CWT1

Question 1

Explain what constitutes a profession.

Answer 1

i. A vocation or occupation characterized by special knowledge and skills applied and dedicated to the improvement of society.
ii. Some basic requirements are:
1. Ethical Behavior
2. Preparation through training & education
3. Continued development
4. Dedication to public service above personal achievement
iii. Military Profession
1. Preserve the Peace
2. Support National Policy
3. Implement National Objectives
4. Overcome any nation responsible for aggressive
acts that imperil the peace and security of the
United States

Question 2

b. Describe the three characteristics of a profession according to Samuel P. Huntington

Answer 2

i. Expertise
1. A profession centers around a specific set of skills and a body of knowledge that is learned through extensive education and experience. This specific skill and knowledge sets the profession apart from laymen who do not possess them; the expertise also aids in developing universal standards of conduct and performance for the members of the profession.
a. Technical Component: Learning the “tools of the trade”
b. Theoretical or intellectual component: involves understanding of “how” and “why”
c. Broad liberal component: involves the ability of professionals to understand the role of their profession in the economic, social, political, and cultural milieu of their society.
ii. Responsibility
1. Professionals are held to a certain standard and it is their responsibility to uphold them.
iii. Corporateness
1. Shared sense of belonging among members of a profession. Results from common bond of work.

Question 3

c. Differentiate between an institution and an occupation. (based off Moskos theory)

Answer 3

i. An institution is legitimated in terms of value and norms, that is, a purpose transcending individual self-interest in favor of a presumed higher good.
1. Members of an institution are seen as following a calling and are described by words such as integrity, service, and excellence.
ii. An occupation is legitimated in terms of the marketplace. Supply and demand, rather than normative considerations, is paramount.

Question 4

d. Explain why the US has its officers take an oath to support and defend the Constitution.

Answer 4

i. The military is service-oriented, where loyalty to standards of competence and the client’s needs are paramount. The officer’s clients are the people of the nation. Because the United States can no longer rely on the security of a force of part-time volunteers, the American people have placed their trust in the professional judgment of military officers. Officers swear to defend the Constitution, national values, and the American way of life.
ii. The constitution will withstand the time of this nation whereas taking an oath to a person would only withstand the time of that person’s life.

Question 5

e. Explain the country’s expectations of its officers.

Answer 5

i. Society grants the military a great deal of autonomy because of its members’ high ethical behavior and trust
ii. Expectations include: patriotism, honor, integrity, loyalty to service above all else, competence, and self-sacrifice. .

Question 6

a. Differentiate among the Air Force Core Values

Answer 6

i. Core Values Defined
1. The core values are a statement of those institutional values and principles of conduct that provide the moral framework for military activities. The professional Air Force ethic consists of three fundamental and enduring values of integrity first, service before self, and excellence in all we do.
ii. Air Force Core Values
1. Integrity first
a. It is the single most important part of character
b. Integrity is the willingness to do what is right, even when no one is looking.
c. Integrity is the moral compass of the military professional
d. Integrity is the adherence to a strong moral code and consistency in ones actions and values.
e. Airmen with integrity act with confidence, determination, and self-control in all they do to improve themselves and their contribution to the Air Force.
f. Airmen encourage the free flow of information within organizations and never shy from criticism.
2. Service before self
a. Service before self is not about the Air Force institution, it is about an enduring commitment and dedication of the individual Airman to the age-old military virtue of selfless dedication to duty at all times and in all circumstances.
b. It is a willingness to set aside one‘s needs and to make personal sacrifices
c. Air Force Airman have an understanding of the 24-hour-a-day commitment.
d. Service before self means taking the time and making the effort to properly plan and execute with precision regardless of the personal costs.
e. Service before self is total commitment to the highest ideals of personal sacrifice in defense of the Constitution and the United States.
f. However, service before self does not mean service before family
g. Service Before Self asks us to subordinate our personal interests, attitudes, and aspirations to the greater cause…It means that Airmen place the welfare of their peers and subordinates ahead of their own personal needs/comforts.
h. This value also demands that each airman keep faith in the system.
3. Excellence in all we do
a. This core value demands that airmen constantly strive to perform at their best.
b. It is not only a professional obligation by a moral responsibility as well.
c. It is a commitment to high standards and an understanding that each airman has been entrusted with our nation’s security.
d. We must always strive to meet or exceed standards objectively based on mission needs and continuously search for new and innovative ways to successfully accomplish the mission
e. On a personal level, airmen seek out and complete developmental education; work to stay in their best physical, mental, and moral shape; and continue to enhance their professional competencies
f. No airman wins the fight alone.
g. Airmen should aggressively protect and manage both human and material assets.

Question 7

b. Identify the importance of Air Force Core Values to Airmen

Answer 7

i. The core values are a statement of those institutional values and principles of conduct that provide the moral framework for military activities.
ii. Why Have these Core Values in the Air Force
1. The core values tell us the price of admission to the Air Force itself.
2. They point to what is universal and unchanging in the profession of arms.
3. They help us get a fix on the ethical climate of an organization.
4. They serve as beacons vectoring us back to the path of professional conduct.

Question 8

c. Summarize the impact of Air Force Core Values on personal and professional growth.

Answer 8

i. Airmen with integrity act with confidence, determination, and self-control in all they do to improve themselves and their contribution to the AF.
ii. Airmen encourage the free floor of info within the organizations and never shy from criticism.
iii. AF airmen have an understanding of the 24 hour a day commitment.
iv. Airmen place the welfare of their peers and subordinates ahead of their own personal needs/comforts.
v. On a personal level, airmen seek out and complete developmental education, work to stay in their best physical, mental, and moral shape and continue to enhance their professional competencies.
vi. No airman wins the fight alone.
vii. Airmen should aggressively protect and manage both human and material assets.
viii. Impact of core values
1. Personal growth and development
2. Professional growth and development
3. Human relations

Question 9

a. Define ‘servant’ in terms of being a servant of the nation.

Answer 9

i. The concept of being a “servant” is uncomfortable to most Americans. The word conjures an image of forced obedience, of slavery, or of menial servitude in contrast to our shared belief in individual freedom. Yet, an officer makes a voluntary choice to serve the nation, to place the nation’s interests ahead of his or her personal desires. It is this voluntary commitment that forms the core of the oath of office, the solemn pledge to support and defend the Constitution of the United States. American officers embrace the concept of “service before self.”
ii. Officers agree to serve the country by fulfilling their duties to the best of their ability and to be loyal, not only to military superiors and branch of service, but to constitutionally elected and empowered leaders and, by implication, to the citizens of our great country.

Question 10

b. Describe the relationship between servitude, the Constitution, and our second Core Value of Service before Self.

Answer 10

i. Members of the armed forces make an oath to serve the constitution and this service is a “service before self”

Question 11

c. List the rights on which the declaration of independence is based.

Answer 11

i. Life, liberty, and the pursuit of happiness

Question 12

d. Describe the purpose of each article of the Constitution. (7)

Answer 12

i. Article 1- legislative branch
ii. Article 2 – executive branch
iii. Article 3 – judicial branch
iv. Article 4 – regulates states powers
v. Article 5 – process of creating amendment
vi. Article 6 – status of constitution as supreme law of land
vii. Article 7 – addresses ratification and states constitution must take effect if 9/13 states ratify it.

