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Cyber Transport > Cyber Transport Block 4 > Flashcards

Cyber Transport Block 4 Flashcards

0
Q

What are the three basic network configurations?

A

Centralized
Peer to peer
Server base

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1
Q

A system of independent computers that are interconnected together to share data and resources is called______________.

A

Network

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2
Q

Which basic network configuration uses “dumb terminals” along with a mainframe computer?

A

Centralized computing

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3
Q

_______ is the standard for optical transport and is capable of transmitting data in excess 1Gbps

A

Sonet

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4
Q

The most popular physical network architecture in use today Is called________.

A

Eithernet

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5
Q

The ________ topology uses cable segments from each computer that are connected to a centralized component such as a hub.

A

Star

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6
Q

A system of rules and procedures that govern communications between two or more devices on a network is called a ___________.

A

Protocol

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7
Q

The _________ layer in protocol stack ensures that packets are delivered error free and in sequence.

A

Transport

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8
Q

Which transport protocol category establishes, maintains and breaks a connection with the receiving system?

A

Connection -oriented

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9
Q

The user datagram protocol (UDP) falls under the ________ ________ classification.

A

Connectionless oriented

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10
Q

What concept of TCP/IP prevent network congestion by ensuring transmitting devices do not overwhelm receiving device with data?

A

Flow control

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11
Q

A______ is the combination of an IP address and a port number.

A

Socket

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12
Q

An example of an exterior routing protocol used to link several LAN/MANs together is the _________ _________ __________.

A

Border gateway protocol

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13
Q

What protocol layer transmits the unstructured, raw bit stream over a physical medium?

A

Physical layer

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14
Q

The______ __________ ___________ is the United States representative to the international organization of standardization.

A

American national standards institute (ANSI)

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15
Q

What is the term for a standard development by a company for that company’s products only?

A

Propriety

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16
Q

The ___________ is a standard that has been officially approved by a recognized standards committee.

A

De Jure standard

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17
Q

List the three specifications for the 802 series of standards.

A
  • type of network interface card
  • components for LAN, MAN, WAN
  • layout of connection pins
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18
Q

What IEEE 802 category defines standards for broadband wireless?

A

802.16

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19
Q

What IEEE 802 category defines standards for wireless LAN networks?

A

802.11

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20
Q

What device is designed to establish, maintain, and terminate a connection and transfer data without regards to the contents?

A

DCE

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21
Q

A ________ is a device that is added to a network to extend the length of a cable.

A

Repeater

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22
Q

A ______ is a device that can connect two or more LAN segments together and uses software to preform switching functions.

A

Bridge

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23
Q

Which device function as a translator between systems using different protocols on the same network?

A

Gateway

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24
Q

A______ creates a virtual private network through a process called “tunneling”

A

VPN connection

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25
Q

What type of clock uses an atomic resonance frequency standard as it’s time keeping element?

A

Atomic clock

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26
Q

_________ is the process by which a subject professes an identity and accountability is initiated.

A

Identification

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27
Q

What are the six methods of identification and authentication?

A 
Knowledge base (password)
Poisson-based (token)
Biometric- base( fingerprint)
Combining method
Ticket authentication 
Sign on
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28
Q

Which I&A method that uses a token that the system can recognize by the host is called________.

A

Possession based

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29
Q

_________ methods provide a high level of security because authentication is directly related to a “users behavior or physiological characteristic.

A

Biometric

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30
Q

The use of prescribed safeguard and controls to prevent reconstruction of sensitive or classified information is called__________.

A

Remanence security

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31
Q

Which method of destruction removes classified and sensitive information from media to render the information unrecoverable by technical means?

A

Sanitizing media

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32
Q

_____________ is the DOD’s practical strategy for achieving information assurance in today’s network-dependent environments.

A

Defense in depth.

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33
Q

What are the three elements that make up the defense in depth strategy?

A

People
Operation
Technology

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34
Q

What is the second element of the defense in depth strategy that focuses on all the activities required to sustain an organizations security on a day-to-day basis?

A

Operations

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35
Q

_____________ is a network architectural concept design for network security as established by the Air Force

A

Barrier reef

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36
Q

___________ is what protects the bases “network perimeter” in accordance to Air Force security policies

A

Boundary protection

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37
Q

The ______________ router is controlled by the integrated network operations and security center (INOSC) and is the first line of defense for Air Force bases.

