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California Boards > CVMB > Flashcards

CVMB Flashcards

1
Q

What vaccine has highest incidence of causing anaphylaxis in vaccinated puppies?
Distemper, Parvo, Hepatitis, Lepto

A

Lepto

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2
Q

Daily water requirement for maintenance in a 20 lb dog?

A

600 ml (daily req is 50-75 ml/kg/day). More than 100/ml/kg is consistent with PD.

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3
Q

When feeding a puppy milk replacer what do you need to supplement to prevent cataracts?

A

arginine and methionine

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4
Q

You are called out to a farm for a cow in dystocia. The calf is emphysematous and has a fetid odor. It is engaged in birth canal. Best course of action is:

A

fetotomy

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5
Q

Which of the following surgical approaches is NOT correct for an LDA in the bovine?
Left paralumbar, Right paralumbar, Right paramedian, Ventral midline

A

Ventral midline is not appropriate. Sx corrective options include: R flank ompentopexy, R paramedian abomasopexy, and L flank abomasopexy

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6
Q

Calves on high grain, low fiber diet are susceptible to ____?

A

Vagal indigestion

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7
Q

Cows grazing on fields in CA are prone to Cu deficiency due to ___ ___?

A

high molybdenum

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8
Q

Surgery for cat with chronic constipation/obstipation?

A

Subtotal colectomy

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9
Q

Cattle on alfalfa hay die. Post-mortem changes show lumbar vertebrae fractures and soft ribs. What was the issue?

A

Decreased phosphorus

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10
Q

During the month of Nov, cattle are experiencing sudden onset of green diarrhea, poor condition, but have no oral ulcers. What’s the cause?

A

Ostertagiasis II (worse than I)

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11
Q

Cattle with brisket edema, bottle jaw, distended jugulara veins, and muffled heart sounds. Dx?

A

Traumatic reticulopericarditis (hardware disease)

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12
Q

Treatment for atrial fibrillation in a cow?

A

Oral quinidine

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13
Q

Treatment for refractory ascites/edema in congestive heart failure?

A

Lasix?

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14
Q

What are the two most common oral neoplasias in the mouth of the dog?

A 
#1 Melanoma 
#2 Squamous Cell Carcinoma
(Cats: 1 SCC, 2 Fibrosarcoma)
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15
Q

Cow is found dead in a field with a large spleen. What should you not do? Dx?

A

DONT NECROPSY. Pin prick ear for blood smear. Anthrax.

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16
Q

What is the most common bacteria isolated from cat bites?

A

Pasteurella

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17
Q

How do you treat KCS?

A

cyclosporine (can also treat with antibiotics, +/-prednisone drops)

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18
Q

Snakes have #? kidneys #? bladder?

A

2 kidneys, no urinary bladder (uric acid mixed with feces)

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19
Q

Lead poisoning in pscittacines causes what clinical signs?

A

Vomiting, diarrhea, weakness, ataxia, seizures

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20
Q

Dog with pulmonic stenosis. What are the EKG changes?

A

deep S wave, tall P waves

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21
Q

EKG findings for pericardial effusion?

A

Decreased R wave

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22
Q

Market weight of crossbred pigs?

A

200 lbs (220# at 6 months)

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23
Q

Steers in CA have respiratory signs, necrotic lesions in larynx, peritoneal fluid, swollen LNs and joints. Likely dx?

A

Malignant Catarrhal Fever (MCF)?

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24
Q

Is EIA a reportable disease?

A

Yes, yes it is.

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25
Q

Cattle with large airway sounds in ventral thorax but no sounds in dorsal thorax. Dx?

A

pneumothorax/collapsed lung

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26
Q

Pot belly pig with increased HR, RR & pulse. It is dyspneic and xray shows ventral pulmonary infiltrates and interstitial pattern with an enlarged heart. Dx?

A

Bacterial endocarditis

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27
Q

3 yr old horse with dysphagia, halitosis, and pain when place a bit. Dx?

A

? M3 issue or fx of PM1?

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28
Q

Signs of blue tongue virus in cattle?

A

Cattle are typically asymptomatic.

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29
Q

Modified Live Vaccines are not given to pregnant dogs and cats because ?

A

They can cause genetic and birth defects in the fetus

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30
Q

In navicular disease in horse, when is there the worst prognosis?

A

?

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31
Q

Xray is shot at 10mA, 0.2 sec, 70 kvp but it is too dark. What should you do?

A

10 mA, 0.1 sec, 70 kvp

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32
Q

Most common oropharyngeal lesions in poultry?

A

Candidiasis (avian pox?)

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33
Q

Xray of a bird. You see opacities between the femoral heads. What are they?