Question 13

a. Describe the three tiers of the enlisted force structure

Answer 13

1. Junior Enlisted Airman Tier
   a. Airman Basic (AB)
   i. Pay grade E-1
   ii. Responsibilities:
2. Adapt to the requirements of the profession of arms
3. Gain knowledge of military customs, courtesies, Air Force standards
4. Attain occupational proficiency
   iii. Official term of address: Airman Basic or Airman
   b. Airman (Amn)
   i. Pay grade E-2
5. Responsibilities:
   a. Continue to learn and adapt to the profession of arms
   b. Begin to show job proficiency
   c. Still require significant supervision and support
6. Official term of address: Airman
   c. Airman First Class (A1C)
   i. Pay Grade e3
7. Responsibilities:
   a. Master skills in career field; become effective team members
   b. Typically earn 5-skill level at this grade
   c. Continued supervision is essential to technical and professional growth at this level
8. Official term of address: Airman First Class or Airman
   d. Senior Airman (SrA)
   i. Pay Grade: E-4
   ii. Responsibilities:
9. Perform as skilled technicians and trainers
10. Begin to develop supervisory and leadership skills
11. Attend Airman Leadership School (ALS)—may serve as supervisors upon completion
    iii. Official term of address: Senior Airman or Airman
12. Noncommissioned Officer Tier
    a. Staff Sergeant (SSgt)
    i. Pay Grade: E 5
    ii. Responsibilities:
13. Highly-skilled technicians
14. Supervise, train, and develop subordinates
    iii. Official term of address: Staff Sergeant or Sergeant
    b. Technical Sergeant (TSgt)
    i. Pay Grade: E-6
    ii. Responsibilities:
15. Organizational technical experts
16. Develop subordinates
17. Attend Noncommissioned Officer Academy (NCOA)
    iii. Official term of address: Technical Sergeant or Sergeant
18. Senior Noncommissioned Officer Tier
    a. Master Sergeant (MSgt)
    i. Pay Grade: E-7
    ii. Responsibilities:
19. Transition from technical experts and first-line
    supervisors to operational leaders
20. Significantly increased responsibilities
21. MSgt selects should enroll in & complete SNCO professional military education via distance learning
    iii. Official term of address: Master Sergeant or Sergeant
    b. Senior Master Sergeant (SMSgt)
    i. Pay Grade: E-8
22. Responsibilities:
23. Key, experienced, operational leaders
24. Continue professional development
    ii. Official term of address: Senior Master Sergeant or Sergeant
    c. Chief Master Sergeant (CMSgt)
    i. Pay Grade: E-9
25. Highest Air Force enlisted rank
26. Operate at operational or strategic levels of leadership
27. Superintendents and managers
28. Provide senior enlisted leadership
    ii. Official term of address: Chief Master Sergeant or Chief

Question 14

ii. Purpose of enlisted force

Answer 14

1. Provide an enlisted force structure that best meets mission requirements
2. Provide a common, stable career structure for all enlisted personnel
3. Provide all Airmen the opportunity for professional growth

Question 15

b. Identify the special positions a senior noncommissioned officer can hold

Answer 15

i. Chief Master Sergeant of the Air Force (CMSAF)
1. Senior enlisted leader of the Air Force
2. Provides leadership to the Air Force
3. Advises Air Force Chief of Staff, Secretary of the Air Force, and Secretary of Defense on enlisted matters
ii. Command Chief Master Sergeant (CCM)
1. Senior enlisted leader in a wing, major command (MAJCOM), number Air Force (NAF, etc.
2. Provides leadership to the enlisted force of the organization
3. Advises commanders on enlisted matters
iii. Superintendent
iv. Squadron, group, or function at wing-level position
v. Provides leadership, management, and guidance to meet mission needs
vi. Work with commander and Command Chief Master Sergeant to execute mission accomplishment
vii. First Sergeant
1. Go-to for all readiness, morale, welfare, and quality of life issues within the organization
2. Advise commanders and command chiefs on morale, discipline, recognition, and professional development of enlisted Airmen

Question 16

c. Describe significant milestones in the evolution of the noncommissioned officer.

Answer 16

i. Enlisted airmen arose in WW1. Purpose was to care for planes. Training in San Diego California.
1. WW1
a. Large need for planes and men during the war.
b. Under the Selective Service Act of 1917, the Air Service would receive men new to the military.
2. WW2
a. Basic training went from on the job training to a recruit/training location.
3. Enlisted Pilot Program
a. The 77th Congress enacted Public Law 99 on June 3,1941, which authorized the training of enlisted men as aviation pilots. On August 20, 1941, 183 enlisted men of the US Army Air Forces began pilot training just 2 months and 18 days after Congress approved the program.

Question 17

d. State the purpose of each of the enlisted professional military education.

Answer 17

i. Enlisted professional military education
1. Airman leadership school
2. Noncommissioned officer academy
3. Senior noncommissioned officer academy
ii. Professional development
1. Community college of Air Fore
2. Civilian education

Question 18

a. Identify the role of the president, the secretary of defense, and the joint chiefs of staff

Answer 18

i. President: is the senior military authority in the nation and as such is ultimately responsible for the protection of the United States from all enemies, foreign and domestic.
ii. Secretary of defense – plan, advise, carry out the nation’s security policies
1. 1947 – National Security Act establish civilian Secretary of Defense.
a. The secretary was in charge of a new overarching department called the National Military Establishment.
b. Created the Air Force!
2. Secretary is appointed by President.
3. Roles:
a. Support and defend constitution
b. Ensure security and interests of US
c. Uphold and advance the national policies and interests of US.
4. Policy: provides responsive, forward-thinking, and insightful policy advice and support to the Secretary of Defense, and the Department of Defense, in alignment with national security objectives
5. Intelligence: principal staff element of the Secretary of Defense for matters relating to intelligence. Serves as the Director of Defense Intelligence, acting as the primary military intelligence advisor to the Office of the Director of National Intelligence.
6. Personnel and readiness: Personnel requirements and management; National Guard & Reserve affairs; Health affairs; Training; Equal opportunity, morale, welfare, quality of life
7. Comptroller/Chief financial officer (CFO): DOD’s Budget and fiscal matters; DOD Financial policy; Financial management systems oversight; Business modernization efforts
8. Acquisition, technology and logistics: Supervising Department of Defense acquisition. Establishing policies for acquisition (including procurement of goods and services, research and development, developmental testing, and contract administration) for all elements of the Department of Defense. Establishing policies for logistics, maintenance, and sustainment support for all elements of the Department of Defense. Establishing policies of the Department of Defense for maintenance of the defense industrial base of the United States
iii. Joint chief of staff
1. The JCS prepares strategic plans and provides for the strategic direction of the Armed Forces. It reviews the plans and programs of unified and specified commands, considers major personnel and logistic requirements of the Armed Forces, and establishes unified doctrine. The JCS is also responsible for the assignment of logistic responsibilities to the military services, the formulation of policies for joint training, and the coordination of military education.

Question 19

b. State the role of the armed forces policy council

Answer 19

1. The Armed Forces Policy Council not only advises the Secretary of Defense on matters of broad policy relating to the Armed Forces, but also considers and reports on any other matters that, in the opinion of the Secretary, need attention. The Council consists of the Secretary of Defense (Chairman); the Deputy Secretary of Defense; Secretaries of the Army, Navy, and Air Force; the CJCS; the Under Secretaries of Defense; the Deputy under Secretary of Defense for Acquisition; the Army and Air Force Chiefs of Staff; the Chief of Naval Operations (CNO); and the Commandant of the Marine Corps.

Question 20

c. Define unified and specified command.