A

Air Force SDP

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38
Q

A pice of hardware or software program that examines data passing into your computer or network is called a _____________.

A

Firewall

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39
Q

An__________ system scans, audits and monitors the security infrastructure for signs of unauthorized access or abuse in progress.

A

Intrusion detection

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40
Q

The ability to identify and report vulnerabilities at the host and network level to protect resources directly managed by NCC is called _____________.

A

Internal control

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41
Q

___________ limits access to base systems based on roles or identification that reflects the degree of the users need-to-know and privileges.

A

Access control

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42
Q

What is the procedural method that provides the capability to prioritize and guarantee network access to traffic at various levels of mission criticality?

A

Access preservation

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43
Q

What are the three sanctioned tools that from the foundation of combat information transport system (CITS)?

A

Internet security system(ISS)
Intruder alert
Enterprise security manger (ESM)

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44
Q

The __________ performs automated, distributed or event-driven probes of geographically dispersed network services and prioritized scan results and remediation information in clear reports that allow users to respond quickly to critical vulnerabilities.

A

Internet security system

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45
Q

___________ is an agent based intrusion detection tool used by INOSC and NCC operations to detect unauthorized activity on selected network hosts, key servers, and critical workstations.

A

Intruder alert

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46
Q

Which Air Force approved tool runs on a management server and has agents installed on hosts to run checks based on vulnerabilities of a particular operating system.

A

Enterprise security manger

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47
Q

The two primary goals of anti-virus software are______ and _______.

A

Prevention

Detection

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48
Q

Automated security incident measurement system (ASIMS) logs all connections and looks for suspicious events that enter a _______ network.

A

Base

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49
Q

A network__________ policy focuses on controlling the network traffic and usage.

A

Security

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50
Q

What are the three types of perimeter networks?

A

Outmost perimeter
Internal perimeter
Innermost perimeter

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51
Q

The_______ network is the most insecure area of your network infrastructure.

A

Outermost

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52
Q

A ___________ is an access control device, performing perimeter security by determining which packets are allowed or denied into a network.

A

Firewall

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53
Q

What filtering firewall works by examining packets and comparing them to a list of rules based on source of data, intended destination, and the port number the data was sent from?

A

Packet filtering firewall

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54
Q

A____________ firewall examines more than just addresses and port information of the data by looking deeper at the actual application data.

A

Stateful packet inspection

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55
Q

_______ management is the process of detecting, isolating and correcting network problems.

A

Fault

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56
Q

What are the five network management domains as defined by IOS?

A 
Fault management 
Configuration management 
Account management 
Performance management 
Security management
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57
Q

Periodically the network management software can send out a message to others devices asking them for their status which is called?

A

Polling

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58
Q

The final step in fault management is called ______ the problem

A

Fix

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59
Q

The goal of _______ _________ is to monitor network and system configurations so the effect on network operations of various versions of hardware and software can be tracked and managed.

A

System configuration

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60
Q

Storing data in a database such as relational database management system (RDMS) to allow quick access to the number of routers in a building falls under _______ management.

A

Configuration

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61
Q

“Fine tuning” a network operations capabilities fall under__________.

A

Performance

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62
Q

_________ is combination of protocols, each layer has it own set of rules and defines the rules of each layer in the OSI reference model

A

Protocol stack

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63
Q

What is the management of network usage, costs, charges and access to resources?

A

Account management

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64
Q

The goal of _________ management is to ensure all users have adequate network resources and they are regulated and distributed accordingly.

A

Account

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65
Q

Securing access points to sensitive information on a network is part of _________ management

A

Security

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66
Q

True/false

Security management under FCAPS deals with physical and operating system security.

A

False

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67
Q

As part of security management ________ _______ ________ should be used to provide a basic level of security for accessing a network.

A

Access control lists (ACL)

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68
Q

The final step in security management is _________ the secure access points.

A

Maintaining

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69
Q

_________________ are another name for communication computer facility records.

A

Central office records

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70
Q

______ is a datebase designed to proactively manage small, medium, and large scale enterprise network from local, regional, and central locations simultaneously.

A

CAIRS OSS

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71
Q

Which software was adopted by the Air Force as the standard application to generate and maintain telephone central office records?

A

Telecommunications management system

TMS

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72
Q

What is another name for the action request system?

A

Remedy action request system

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73
Q

A central point to receive help on various computer issue is called a__________.

A

Help desk

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75
Q

The connection protocol that just sends out the packet to the receiving system and does not check to see if it was received?

