other than VLAN 1 as it is the default) and use it as the native VLAN for all your trunks. Do not use this native VLAN for any of your enabled access ports as there are no default controls in place and it stays empty in case of an attack. Administratively configure access ports as access ports so that users cannot negotiate a trunk. Disable the negotiation of trunking (that is, do not allow Dynamic Trunking Protocol [DTP]). Limit the number of MAC addresses learned on a given port with the port security feature. This will lock down security in its most basic form. The feature remembers the Ethernet MAC address connected to the switch port and allows only that MAC address to communicate on that port. If any other MAC address tries to communicate through the port, port security will disable the port. Control Spanning Tree features to stop users or unknown devices from manipulating the controls. You can do so by using the BPDU Guard and Root Guard features.
Dynamic Trunking Protocol (DTP) is a proprietary Cisco networking protocol for the purpose of running connections between trunk lines to be able to talk to each other. Because this is no longer a very secure protocol, it should be restricted from anyone who is not a sysadmin.
Following these best practices can help prevent a user from maliciously negotiating a trunk with a switch and then having full access to each of the VLANs by using custom software on the computer.
At Interconn, you are running a vulnerability scan during the working day. You are cognizant of the accessible bandwidth and how many attack threads are running.
If your goal is to reduce bandwidth usage, which two attacks must you change the settings of or decide not to run, depending on your project scope? (Choose two.)
A.Fragmentation B.Flooding C.Decoy D.Frequency E.Denial-of-service
B.Flooding
E.Denial-of-service
Explanation:
You should either change the settings for or not run denial-of-service (DoS) attacks. These flooding attacks include:
Smurfing: Smurfing is a type of denial-of-service attack that floods the network with a sudden massive volume of traffic by using, and manipulating, IP addresses. This differentiates from your normal DoS by using the broadcast protocols to amplify the attacks in the network to be as large as they want. Smurfing attacks are less popular today because we don’t have the openness of early broadcast protocols. DoS/Ping Flooding: This attack runs by using/abusing the ping function to send a flood of ICMP echo requests over the target network, causing it to get so congested it crashes. This does not do damage to the network beyond putting it out of commission until the attack stops. DDoS: When the attack traffic comes from multiple devices, the attack becomes a DDoS or distributed denial-of-service attack.
These attacks are meant to take a network or device offline. Their purpose is to send so many requests or packets into the network or device that it stops functioning.
Fragmentation is an interesting option to run in Nmap or Zenmap. It is meant to get around firewalls and IDS, so by its very nature is a quiet option to run. It should not greatly affect bandwidth, as opposed to a DoS or flooding attack.
Decoy is another stealth option in Nmap. It acts as a manual VPN as it tells the network logs or anyone listening that you are at a different IP address. Again, this type of test would not greatly affect bandwidth.
Frequency is not too big of an issue, it depends on your project scope and when your attacks are happening. If they happen during normal office hours, you are not going to stand out with sending out some carefully crafted packets. Where you will stand out is when you flood the network with DoS ICMP packets grinding the place to a halt.