Answer 20

i. Unified commands – comprises forces from two or more military services and falls under one commander. Once under this command, only the secretary of defense can transfer them.
1. Currently 9 unified commands exist.
ii. Specified commands – have broad, continuing mission, a specified command is normally composed of forces from one military service.
1. Currently none in existence

Question 21

d. List the primary missions of the six geographically based unified combatant commands

Answer 21

i. USEUCOM: US European Command
1. Conduct military operations, international military engagements, and interagency partnering to enhance transatlantic security and defend the US forward. USEUCOM does this by establishing an agile security organization able to conduct full spectrum activities as part of whole of government solutions to secure enduring stability in Europe and Eurasia
ii. USPACOM: US Pacific Command
1. Protects and defends, in concert with other US government agencies, the territory of the US, its people, and its interests. With allies and partners, USPACOM is committed to enhancing stability in the Asia-Pacific region by promoting security cooperation, encouraging peaceful development, responding to contingencies, deterring aggression, and, when necessary, fighting to win.
iii. USCENTCOM: US Central Command
1. With national and international partners, USCENTCOM promotes cooperation among nations, responds to crises, and deters or defeats state and non-state aggression, and supports development and, when necessary, reconstruction in order to establish the conditions for regional security, stability, and prosperity
iv. USSOUTHCOM: US Southern Command
1. Ready to conduct joint and combined full-spectrum military operations and support whole-of-government efforts to enhance regional security and cooperation
v. USNORTHCOM: US Northern Command
1. Partners to conduct Homeland Defense and Civil Support operations within the assigned area of responsibility to defend, protect, and secure the US and its interests
vi. USAFRICOM: US Africa Command
1. Protects and defends the national security interest of the US by strengthening the defense capabilities of African states and regional organizations and, when directed, conducts military operations, in order to deter and defeat transnational threats and to provide a security environment conducive to good governance and development
a. Newest unified command

Question 22

I. Explain the purpose, application, and scope of Air Force Doctrine Volume II—Leadership.

Answer 22

1. Purpose: establish doctrinal guidance for leadership and force development
2. Application: active duty, air force reserve, air national guard, civilians
3. Scope:
   a. Baseline for all AF leaders
   b. Essential for mission success
   c. Describes the proper use of air and space forces in military operations
   d. Guide to exercise professional judgement rather than a set of inflexible rules

Question 23

II. Describe the fundamental elements of Air Force leadership.

Answer 23

1. Mission
   a. Objective or task to be accomplished
   b. Motivate, influence, and direct people to carry out the mission
2. Airmen
   a. Heart of the organization
   b. Performs the mission
   c. Leader must care for, support, and develop people
   d. Any airmen can simultaneously serve as both leaders an follower at every level of the AF

Question 24

III. Summarize the components of Air Force leadership.

Answer 24

Institutional Competencies: Qualities coupled with occupational skill sets that AF leaders develop as they progress along levels of increase responsibility

1. Personal Leadership: face-to-face, interpersonal relations that directly influence human behavior and values
   a. Embodies Airmen culture
   i. Ethical leadership
   ii. Followership
   iii. Warrior ethos
   iv. Develops self
   b. Communicating
   i. Speaking and writing
   ii. Active listening
2. People/Team Leadership: interpersonal and team building relationships that create a healthy climate
   a. Leading people
   i. Develops and inspires others
   ii. Takes care of people
   iii. Fosters diversity
   b. Fostering Collaborative Relationships
   i. Builds teams and coalitions
   ii. Negotiating
3. Organizational Leadership: establishing structure, allocating resources, and articulating strategic vision
   a. Employing Military Capabilities:
   i. Operational and strategic art
   ii. Unit, AF, Joint, and Coalition Capabilities
   iii. Non-adversial Crisis Response
   b. Enterprise Perspective
   i. Enterprise Structure and Relationships
   ii. Government Organization and Processes
   iii. Global, Regional, and Cultural Awareness
   iv. Strategic Communication
   c. Managing Organizations and Resources
   i. Resource stewardship
   ii. Change management
   iii. Continuous improvement
   d. Strategic Thinking
   i. Vision
   ii. Decision-making
   iii. Adaptability

Question 25

I. Differentiate among the four stages of group growth.

Answer 25

a. Forming
i. Feelings: excitement, anticipation, optimism, wariness, uncertainty, guardedness
ii. Behaviors: deciding what is acceptable behavior, purpose, and procedures; establishing trust; no clear focus on task or problem; answer questions or complaints
b. Norming
i. Feelings: Acceptance, Cooperativeness, bonding, conformity, relief the group is headed in right direction
ii. Behaviors: confiding in one another, common goals, realistic group parameters, cohesion
iii. Overcoming groupthink: keep leader opinions silent initially, form subgroups, bring in outside experts, assign team critics/challengers, allow second-chance visit of an issue
c. Storming
i. Feelings: consensus turns to resistance, individual team members, members’ personalities, chance for success
ii. Behaviors: arguing and competing, bid for power and formation of cliques, disagreement with leader’s approach, testing boundaries
d. Performing
i. Feelings: insightfulness towards others, satisfaction towards the group’s progress
ii. Behaviors: constructive self-change, conflict management teamwork

Question 26

II. Describe the differences between groups and teams.

Answer 26

a. Teams
i. Stronger sense of identification
ii. Common goals or tasks
iii. Member and task interdependence
iv. Differentiated and specialized roles
b. Group
i. None of the above characteristics are applicable
ii. More of a collection of individuals

Question 27

III. Identify the characteristics of effective teams.

Answer 27

a. Characteristics
i. Defined mission, tasks, objective, or function
ii. Cooperation and communication
iii. Interdependence

Question 28

IV. Identify the principles of effective teams.

Answer 28

a. Trust and confidence
b. Delegation and empowerment
c. Cooperation
d. Participation
e. Respect for individual
f. Clearly defined roles
g. Dedication and commitment
h. Loyalty
i. Communication
i. Be clear and direct
ii. Be concise
iii. Listen actively
iv. Avoid interrupting
j. Clarity of team goals
i. Everyone understands purpose and goals
ii. No confusion or disagreement

Question 29

I. Summarize the objective of the Eight-Step Problem-Solving Process.

Answer 29

1. Help airmen focus on problem-solving skills that affect the mission, work centers, and people
2. Approach aimed to increase combat capability and making the AF more effective and efficient
3. Remove waste and inefficiencies
4. Increase productivity and asset availability
5. Improve response time, agility and energy efficiency
6. Sustain safe and reliable operations

Question 30

II. Explain and identify the Eight-Step Problem-Solving Process.

Answer 30

1. Clarify the problem
   i. Recognize the correct problem by going to source and observe first hand
   ii. State the problem: ensures everyone working effectively towards same goals
   iii. Tools: go and see, value stream mapping, voice of customer
2. Break down problem and ID performance gaps
   i. Gather and review key data
   ii. B-SMART: balanced, specific, measurable, attainable, results focused, timely
   iii. Value and waste analysis
3. Set improvement targets
   i. Strategic: visions of what the organization strives to become
   ii. Tactical: define performance level necessary to make strategic vision a reality
4. Determine root cause
   i. Most vital step
   ii. Avoid efforts directed towards symptoms
   iii. Find deepest point with in sphere of influence
   iv. Brainstorm
5. Develop countermeasures
   i. Focus on selecting best solution
   ii. Have common and agreeable criteria
   iii. Factors of analyzing criteria: effectiveness, feasibility, impact
   iv. Action plan: clear and detailed consensus and ownership
6. See countermeasures through
   i. Collect data according to action plan: monitor system, determine performance of tasks
   ii. Implement contingency plans
   iii. Provide training
7. Confirm results and process
   i. Review and reassess the solution
   ii. Ensure plan produced intended results
   iii. Monitor project for performance
   iv. Return to previous steps as necessary
8. Standardize successful processes
   i. Most commonly skipped
   ii. Standardized successful improvements for the future
   iii. Restart problem solving process

Question 31

OODA Loop

Answer 31

1. Observe: current situation, facts, known, unknown
2. Orient: understand your situation and set goals
3. Decide: select a course of action
4. Act: Put your plan into action

Question 32

a. State the mission and priorities of the USAF

Answer 32

i. Mission: To fly, fight, and win, in air, space, and cyberspace.
ii. Priorities
1. Continue to strengthen the nuclear enterprise
2. Partner with joint and coalition team to win todays fight.
3. Develop and care for airmen and their families
4. Modernize our air and space inventories, organizations, and training.
5. Recapture acquisition excellence.