A

Connectionless-oriented

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76
Q

TCP/IP uses what connectionless transport protocol?

A

User Datagram Protocol (UDP)

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77
Q

What is UDP best used for?

A

To send small amounts of data for which guaranteed delivery is not required and minor packet loss can be tolerated (VOIP, video-confereincing, streaming audio and video, online games)

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78
Q

Does UDP use windowing or acknowledgments?

A

No

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79
Q

What protocols use UDP?

A

TFTP, SNMP, DHCP, DNS

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80
Q

What is the 3rd layer of the OSI model?

A

Network layer (N3twork)

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81
Q

What is the transport layer responsible for?

A

logical addressing and routing of the data packets from the source to the destination network device

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82
Q

Network Layer protocols are divided into what 2 categories?

A

Routed and Routing

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83
Q

What are the 2 things a protocol describes?

A

The format a message must take, and the way computers must exchange a message within the context of a particular activity

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84
Q

What is a Routed Protocol?

A

A network layer protocol that provides enough information in its header to allow a packet/segment/frame to be forwarded from one host to another based on the addressing through the router

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85
Q

Is Internet Protocol (IP) a routed protocol?

A

Yes

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86
Q

Define IP

A

Connectionless, unreliable, best-effort delivery system protocol

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87
Q

What 5 parts make up an IP packet?

A

Source and destination address, protocol identifier, checksum, time to live (TTL)

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88
Q

What is TTL (Time to live)

A

It tells each router between source and destination how long the packet has to remain on the network, by counting seconds, hops, or both

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89
Q

What are the 8 protocols that IP uses as its carrier to pass through a router?

A

DNS, FTP, HTTP, SMTP, SNMP, ICMP, Telnet, SSH

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90
Q

Define DNS

A

Domain Name System. Translates names of domains and their publicly advertised network nodes on to IP addresses

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91
Q

Define FTP

A

File Transfer Protocol. Download and upload files from the internet

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92
Q

Define HTTP

A

Hyper Text Transfer Protocol. Identifies to the browser what protocol should be used

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93
Q

Define SMTP

A

Simple Mail Transfer Protocol. Email servers use it to send and receive email using TCP

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94
Q

Define SNMP

A

Simple Network Management Protocol. Facilitates the exchange of management information between network devices. Allows network managers to monitor traffic.

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95
Q

Define ICMP

A

Internet Control Message Protocol. Sends and recieves status reports about information being transmitted. Often used to control flow between routers.

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96
Q

Define Telnet (aka VTY)

A

Terminal Emulation. Software to remotely access another device. Often used for remote admin of routers and switches. BANNED by the Air Force on the operational network

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97
Q

Define SSH

A

Secure Shell. Network protocol allowing data to be exchanged using a secure channel between 2 networked devices. Provides encryption for confidentiality and integrity of data on an unsecure network

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98
Q

What is a Routing Protocol?

A

Supports a routed protocol by providing mechanisms for sharing routing information. Routing protocol messages move between the routers to update and maintain tables

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99
Q

What are the 2 classes of routing protocols?

A

Interior Gateway Protocols (IGPs) and Exterior Gateway Protocols (EGPs). Classified by how the operate with regard to an Autonomous System

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100
Q

Interior routing protocols operate where?

A

Inside a local network

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101
Q

What are the 5 interior routing protocols?

A

RIP, IGRP, EIGRP, OSPF, IS-IS

102
Q

Define RIP

A

Routing Information Protocols. Uses hop count to determine the direction and distance to any link in the internetwork. Selects the path with fewest hops

103
Q

Define IGRP

A

Interior Gateway Routing Protocol. Selects fastest path based on delay, bandwidth, load, and reliability. Has much higher max hop count than RIP

104
Q

Define EIGRP

A

Enchanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol. Uses a 32 bit metric and faster convergence and lower-overhead bandwidth for superior operating efficiency. AKA hybrid.

105
Q

Define OSPF

A

Open Shortest Path First. Developed for IP networks because RIP was incapable of service large intranets

106
Q

Define IS-IS

A

Intermediate System-to-Intermediate System. Dynamic link-state routing protocol for the OSI protocol stack

107
Q

What is theone example given of an exterior routing protocol?

A

Border Gateway Protocol (BGP).

108
Q

Define BGP

A

Border Gateway Protocol (BGP). Exchanges routing information between autonomous systems while guaranteeing loop-free path selection. Principle routing protocol for ISPs and major companies

109
Q

What is the name of the OSI Layer 2?

A

Data-Link layer

110
Q

What does the Data Link layer do?

A

Conditions and controls data frames between the Network Layer and the Physical Layer. Encapsulates the datagram from the Network layer with physical addressing, network toplogy, error notification, sequencing of frames and flow control

111
Q

What is the information called when it is in the Data Link layer?

A

Frame

112
Q

What is a Cell?

A

Information unit of fixed size whose source and destination are Data Link layer entities

113
Q

The Data Link layer is broken in to what 2 layers?

A

Logical Link Control (LLC) and Media Access Control address (MAC Address)

114
Q

Define LLC

A

Logical Link Control (LLC). Interface between the Network layer and MAC sublayer. Establishes and terminates links, controls, sequences and acknowledges frames

115
Q

Define MAC

A

Media Access Control. Manages media access, checking frame errors, recognizing frame address

116
Q

What is the name of the OSI Layer 1?

A

Physical Layer

117
Q

Define the physical layer

A

Transmits the unstructured raw bistream over a physical medium. Totally hardware oriented, it also defines how the cable attaches to the NIC (shape, # of pins)

118
Q

What are the two Mediac Access Techniques?

A

Centralized Access Control and Distributed Access Control

119
Q

Define Centralized Access Control

A

Workstations are not allowed to xmit until they receive a query from the central controller (Method called “Polling”)

120
Q

Define Distributed Access Control

A

Each station shares responsibility for access control, uses Random Access and Deterministic Access (xmit at any time vs. each waiting a turn)

121
Q

Random Access Methods are contention-based. T/F?

A

TRUE

122
Q

What is the example of Random Access Method given in the book?

A

Collision Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection (CSMA/CD)

123
Q

What happens if a collision occurs with CSMA/CD?

A

Stations use a “back off” period before xmitting again

124
Q

What are the two Deterministic Access Methods given?

A

Token Passing and Slotted Access

125
Q

Define Token Passing

A

Most popular, a station must wait for the token to be passed to it to xmit and then passes the token on. Determines WHEN but not AMOUNT of data to be sent

126
Q

Define Slotted Access

A

Empty dataframe is passed among the stations. Restricts WHEN and AMOUNT of data that can be xmitted

127
Q

The International Oganization for Standardization (ISO) developed what model?

A

7-layer OSI Reference Model

128
Q

Define ANSI’s job

A

US representative to the ISO. Creates and publishes standards for programming, comm, networking

129
Q

Define the ITU

A

International Telecommunications Union. UN agency to develop and standardize comm. Has 3 sub-agencies

130
Q

What are the 3 subagencies of the ITU?

A

ITU-T, ITU-R, ITU-D

131
Q

What standards does IEEE define?

A

Standards related to networking

132
Q

What does the EIA set standards for?

A

Consumer products and electronic components (e.g. RS-232 cable)

133
Q

What standards does TIA devlop?

A

Communication Standards (e.g. EIA/TIA-568-B connector, aka RJ-45)

134
Q

What does the IAB do?

A

Oversees the development of internet standards and protocols, especially IP addressing

135
Q

What is the old name for NIST?

A

National Bureau of Standards

136
Q

What is the independent, non-profit standardization org for telecomm industry in Europe with worldwide projection?

A

ETSI

137
Q

What is the original Military Standard tactical and long haul comm?

A

Military Standard 188 (MIL-STD-188)

138
Q

Which MIL-STD is closely associated with Cyber Transport?

A

MIL-STD-188-114

139
Q

Define a Proprietary Standard

A

Standard developed for a company for that company’s products only. They sometimes “lock” a user into a single vendor’s product

140
Q

Define a Non-proprietary or Open Standard

A

Widely accepted standard designed to apply to equipment and software regardless of the manufacturer. Very advantageous when it comes to networking

141
Q

Define De Facto standard

A

A vendor’s standard that is so widely used to becomes a standard WITHOUT any formal path of implementation

142
Q

Define De Jure standard

A

A standard that has been officially approved by a recognized standards committee. Usually non-proprietary

143
Q

What are the 3 parts to the Hardware Interface?

A

Physical Interface, Electrical Interface, Functional Interface

144
Q

What Interface defines the number of pins, wires, and how they are arranged and attached?

A

Physical Interface

145
Q

What Interface defines the magnitude, duration, and sign of electrical signals?