Question 33

b. State the function of the Secretary of the Air Force, Air Force Chief of Staff, and the Chief Master Sergeant of the Air Force

Answer 33

i. Secretary of the AF
1. Conducts the administrative affairs of the department and is directly responsible to the Secretary of Defense.
2. Manages fiscal spending, production, procurement, and legal plans and programs.
3. Not directly involved in military operations.
ii. Chief of Staff of the Air Force
1. Military head of the Air Force and is directly responsible to the secretary of the air force for the efficiency and operational readiness of the Air Force.
2. Member of the Joint Chiefs of Staff.
iii. Chief Master Sergeant of Air Force
1. Advisor to the CSAF on all issues of welfare readiness, morale, and proper utilization of enlisted force.
2. Highest enlisted level of leadership in the AF and represents their interests, as appropriate to the American public and to those in all levels of the government.

Question 34

c. List the USAF organizational structure from the President to the flight level. Identify key elements within and related to a typical Air Force Wing structure

Answer 34

Constitution > Executive Branch > Sec Defense (DoD) > Sec AF > HQ USAF > MAJCOM > Numbered Air Forces > Wing > Group > Squadron > Flight

Question 35

4 groups in a wing

Answer 35

1. operations group
2. maintenance group
3. mission support group
4. medical group

Question 36

I. Explain the concept of Full Range Leadership

Answer 36

a. Involves a wide variety of behaviors depending on the situation
b. Encourages people to mimic trait but it should not be completely mimicked because make it your own and modify the actions so that you are your own leader – maybe problematic because traits might not fit your personality
c. Helps to resolve issues that arise in dynamic environments especially in the military

Question 37

II. Identify elements of the Full Range Leadership Model

Answer 37

a. Laissez-faire
b. Transactional
c. Transformational
d. Dynamic progression through elements: represents an increasing impact on performance

Question 38

III. Summarize the characteristic of laissez-faire,

Answer 38

a. The least successful in the military and should be avoided
b. Hands-off leadership – represents absence of action or abdication of command at times
c. Creates a confusing and chaotic environment
d. This is the least effective and least productive method

Question 39

summarize transactional leadership

Answer 39

2. Transactional
   a. Focus is more on the day-to-day workings rather than inspiration of subordinates
   b. Contract between leader and subordinates
3. Management by Exception (MBE): passive and active
   a. MBE-Passive: only take action if something goes wrong
   i. most reactionary form of MBE
   ii. leader waits for things to go wrong
   iii. constantly putting out fires
   iv. reluctant reaction
   b. MBE-Active: this is proactive and will try to actively find out what is wrong before it comes to you. Constantly monitoring performances and focus is more on mistakes and failures
   i. Leader constantly monitors performance
   ii. Focus is more on mistakes and failures
   iii. Necessary at times but usually not effective
   iv. MBE is less on relationship and more on correcting deviation from standard
   c. Contingent Reward (CR)
   i. Goal-directed
   ii. Accomplish the task and receive a reward when it is achieved
   iii. Motivation is a key component for CR

Question 40

summarize 4 elements of transformational leadership

Answer 40

4. Transformational
   a. General
   i. Focus is motivating and inspiring followers
   ii. This is the best leadership model in the military that transforms people into better people
   iii. This is the most effective and most effort
   b. Individual Consideration
   i. Aimed specifically at subordinate development
   ii. Helps other identify and develop strengths
   iii. The leader promotes self-development
   iv. 2-way discussion is encouraged
   c. Intellectual Stimulation
   i. Leader stimulates creative thinking
   ii. Questions established procedures
   iii. Pushes subordinates to think about new solutions
   iv. Improved ownership of the process increases performance and learn from other people’s mistakes
   d. Inspirational Motivation
   i. Leaders inspires and motivate subordinates
   ii. Articulation of visions and expectations is key
   iii. Subordinates gain confidence, and have a sense of purpose
   iv. Important for people to have a sense of mission
   e. Idealized Influence
   i. Leader is a role model
   ii. Actions and attributes are important
   iii. Actions align with core values
   iv. Attributes drive subordinates to emulate leader, and not mimic
   v. Dedication to the mission, persistence, courage, and sacrifice

Question 41

I. Describe the 5 personal conflict management styles

Answer 41

1. Forcing
   a. Don’t care about the person’s feelings but just do what you have been told
   b. High assertiveness but low cooperation
2. Accommodating
   a. More collaboration and accommodating to others
   b. Concern of others is high
   c. High cooperation but low assertiveness
3. Avoiding
   a. Low cooperation and low assertiveness
   b. However, avoiding is the worst because it will seem like whatever the unresolved issue is now setting precedence or the officer condones the certain situation or conflict
4. Compromising
   a. Balance between the concern for others and concern for self
   b. Medium cooperation and medium assertiveness
5. Collaborating
   a. Low assertiveness and high cooperation

Question 42

IV. Identify sources of conflict

Answer 42

1. Personal Differences
   a. Daily experiences are not judged on a common set of values
   b. Conflicts tend to be emotionally charged
   c. “People-focused” rather than “issue-focused”
2. Informational Deficiencies
   a. Instructions may be interpreted differently
   b. More factual and straightforward
   c. Not about values and do not involve emotions
3. Role Incompatibility
   a. Different entities have different goals
   b. A common superior usually has to mediate
4. Environmental Stress
   a. Shortage of resources
   b. Uncertainty
   c. Time can be a huge factor in terms of environment stress

Question 43

V. Assert the importance of effective conflict management

Answer 43

1. Diagnose the source of the conflict and circumstances
2. Selecting the appropriate conflict management strategy
3. Implementing strategy: follow through with your actions
4. Seeing a conflict through to successful outcome

Question 44

I. Describe the benefits and potential problems of a diverse workforce

Answer 44

a. Potential Problems
i. Over protection of women, minorities, and others
ii. Different consequences for same actions
iii. Failure to train and coach (mentors)
iv. Language barriers
b. Benefits
i. Creativity and innovation: bring many different viewpoint into an organization
ii. Broad range of skills: a more diverse group is likely to have a broader range of skills
iii. Better service to diverse customers
iv. Ability to recruit best talent from entire labor pool

Question 45

II. Explain the importance of managing diversity in the military

Answer 45

a. Value of Diversity
i. Increases awareness of workplace conduct and diversity problems
ii. Tolerance to personnel differences
iii. Increases sensitivity to stereotyping and self-renewing
iv. Support diversity via mentoring, span boundaries, conducting internal advocacy discussion/groups, performance review planning
b. Importance to Military
i. Military mirrors civilian workforce
1. Increase productivity and mission accomplishment
2. Recruiting pool more diverse
3. Competition with corporations for workers
ii. Reduce instances of discrimination
iii. Overseas operations
1. Coalition warfare
2. Intel

Question 46

1. State the definition of cultural domains.

Answer 46

a. Cultural domains are twelve universal categories of interaction, belief and meaning shared by all cultures but dealt with differently by each culture.