A

Electrical Interface

146
Q

What Interface defines the interpretation of signals on each wire

A

Functional Interface

147
Q

IEEE 802 provides specifications on what 3 things?

A

Type of network interfaces and cards to use, components for the LAN/MAN/WAN and wireless connection, layout of the connector pins

148
Q

What is required when taking a signal from one format to another?

A

Converter

149
Q

Basically, what does a Transceiver do?

A

Both transmits and receives analog or digital signals

150
Q

What is a transceiver most commonly used for today?

A

Applies signals onto the network wire and detects signals passing through the wire

151
Q

Define a NIC

A

Network Interface Card. Enables a PC to be attached to some sort of network cabling by providing a physical connection point and electrical signal conversion

152
Q

What type of address is associated with every NIC?

A

A MAC address

153
Q

The MAC Address belongs in what layer?

A

Data-Link layer

154
Q

What layers does the NIC work in?

A

Both the physical Itransceiver and connectors )and data-link layers (controller)

155
Q

Define DTE

A

Data Terminal Equipment. Any digital device at the user end which xmits or rcvs data and uses communication equipment for data transfer

156
Q

Define DCE

A

Data Communications Equipment. Devices connected to a communication line for the purpose of transferring data from one point to another. They also establish, maintain, and terminate the connection

157
Q

What are 5 examples of DCE given in the book?

A

Modems (most common), hubs, repeaters, bridges, switches

158
Q

Define a Hub

A

Layer 1 device, broadcasts any packet entering on one port to all other ports

159
Q

Define a Repeater

A

Layer 1 device, compensates for loss of a DIGITAL signal. No filtration or processing done to signal; any signal in is repeated out

160
Q

Define a Bridge

A

Layer 2 device, connects 2 or more LAN segments to effectively make one logical network

161
Q

Define a Switch

A

Layer 2 device, can interconnect LANs of different bandwidth and provide collision-free, high speed comm between network devices

162
Q

Define a Gateway

A

Converts protocols, languages, and architecture to allow communications between different systems but do not alter the original data (Think PC to Mac communication). Slow and expensive

163
Q

Define a Router

A

Layer 3 device, Connect two or more network semgents and support dynamic path assignment

164
Q

The connection protocol that just sends out the packet to the receiving system and does not check to see if it was received?

A

Connectionless-oriented

165
Q

TCP/IP uses what connectionless transport protocol?

A

User Datagram Protocol (UDP)

166
Q

What is UDP best used for?

A

To send small amounts of data for which guaranteed delivery is not required and minor packet loss can be tolerated (VOIP, video-confereincing, streaming audio and video, online games)

167
Q

Does UDP use windowing or acknowledgments?

A

No

168
Q

What protocols use UDP?

A

TFTP, SNMP, DHCP, DNS

169
Q

What is the 3rd layer of the OSI model?

A

Network layer (N3twork)

170
Q

What is the transport layer responsible for?

A

logical addressing and routing of the data packets from the source to the destination network device

171
Q

Network Layer protocols are divided into what 2 categories?

A

Routed and Routing

172
Q

What are the 2 things a protocol describes?

A

The format a message must take, and the way computers must exchange a message within the context of a particular activity

173
Q

What is a Routed Protocol?

A

A network layer protocol that provides enough information in its header to allow a packet/segment/frame to be forwarded from one host to another based on the addressing through the router

174
Q

Is Internet Protocol (IP) a routed protocol?

A

Yes

175
Q

Define IP

A

Connectionless, unreliable, best-effort delivery system protocol

176
Q

What 5 parts make up an IP packet?

A

Source and destination address, protocol identifier, checksum, time to live (TTL)

177
Q

What is TTL (Time to live)

A

It tells each router between source and destination how long the packet has to remain on the network, by counting seconds, hops, or both

178
Q

What are the 8 protocols that IP uses as its carrier to pass through a router?

A

DNS, FTP, HTTP, SMTP, SNMP, ICMP, Telnet, SSH

179
Q

Define DNS

A

Domain Name System. Translates names of domains and their publicly advertised network nodes on to IP addresses

180
Q

Define FTP

A

File Transfer Protocol. Download and upload files from the internet

181
Q

Define HTTP

A

Hyper Text Transfer Protocol. Identifies to the browser what protocol should be used

182
Q

Define SMTP

A

Simple Mail Transfer Protocol. Email servers use it to send and receive email using TCP

183
Q

Define SNMP

A

Simple Network Management Protocol. Facilitates the exchange of management information between network devices. Allows network managers to monitor traffic.

184
Q

Define ICMP

A

Internet Control Message Protocol. Sends and recieves status reports about information being transmitted. Often used to control flow between routers.

185
Q

Define Telnet (aka VTY)

A

Terminal Emulation. Software to remotely access another device. Often used for remote admin of routers and switches. BANNED by the Air Force on the operational network

186
Q

Define SSH

A

Secure Shell. Network protocol allowing data to be exchanged using a secure channel between 2 networked devices. Provides encryption for confidentiality and integrity of data on an unsecure network

187
Q

What is a Routing Protocol?

A

Supports a routed protocol by providing mechanisms for sharing routing information. Routing protocol messages move between the routers to update and maintain tables

188
Q

What are the 2 classes of routing protocols?

A

Interior Gateway Protocols (IGPs) and Exterior Gateway Protocols (EGPs). Classified by how the operate with regard to an Autonomous System

189
Q

Interior routing protocols operate where?

A

Inside a local network

190
Q

What are the 5 interior routing protocols?

A

RIP, IGRP, EIGRP, OSPF, IS-IS

191
Q

Define RIP

A

Routing Information Protocols. Uses hop count to determine the direction and distance to any link in the internetwork. Selects the path with fewest hops

192
Q

Define IGRP

A

Interior Gateway Routing Protocol. Selects fastest path based on delay, bandwidth, load, and reliability. Has much higher max hop count than RIP

193
Q

Define EIGRP

A

Enchanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol. Uses a 32 bit metric and faster convergence and lower-overhead bandwidth for superior operating efficiency. AKA hybrid.

194
Q

Define OSPF

A

Open Shortest Path First. Developed for IP networks because RIP was incapable of service large intranets

195
Q

Define IS-IS

A

Intermediate System-to-Intermediate System. Dynamic link-state routing protocol for the OSI protocol stack

196
Q

What is theone example given of an exterior routing protocol?

A

Border Gateway Protocol (BGP).

197
Q

Define BGP

A

Border Gateway Protocol (BGP). Exchanges routing information between autonomous systems while guaranteeing loop-free path selection. Principle routing protocol for ISPs and major companies

198
Q

What is the name of the OSI Layer 2?

A

Data-Link layer

199
Q

What does the Data Link layer do?

A

Conditions and controls data frames between the Network Layer and the Physical Layer. Encapsulates the datagram from the Network layer with physical addressing, network toplogy, error notification, sequencing of frames and flow control

200
Q

What is the information called when it is in the Data Link layer?

A

Frame

201
Q

What is a Cell?

A

Information unit of fixed size whose source and destination are Data Link layer entities

202
Q

The Data Link layer is broken in to what 2 layers?

A

Logical Link Control (LLC) and Media Access Control address (MAC Address)

203
Q

Define LLC

A

Logical Link Control (LLC). Interface between the Network layer and MAC sublayer. Establishes and terminates links, controls, sequences and acknowledges frames

204
Q

Define MAC

A

Media Access Control. Manages media access, checking frame errors, recognizing frame address

205
Q

What is the name of the OSI Layer 1?

A

Physical Layer

206
Q

Define the physical layer

A

Transmits the unstructured raw bistream over a physical medium. Totally hardware oriented, it also defines how the cable attaches to the NIC (shape, # of pins)

207
Q

What are the two Mediac Access Techniques?

A

Centralized Access Control and Distributed Access Control

208
Q

Define Centralized Access Control

A

Workstations are not allowed to xmit until they receive a query from the central controller (Method called “Polling”)

209
Q

Define Distributed Access Control

A

Each station shares responsibility for access control, uses Random Access and Deterministic Access (xmit at any time vs. each waiting a turn)

210
Q

Random Access Methods are contention-based. T/F?

A

TRUE

211
Q

What is the example of Random Access Method given in the book?

A

Collision Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection (CSMA/CD)

212
Q

What happens if a collision occurs with CSMA/CD?

A

Stations use a “back off” period before xmitting again

213
Q

What are the two Deterministic Access Methods given?

A

Token Passing and Slotted Access

214
Q

Define Token Passing

A

Most popular, a station must wait for the token to be passed to it to xmit and then passes the token on. Determines WHEN but not AMOUNT of data to be sent

215
Q

Define Slotted Access

A

Empty dataframe is passed among the stations. Restricts WHEN and AMOUNT of data that can be xmitted

216
Q

The International Oganization for Standardization (ISO) developed what model?