Question 47

2. Recognize examples of cultural domains.

Answer 47

b. Family and Kinship: ties between people who see themselves related by blood or by marriage
c. Sex and gender: biological difference between men and women, corresponding roles and responsibilities assigned by society, and associated beliefs and values
d. Sustenance and Health: the means and rituals by which humans feed themselves and treat their bodies
e. Religion and Spirituality: system fo idead abut the spiritual reality or the supernatural along with beliefs and ceremonial practices by which people try to interpret and control aspect of the universe
f. Politics and Social relations: individuals’ differential access to power and the ways groups of people exercise power, govern themselves, and collectively lead their daily lives
g. Economics and Resources: impact of available resources and ways goods and services are allovated, produced, distributed and consumed in a society
h. History and Myth: The ways people perceive themselves and their culture based on past events and stories passed down generation to generation
i. Learning and Knowledge: Ways society transmits knowledge and cultural expectations to others
j. Technology and Materials: How society uses raw materials, equipment, knowledge and skills to transform their natural environment
k. Aesthetic and Recreation: Expressions of cultural norms of beauty or style and the ways people spend their leisure time
l. Language and Communication: Activity of transmitting thoughts, feelings, and information between people
m. Time and Space: How a culture views use of time and personal space (manifested in language and communication

Question 48

3. Identify the three elements of cross cultural communication.

Answer 48

a. Paralanguage - tone
b. Nonverbal – touch (haptics), space (proxemics), time (chronemics), movement and gestures (kinesics)
c. Cultural context – conditions or circumstances that impact communication

Question 49

4. Explain sources of cross-cultural conflict.

Answer 49

a. Value conflict – values dictate our interpretation of situations, relationships, and events Divergents values can cause conflict.
b. Relationship conflict – clashes at interpersonal, intergroup, or international levels. Often fueled by misperceptions, stereotypes, ad poor communication.
c. Data conflict – examines how people perceive the data being used in the interaction. May result from lack of information or contrasting perceptions or interpretations of the significant and role of data.
d. Interest conflict – results when parties have different interests. Majority of these conflicts revolve around how each party compares and measures the worthiness of their interests with the interests of others.
e. Most conflicts will involve combination of two or more types of conflict.

Question 50

5. Predict how relating and communicating effectively build partnerships.

Answer 50

Relate by taking perspectives of others

b. Seek understanding of differences in ways cultures communicate
c. Try to see yourself as persons from other cultures see you
d. Avoid false assumptions and miscues that could hurt the mission or cost lives

Question 51

1. State what the principles of war provide to Airmen

Answer 51

a. The principles of war—unity of command, objective, offensive, mass, maneuver, economy of force, security, surprise, and simplicity—are guidelines that commanders can use to form and select courses of action and concepts of operation.

Question 52

define each principle of war

Answer 52

2. Define each principle of war
   a. Unity of Command
   i. Ensures concentration of effort for every objective under one responsible commander.
   b. Objective
   i. The principle of objective is to direct military operations toward a defined and obtainable objective that contribute to strategic, operational, and tactical aims.
   c. Offensive
   i. The purpose of an offensive action is to seize, retain, and exploit the initiative.
   d. Mass
   i. The purpose of mass is to concentrate the effects of combat power at the most advantageous place and time to achieve decisive results.
   e. Maneuver
   i. Maneuver places the enemy in a position of disadvantage through the flexible application of combat power in a multi
   f. Economy of Force
   i. Is the judicious employment and distribution of forces
   g. Security
   i. The purpose of security is to never permit the enemy to acquire unexpected advantage.
   ii. Physical, operations, and information security.
   h. Surprise
   i. Surprise leverages the security principle by attacking the eny at a time, place, or in amanner for which they are not prepared.
   i. Simplicity
   i. Simplicity calls for avoiding unnecessary complexity in organizing , preparing, planning, and conducting military operations.

Question 53

3. List the tenets of airpower

Answer 53

a. Centralized control and decentralized execution
i. Centralized control is commanding airpower. It empowers the air component commander to respond to changes in the operational environment and take advantage of fleeting opportunities.
ii. Decentralized execution is the delegation of authority to designated lower-level commanders and other tactical-level decision makers to achieve effective span of control and to foster disciplined initiative and tactical flexibility.
iii. Benefits inherent in decentralized execution are maximized when a commander clearly communicates intent.
b. Flexibility and versatility
i. Flexibility allows airpower to exploit mass and maneuver simultaneously.
ii. Versatility is the ability to employ airpower effectively at the strategic, operational, and tactical levels of war and provide a wide variety of tasks in concert with other joint forces.
c. Synergistic effects
i. Proper application of a coordinated force across multiple domains can produce effects that exceed the contributions of forces employed individually.
d. Persistence
i. Airpowers exceptional speed and range allow its forces to visit wide ranges of targets nearly at will.
e. Concentration
i. Concentrating overwhelming power at the decisive time and place.
ii. The versatility of airpower with its lethality, speed, and persistence makes it an attractive option for many combat tasks.
iii. Airmen should guard against the inadvertent dilution of airpower effects resulting from high demand.
f. Priority
i. Commanders should establish clear priorities for use of airpower. Due to its inherent flexibility, the demands for airpower may likely exceed available resource. If commanders fail to establish priorities, they can become ineffective.
g. Balance
i. Much of the skill of an air component commander is reflected in the dynamic and correct balancing of the principles of war and the tenets of airpower to bring Air Force capabilities together to produce a synergistic effect.

Question 54

1. Describe Building Partnerships.

Answer 54

a. Airmen interacting with international airmen to develop, guide, and sustain relationship for mutual benefit and security.
b. Purpose: reduce instability, prevent terrorist attacks, build partner capacities, and reduce potential for expanded conflict.

Question 55

2. Identify the AF definition of culture

Answer 55

a. Culture is the creation, maintenance, and transformation across generations of semi-shared patterns of meaning, sense-making, affiliation, action, and organization by groups
b. Consequently we all have a natural tendency to view our own culture as best

Question 56

3. Identify knowledge, skills and attitudes that lead to cross-cultural perspective-taking.

Answer 56

a. Knowledge of factors that cause persons from other cultures to behave differently
b. Skills for dealing with culture shock along with effective problem-solving and interpersonal communication skills.
c. Attitude of openness and willingness to learn about and accept cultural differences.
d. Cross-cultural perspective-taking builds cross-cultural competence.

Question 57

4. Define cross-cultural competence.

Answer 57

a. Culture-general: The ability to quickly and accurately comprehend, and then effectively act in any culturally complex environment to achieve the desired effect for the mission.
b. Culture-specific: an approach that emphasizes specific aspect of particular cultures, affording airmen much of the knowledge and/or skills necessary to interact more competently.

Question 58

5. State the three skills of the Air Force Cross Cultural Competence (3C) Development model.

Answer 58

a. Relate: understanding others in order to develop a social or sympathetic relationship.
b. Communicate transmitting thoughts, feelings and information to other people.
c. Negotiate: utilizing a deliberate process to solve a difference or problem with two or more people or groups.

Question 59

I. Distinguish between the five needs in Maslow’s hierarchy.

Answer 59

a. Survival
i. Basic need of food, air, shelter
ii. If people are struggling at basic survival needs then it will affect their work and the mission
b. Safety
i. Physical safety: safe from harm
ii. Psychological safety: job, health care, security, and savings
c. Belonging
i. Love, acceptance, friendship, and approval
ii. These are social needs
d. Esteem
i. Need for recognition, worth, status respect
ii. This is the need for getting some recognition and that is going beyond the belonging
e. Self-Actualization
i. Self-fulfillment, personal growth, realizing potential
ii. People strive to reach ultimate potential…have a sense of doing their best

Question 60

II. Identify ways to motivate people using Maslow’s needs theory.

Answer 60

a. A lower level need must be satisfied before the next higher level becomes important in motivating behavior
b. Only relatively unsatisfied needs are capable of motivating people

Question 61

III. Distinguish between McGregor’s three motivational approaches (Theory X hard, Theory X soft, Theory Y)

Answer 61

a. Theory X (soft, hard)
i. People by nature don’t like to work
ii. People lack ambition and must be coerced or forced to work
iii. People prefer to be told what to do
iv. People resist change
v. People are gullible and not overly intelligent
b. Theory X Soft Hard Approach
i. Coercion
ii. Tight control over behavior
iii. Micromanagement
c. Soft Approach
i. Satisfying people’s desires
ii. Achieving harmony
iii. Manipulative approach: relaxing standards and permissive attitude
d. Theory Y
i. People may actively seek work instead of avoiding it
ii. People prefer participative management
iii. People prefer setting their own goals
iv. People seek responsibility
v. Internal or self-control
vi. Environment approach
vii. Create opportunities

Question 62

IV. Identify ways to motivate people using McGregor’s theory Y approach.

Answer 62

a. They are motivated and create environment that allows for positive atmosphere
b. Create opportunities for increased responsibility
c. Integrations of personal and organizational goals
d. Start with a goal or mission
e. Make the task clear
f. Match the people with the task
g. Remove the roadblocks
h. Give positive feedback
i. Recognize achievements and contributions
j. Don’t make promises you can’t keep
k. Be a good role model
l. Let people work independently
m. Give more responsibility when appropriate

Question 63

I. Describe task and relationship behavior.

Answer 63

a. Task behavior: involves clearly telling people (what, how, where, when), supervising performance
b. Relationship behavior: listening to people, providing support and encouragement, facilitating involvement in problem solving and decision making

Question 64

II. Explain how to assess followers’ performance readiness.

Answer 64

a. Ability: knowledge, skills, experience

b. Willingness: confidence, commitment, motivation

Question 65

III. Describe each performance readiness level in the Situational Leadership Model.

Answer 65

a. R1: unable and insecure, or unwilling
i. Doesn’t mean that they are potentially unable, just unable because did not receive the training
b. R2: unable, but confident or willing
c. R3: able, but insecure or unwilling
d. R4: able, confident and willing: ready to achieve
e. Readiness level is task specific
i. Ie. If someone is R4 in moving seats but if they are switch to moving tables then they are back to R1 because they don’t have the skill sets yet

Question 66

IV. Identify the leadership style in the Situation Leadership Model for each performance readiness level.

Answer 66

a. S1: R1 – Telling
i. Low relationship and high task
ii. One way communication
iii. Leader solves problems, makes all key decisions
iv. Leader directs, then guides roles of followers as they progress
b. S2:R2 – Selling
i. High relationship and high task
ii. Two way communication
iii. Hears suggestions, ideas, and opinions
iv. Maintains decision making
v. Employs persuasion
vi. Explains actions
c. S3:R3 – Participating
i. High relationship and low task
ii. Focus of control shifts to follower
iii. Follower has ability and knowledge to complete task
iv. Leader actively listens and build confidence
d. S4:R4 – Delegating
i. Low relationship and low task
ii. Follower makes key decisions and implement
iii. Leader: get updates, offers resource support

Question 67

V. Given a scenario, match the appropriate leadership style to a follower’s readiness level.

Answer 67

a. Need to have the readiness level determined first and then will be able to determine the leadership style that will be accommodated with the readiness level.

Question 68

a. Describe the AF Equal Opportunity Program.

Answer 68

i. Designed to ensure equal opportunity in support of mission readiness for all AF personnel via development and use of our people in the most effective manner possible
ii. To reach this goal, the program works to identify human relations factors within the organization and social climate that detract from harmonious relations

Question 69

b. Describe the Air Force and Air National Guard policies on Equal Opportunity.

Answer 69

i. AF must conduct its affairs free from unlawful discrimination and to provide equal opportunity and treatment for all members

Question 70

c. State the objective of the Military Equal Opportunity Program.

Answer 70

i. The main objective is to improve mission effectiveness by providing an environment in which service members are ensured an opportunity to rise to the highest level of responsibility possible in the military profession, dependent only on merit, fitness and capability.

Question 71

d. Identify the five key services of the AF Equal Opportunity Program.

Answer 71

i. Military Equal Opportunity (MEO) formal/informal complaint processing
ii. Civilian EO informal complaint processing
iii. Out and about assessments (process used to gather additional EO/human relations info that may impact installation personnel)
iv. Human relations education
v. Quarterly Statistical Reports

Question 72

e. State the difference between discrimination and prejudice.

Answer 72

i. Prejudice
1. The injury or damage resulting from some judgement or action of another in disregard of one’s rights
2. Personal feelings or belief
3. No law can change it
ii. Discrimination
1. Any action that unlawfully or unjustly results in unequal treatment of persons or groups based on age, color, national origin, race, ethnic group, religion, or sex, and for which distinctions aren’t supported by legal or rational considerations
2. Behavior or action
3. Can be banned by law

Question 73

f. Identify ways a supervisor can diminish the impact of prejudice and discrimination in the Air Force.

Answer 73

i. First identify if there is a problem that is due to the prejudice and discrimination and not due to something else
ii. Gather information from coworkers and subordinates about the situation
iii. Use a mediator to set a neutral and objective environment to help resolve the problem
iv. Sit back and observe the unit’s interaction and then make proper adjustments and actions to correct certain problems

Question 74

b. Identify the four basic management functions

Answer 74

b. Identify the four basic management functions
i. Planning
1. Basics
a. Defining goals
b. Establish strategies
c. Develop general plan
2. Essential planning activities
a. Understand the mission
b. Focus on the desired result.
c. Analyze the operating environment
d. Involve others in planning process
e. Divide the project into manageable portions
f. Determine key objectives
g. Analyze the alternate courses of action
h. Select best course of action
i. Publish the plan
j. Modify as needed.
ii. Organizing
1. Steps
a. Determine task
b. Establish structure
c. Allocate resources
d. Develop procedures
2. Principles
a. Span of control
b. Function group
c. Unity of command
d. Delegation of authority
iii. Leading
1. Motivating
2. Direct activities of others
3. Select most effective communication channels
4. Resolve conflicts
iv. Controlling
1. Monitor performance
2. Compare results with standards
3. Apply corrective action

Question 75

c. Differentiate between the 3 primary roles of managers

Answer 75

c. Differentiate between the 3 primary roles of managers

Question 76

d. Explain the universality of the manager’s job.

Answer 76

d. Explain the universality of the manager’s job.

Question 77

e. Identify examples of general and specific managerial skill.

Answer 77

i. General
1. Conceptual: mental ability to coordinate interest/activities
2. Interpersonal: understand, mentor, motivate others
3. Technical: use tools, procedures, techniques
4. Political: build power base and establish connections.
ii. Specific (behaviors and effectiveness)
iii. Philosophy
1. Management is a command responsibility
2. Managers must achieve greatest effect with available resources
3. Decentralized operations = optimized resources
4. Centralized resource control is essential.
iv. Policies
1. Commanders ensure effective management of human, material, and financial resources.
2. Decentralized operations (central as required)
3. Organizations, methods, and procedures must be readily adaptable to changing conditions.
4. Decision-making authority must be decentralized to improve productivity/job satisfaction.

Question 78

1. Identify the types of pay

Answer 78

a. Basic
i. Largest component of paycheck.
ii. Varies according to grade and years in service.
b. Special
i. For individuals with certain specialized skills, or who are assigned in specified locations, receive special pay.
ii. Examples: certain engineers/skills, foreign language, medical community
1. Medical officers: board certification pay, multiyear retention bonus, incentive special pay (ISP)
2. Other special pays: JA Continuation Pay, Foreign Language Proficiency Lay (FLPP), Hostile Fire/Imminent Danger Pay
c. Incentive
i. Individuals required to perform hazardous duties receive incentive pay.
ii. Most common types include aviation career incentive pay (flight pay) and hazardous duty incentive pay
1. Examples: aviation career incentive pay (ACIP or flight pay),Hazardous duty incentive pay (HDIP), toxic fuel handlers, parachute jumping, explosives disposal.