A

7-layer OSI Reference Model

217
Q

Define ANSI’s job

A

US representative to the ISO. Creates and publishes standards for programming, comm, networking

218
Q

Define the ITU

A

International Telecommunications Union. UN agency to develop and standardize comm. Has 3 sub-agencies

219
Q

What are the 3 subagencies of the ITU?

A

ITU-T, ITU-R, ITU-D

220
Q

What standards does IEEE define?

A

Standards related to networking

221
Q

What does the EIA set standards for?

A

Consumer products and electronic components (e.g. RS-232 cable)

222
Q

What standards does TIA devlop?

A

Communication Standards (e.g. EIA/TIA-568-B connector, aka RJ-45)

223
Q

What does the IAB do?

A

Oversees the development of internet standards and protocols, especially IP addressing

224
Q

What is the old name for NIST?

A

National Bureau of Standards

225
Q

What is the independent, non-profit standardization org for telecomm industry in Europe with worldwide projection?

A

ETSI

226
Q

What is the original Military Standard tactical and long haul comm?

A

Military Standard 188 (MIL-STD-188)

227
Q

Which MIL-STD is closely associated with Cyber Transport?

A

MIL-STD-188-114

228
Q

Define a Proprietary Standard

A

Standard developed for a company for that company’s products only. They sometimes “lock” a user into a single vendor’s product

229
Q

Define a Non-proprietary or Open Standard

A

Widely accepted standard designed to apply to equipment and software regardless of the manufacturer. Very advantageous when it comes to networking

230
Q

Define De Facto standard

A

A vendor’s standard that is so widely used to becomes a standard WITHOUT any formal path of implementation

231
Q

Define De Jure standard

A

A standard that has been officially approved by a recognized standards committee. Usually non-proprietary

232
Q

What are the 3 parts to the Hardware Interface?

A

Physical Interface, Electrical Interface, Functional Interface

233
Q

What Interface defines the number of pins, wires, and how they are arranged and attached?

A

Physical Interface

234
Q

What Interface defines the magnitude, duration, and sign of electrical signals?

A

Electrical Interface

235
Q

What Interface defines the interpretation of signals on each wire

A

Functional Interface

236
Q

IEEE 802 provides specifications on what 3 things?

A

Type of network interfaces and cards to use, components for the LAN/MAN/WAN and wireless connection, layout of the connector pins

237
Q

What is required when taking a signal from one format to another?

A

Converter

238
Q

Basically, what does a Transceiver do?

A

Both transmits and receives analog or digital signals

239
Q

What is a transceiver most commonly used for today?

A

Applies signals onto the network wire and detects signals passing through the wire

240
Q

Define a NIC

A

Network Interface Card. Enables a PC to be attached to some sort of network cabling by providing a physical connection point and electrical signal conversion

241
Q

What type of address is associated with every NIC?

A

A MAC address

242
Q

The MAC Address belongs in what layer?

A

Data-Link layer

243
Q

What layers does the NIC work in?

A

Both the physical Itransceiver and connectors )and data-link layers (controller)

244
Q

Define DTE

A

Data Terminal Equipment. Any digital device at the user end which xmits or rcvs data and uses communication equipment for data transfer

245
Q

Define DCE

A

Data Communications Equipment. Devices connected to a communication line for the purpose of transferring data from one point to another. They also establish, maintain, and terminate the connection

246
Q

What are 5 examples of DCE given in the book?

A

Modems (most common), hubs, repeaters, bridges, switches

247
Q

Define a Hub

A

Layer 1 device, broadcasts any packet entering on one port to all other ports

248
Q

Define a Repeater

A

Layer 1 device, compensates for loss of a DIGITAL signal. No filtration or processing done to signal; any signal in is repeated out

249
Q

Define a Bridge

A

Layer 2 device, connects 2 or more LAN segments to effectively make one logical network

250
Q

Define a Switch

A

Layer 2 device, can interconnect LANs of different bandwidth and provide collision-free, high speed comm between network devices

251
Q

Define a Gateway

A

Converts protocols, languages, and architecture to allow communications between different systems but do not alter the original data (Think PC to Mac communication). Slow and expensive

252
Q

Define a Router

A

Layer 3 device, Connect two or more network semgents and support dynamic path assignment

Cyber Transport (4 decks)

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