Question 79

2. Recognize the different types of allowance

Answer 79

a. Basic Allowance for Housing (BAH)
i. AF provides living quarters or a basic allowance to find off base housing.
ii. Depends on: grade, dependency status, and geographic location
iii. Reservists receive BAH II.
b. Basic Allowance for Subsistence (BAS)
i. This allowance is a fixed monthly rate and is the same for all officers. Enlisted members are authorized BAS when government dining facilities aren’t available or when authorized by competent orders to purchase meals outside government facilities. BAS is paid on a monthly basis.
ii. All officers get about $250
c. Uniform and Equipment Allowance
i. All officers commissioned in the regular or reserve components are authorized an initial clothing allowance upon initial entry on active duty for a period of more than 90 days.
1. One time $400
ii. Enlisted receive annual payment based on service anniversary date.
d. Permanent Change of Station (PCS) Allowance
i. When military member permanently moves from one duty location to the nect, temporarily moves to participate in an instruction course for more than 20 weeks, or temporarily moves for temporary duty (TDY) for more than 179 days, the AF characterizes that individuals move as a PCS and funds his or her move with specific compensation. Funding is based on two means of travel, flying and driving.
e. Temporary Duty (TDY) Allowance
i. For planned and unexpected expenses along the way such as travel expenses, lodging, and meals.
f. Family Separation Allowance (FSA)
i. Must apply for it
g. Dislocation Allowance (DLA)
h. Station Allowance
i. To defray the cost in certain situations (ie overseas)
i. Temporary Lodging Allowance (TLA) and Expense (TLE)
j. Overseas Housing Allowance (OHA)
k. Cost-of-Living (COLA)

Question 80

3. Identify the different types of leave a military member can take

Answer 80

a. Ordinary - planned vacation, counts against leave balance
b. Sick Or Convalescent - does not count against leave balance
c. Emergency - unplanned, counts against leave balance

Question 81

4. State how leave is accrued and used.

Answer 81

a. Earn 2.5 per month!!
b. Begins and ends in the local area
c. Talk to your Commander
d. Always on the clock…
e. Use or Lose Policy Changes
i. Use or Lose policy : 60-day carry over
f. Use or Lose must be spent by 30 Sep

Question 82

a. State the three enduring truths that describe the fundamental nature of war

Answer 82

i. War is:
1. An instrument of policy, strategy, or culture.
a. War is a last resort of policy
b. Diplomatic efforts have been exhausted
c. When military engages the political process doesn’t stop.
2. A complex and chaotic human endeavor.
a. Factors dominating war
3. A clash of opposing wills.
a. Evolution of warfare

Question 83

b. Define war according to Clausewitz

Answer 83

i. “War is nothing but a duel on an extensive scale… Each strives by physical force to compel the other to submit to his will… War therefore is an act of violence to compel our opponent to do our will.” - Clausewitz

Question 84

c. Identify the basic themes of war

Answer 84

i. Politics and violence are intertwined
ii. War is policy “…that fights battles instead of writing notes.”
iii. War is the continuation of politics with the addition of other means.
1. War begins, politics keeps going.
iv. Wage war in a civilized manner – leave the combat zone better than we entered it. Failure leads to peace.
1. Law of armed conflict (LOAC)
2. Geneva and Hague Conventions
3. Rules of Engagement (ROE)

Question 85

d. Differentiate among the four viewpoints on war: Pacifism, realism, holy war, and Just War Theory

Answer 85

i. Realism
1. The ends justify the means
2. Wars are clashes of power and interest
3. Moral constraints should never be put above a nation’s self-interest
4. Focuses on military necessity, where all methods can or should be used to achieve victory:
a. Burning of Atlanta in Civil War
b. Bombing civilian centers in WWII
ii. Holy War
1. Wars aren’t merely human affairs
a. Divine instruments of judgement
b. Authorized by God
c. God responsible for outcome
2. Cosmic battle between Good and Evil.
iii. Pacifism
1. Opposes war as a means of settling disputes and advocates use of arbitration, surrender, or even migration.
2. Spectrum ranges
a. Avoidance of war at all costs
b. War only as a last resort.
iv. Just War Theory
1. Killing is morally unacceptable…
2. Determine when war is morally justified and define actions that are permissible
3. Focuses on:
a. Protection of non-combatants
b. Wage war by clearly defined rules
4. Bottom line: Fight for a just cause and employ just means

Question 86

e. List the three factors that dominate war.

Answer 86

i. Fog
1. Difficult to see what’s happening in battle.
2. Once literally a fog, now more figuratively
a. Too much happening.
b. Misinformation.
c. Conflicting information
3. Overwhelmed with too much info.
ii. Friction
1. Murphy’s Law at its worst
a. Troops are lost
b. Bombs miss their target
c. Enemies don’t act as expected.
2. Friction is that which seems easy in war planning made difficult in reality.
iii. Chance
1. Plain dumb luck and fortune
a. Assassination attempt on Hitler
b. Sinking of USS Indianapolis

Question 87

f. Describe the evolution of warfare according to Alan Beyerchen’s taxonomy of four world wars.

Answer 87

i. World War I—The Chemists’ War
1. Poison gas
ii. World War II—The Physicists’ War
1. Atomic bomb
iii. World War III—The Information Researchers’ War
1. Invested development of more effective information surveillance and reconnaissance (ISR) capabilities enabled exploitation of intel gathering systems.
2. US ability to exploit intelligence was vital to winning the Cold War.
iv. World War IV—The Social Scientists’ War
1. Social science is becoming a difference maker
2. Cross-cultural awareness is vital to success
3. Cultural sensitivity has consequences
4. Win the hearts and minds of a culture before the enemy does.
5. Access new “weapons” like understanding and empathy

Question 88

a. Describe each Air Force Function

Answer 88

i. Nuclear Operations – organize, train, and sustain forces with the capability to support the national security goals of deterring adversaries from attacking the US and its interests with their nuclear arsenals or other WMD.
1. The physical employment of nuclear weapons at any level requires explicit orders from the President.
2. Nuclear Surety: “The goal of the Air Force Nuclear Weapons Surety Program is to incorporate maximum nuclear surety, consistent with operational requirements, from weapon system development to retirement from the inventory.”
ii. Counterair – a mission that integrates offensive and defensive operations to attain and maintain a desired degree of air superiority.
1. Air parity: a condition in the air battle in which one force does not have air superiority over the others.
2. Air superiority: that degree of dominance in the air battle of one force over another that permits the conduct of operations by the former and its related land, se
3. Air supremacy: degree of dominance in the air battle of one force over another that permits the conduct of operations by the former and its related land, sea, air, and space forces at a given time and place without effect interference by the opposing force.
iii. Counterland
1. Operations against enemy land force capabilities to create effects that achieve joint force commander objectives. Aim is to dominate the surface environment using airpower.
a. Air Interdiction - “Air operations to Divert, disrupt, delay or destroy the enemy’s surface military potential before it can be used effectively against friendly forces.”
i. Targets for interdiction attacks:
ii. Military weapon systems and supplies (tanks/artillery/infantry/POL)
b. Close Air support
i. Air action by aircraft against hostile targets in close proximity to friendly forces…
ii. Requires close integration between fire and movement of forces
iv. Space Operations
1. Ultimate goal of achieving space superiority should be to maintain our own space capabilities when contested and ensure unhindered mission continuity through any conflict.
v. Cyberspace Operations
1. The employment of cyberspace capabilities where the primary purpose is to achieve military objective or effects in or through cyberspace.
vi. Command and Control
1. The exercise of authority and direction by a properly designated commander over assigned and attached forces in the accomplishment of the mission.
2. Occurs at 3 levels:
a. Strategic Level …US strategy and policy level
b. Operational Level…OPCON normally at the Air Operations Center (AOC/CAOC) for operations and at Air Staff for deployment and sustainment of personnel.
c. Tactical Level…TACON normally at the Air Operations Center (AOC/CAOC)
vii. Global Integrated ISR
1. Cross-domain synchronization and integration of the planning and operation of ISR assets; sensors; processing, exploitation and dissemination systems; and, analysis and production capabilities across the globe to enable current and future operations.
a. Planning and Directing
b. Collection
c. Processing and Exploitation
d. Analysis and Production
e. Dissemination and Integration
viii. Strategic Attack
1. Offensive action that is specifically selected to achieve national or military strategic objectives. These attacks seek to weaken the adversary’s ability or will to engage in conflict, and may achieve strategic objectives without necessarily having to achieve operational objectives as a precondition.
a.
ix. Air Mobility
1. The rapid movement of personnel, material, and forces to and from or within a theater by air.
a. Airlift- transport
b. Air refueling- “force multiplier”
c. Air mobility support- provides command and control, aerial port, and maintenance for mobility air forces.
d. Aeromedical evacuation- transports causalities to and from MTF’s
x. Personnel Recovery
1. The sum of military, diplomatic, and civil efforts to effect the recovery and return of US Military, DOD civilians, and DOD contractor personnel who are isolated or missing while participating in a US government-sanctioned military activity or missions in an uncertain or hostile environment, or as determined by the Secretary of Defense
xi. Combat Support
1. As the foundational and crosscutting capability to field, base, protect, support, and sustain Air Force forces across the range of military operations (ROMO).
xii. Special Operations
1. Operations requiring unique modes of employment, tactical techniques, equipment and training often conducted in hostile, denied, or politically sensitive environments and characterized by one or more of the following: time sensitive, clandestine, low visibility, conducted with and/or through indigenous forces, requiring regional expertise, and/or a high degree of risk.

Question 89

b. Define the three levels of Air Force doctrine

Answer 89

i. Basic doctrine
1. Most fundamental and enduring beliefs that describe and guide the proper use, presentation, and organization of forces in military actions.
2. Not a checklist or scientific formula…. Provides common frame of reference.
3. Provides an airman’s perspective on organizing and employing air and space forces.
ii. Operational Doctrine
1. More detailed…. How to organize and employ military forces and applies the principles of basic doctrine to military action.
iii. Tactical doctrine
1. Most detailed…. Describes proper employment of specific A/F assets. Specific tactics to accomplish specific missions.

Question 90

I. State the Air Force policy on sexual harassment

Answer 90

a. ZERO TOLERANCE

Question 91

II. State commander/supervisory responsibilities regarding sexual harassment.

Answer 91

a. Should be sensitive to any complaints of sexual harassment and must follow through
b. Must confirm the validity of the complaint and ensure that there are no retaliatory action is taken against the complainant
c. Take special care to ensure reprisals of a direct or indirect nature do not take place with the complainant

Question 92

III. Explain the various forms of sexual harassment.

Answer 92

a. Verbal Sexual Harassment
i. Inquiries into a person’s intimate or personal relationships
ii. Sexually oriented comments about one’s appearance
iii. Continued pressure for dates, particularly after refusals
b. Nonverbal Sexual Harassment
i. Sexually demeaning notes or cartoon
ii. Nudes pictures in and around work area
iii. Ashtrays, coffee mugs, or figurines of a sexual nature
c. Physical
i. Patting, pinching, hugging, grabbing, rubbing, massaging, deliberate touching, or any other unnecessary physical contact

Question 93

IV. Summarize the effects of sexual harassment on mission accomplishment

Answer 93

a. Degrades leadership and interferes with command authority and mission effectiveness
b. May create situations that negatively affect unit cohesiveness
c. Loss of morals or perceptions that certain individuals will receive favorable or preferential treatment over others

Question 94

V. Identify informal and formal means of relief from sexual harassment.

Answer 94

a. Informal
i. Seek out potential harasser and communicate to him/her that their unwanted sexual behavior, gestures, or comments are unwelcome
ii. Inform potential harasser’s supervisor or your supervisor
b. Formal
i. Chain of command, legal office, security forces, chaplain, Equal Opportunity office, Inspector General (IG) system, US attorney general
ii. Complainants must submit formal complaints in writing to the Equal opportunity (EO) office.
iii. IG complaint system: conduct a fair and impartial review in attempting to resolve a complaint

Question 95

VI. Explain what penalties could be associated with sexual harassment

Answer 95

a. Sexual harassments can lead to oral, written reprimands and can lead to court-martial action

Question 96

I. Define Sexual Assault as defined by the Department of Defense.

Answer 96

a. Defined as intentional sexual contact, characterized by use of force, threats, intimation, abuse of authority or when the victim does not or cannot consent
b. Includes rape, forcible sodomy, and other unwanted sexual conduct that is aggravated, abusive, or wrongful, or attempts to commit these acts
c. Can occur without regard to gender or spousal relationship or age of victim
d. “Consent” is not deemed to mean the failure by the victim to offer physical resistance.

Question 97

II. Distinguish between what constitutes sexual consent and what does not.

Answer 97

a. Consent is defined as words or overt acts indicating a freely given agreement to the sexual conduct at issue by a competent
b. An expression of lack of consent through words or conduct means there is no consent.
c. Consent is NOT a lack of verbal or physical resistance or submission resulting from accuse use of force, threat of force, or placing another person in fear does not constitute consent.
d. Consent CANNOT be given when a victim is asleep, incapacitated or unconscious

Question 98

IV. Identify the Department of Defense policy on confidentiality.

Answer 98

a. Restricted reporting
i. Allows sexual assault victims to confidentially disclose the assault to specified individuals, in accordance with and receive medical treatment without triggering an official investigation
ii. Restricted reporting is intended to enhance the likelihood and individual will seek and receive medical care and counseling
b. Unrestricted reporting
i. Allows the victim to access medical treatment and counseling and request an official investigation of the allefation using exiting reporting channels
ii. The reported sexual assault will notify SARC and will offer the victim medical care

Question 99

V. Explain the risks associated with alcohol use as related to perpetration and victimization.

Answer 99

a. Do not mix sex and alcohol because it can lead to unwise decisions and compromising situations

Question 100

VI. Describe the roles of perpetrator, facilitator, bystander, and victim.

Answer 100

a. Perpetrator: the criminal who assaults the victim
b. Facilitator: person who enables, encourages, or creates a situation or environment that allows a perpetrator to act
c. Bystander: a person who sees the potential in a situation for a sexual assault or who may witness behaviors leading to an assault. Some bystanders may do nothing to stop an assault.
d. Victim: the person assaulted by the perpetrator

Question 101

VII. Explain the significance of a Wingman as related to sexual assault prevention and response.

Answer 101

VII. Explain the significance of a Wingman as related to sexual assault prevention and response.

Question 102

VIII. Describe the roles of the Sexual Assault Response Coordinator (SARC) and link this role to the Victim Advocate (VA).

Answer 102

a. SARC: considered the center of gravity when it comes to ensuring that victim of sexual assault receive appropriate and responsive care
b. VA: volunteers who are specially trained to support victims of sexual assault. They are not counselors and are not part of legal or law enforcement agencies. Their main purpose is to provide supportive services to the sexual assault victim.

Question 103

IX. Describe the effect sexual assault can have on a unit’s trust and cohesion.

Answer 103

a. Allegations and actions of sexual assault undermines the unit’s cohesion and team work because it shatters the foundation of trust required within a team

Question 104

X. State the importance of displaying empathy to a victim of sexual assault.

Answer 104

a. Victims of sexual assault have been traumatized and may not be thinking of all the things that they should or should not do following an assault
b. It is important to show empathy to a victim of sexual assault to encourage them to receive the proper medical, emotional, and legal help

Question 105

XI. Explain how gender relations and sexism can impact trust and mission accomplishment.

Answer 105

a. Sexist or gender discrimatory remarks or jokes that are left unaddressed contain a hidden meaning – that this behavior is acceptable
b. The lack of repercussions and action will make it seem like the leader may condone this type of behavior