A

Grit in the ventriculus

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34
Q

Poultry birds with ocular lesions, corneal edema and discharge. What is it likely from?

A

Dust, ammonia?

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35
Q

Fracture anchoneal process. What is the best view with xray?

A

Fully flexed lateral view

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36
Q

How do you disinfect for parvo?

A

bleach (hypochlorite)

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37
Q

Rabies virus has never been known to be transmitted via ___?

A

IV?

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38
Q

Feline panleukopenia virus can live in organic matter for ____?

A

1 year

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39
Q

Most common cause of abortion in sheep?

A

Chlamydia (then Campy)

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40
Q

Bilateral thyroidectomy in hyperthyroid cat. What’s a severe post-op complication to look for?

A

Ataxia (because of sudden drop in Ca), and laryngeal paralysis

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41
Q

Enteroliths typically occur where in horses?

A

dorsal and transverse colon

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42
Q

How should cow teats be cleaned?

A

10,000 ppm free iodine

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43
Q

Cows with mastitis. For what organism, can you treat with intramammary penicillin?

A

Strep. agalactiae

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44
Q

Fluctuating vacuum on a milking machine will cause ____?

A

mastitis

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45
Q

Corkscrew in cattle is hereditary? T/F

A

True

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46
Q

Shoulder OCD lesions in a dog are typical at what age?

A

4-8 months

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47
Q

Muscles controlling eye movements are innervated by ?

A

III, IV, VI

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48
Q

Which is not affected by topical anesthesia?

A

pupillary reflex

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49
Q

Most common dermatophyte found on cats?

A

Microsporum canis

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50
Q

Single drug for treatment of dog tapeworms and roundworms?

A

Fenbendazole, Praziquantel

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51
Q

Anaplasmosis in cattle. Treating with 20 mg/lb tetracycline will do what?

A

Treat and kill carrier state

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52
Q

Prostatitis in a dog. What’s the most common bacterial cause?

A

E. coli

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53
Q

Equine colicking for 8 hr. Abd tap reveals 4.5 total protein, RBC=200,000, and WBC= 15,000, serosanguineous fluid. What’s the likely cause?

A

Volvulus of small intestines??

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54
Q

Horse is lame on right foreleg. It doesn’t block out with medial and lateral abaxial blocks. Does with . Dx?

A

Chip fx of proximal P1?

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55
Q

Cat presented with multiple draining tracts. Owner reports cat bite abscess 2 months previously. Impression smears shows intracellular, acid-fast organisms. Culture and sensitivity shows bacterial growth of acid-fast organisms after 4 days. Organisms probably ___?

A

Mycobacterium is acid-fast

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56
Q

Cat presented in August, with crusting skin around collar, and above tail head. Owner reports areas to be pruritic. Probably due to ___.

A

flea allergy dermatitis

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57
Q

What shampoo should you not use in cats?

A

tar

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58
Q

Dug used to treat Cushing’s disease?

A

OP’DDD

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59
Q

5 year old male Doberman with solitary, pruritic, ulcerated lesion on craniolateral tarsus.

A

??Acral lick granuloma?

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60
Q

Dog with PCV 20% and spherocytes. Dx?

A

Immune mediated hemolytic anemia

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61
Q

A puppy is acutely dyspneic. Chest rads reveal air bronchograms with primarily caudoventral distribution. Likely?

A

Electrocution?

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62
Q

Coccidiosis in chickens is best treated with?

A

Amprolium

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63
Q

This neuropathy in poultry is associated with Vitamin E deficiency.

A

Enecephalomalacia (see sudden prostration, legs outstretched, toes flexed)

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64
Q

Loss of facial sensation indicates damage to which cranial nerve?

A

CN V (Facial nerve)

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65
Q

Clinical signs of Horner’s syndrome?

A

Enopthalmus, ptosis, miosis, elevation of 3rd eyelid

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66
Q 
Which does not cause oral ulcerations in cats?
FIV
Feline rhinotracheitis
Feline pneumonitis
Feline calicivirus
A

Pneumonitis

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67
Q

What is the most common neoplasia in a cat’s mouth?

A

Squamous Cell Carcinoma

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68
Q

Where do you block for a rumenotomy?

A

T13-L2

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69
Q

What is the “holding layer” when suturing paramedian incision on a cow?

A

External rectus fascia (just like cat, dog)

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70
Q

In abdominal surgery, what is the most important closure layer to prevent dehiscence?

A

External rectus sheath

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71
Q

Most common cause of pneumothorax in dog?

A

Trauma

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72
Q

What is found on necropsy of an Epizootic Bovine Abortion fetus?

A

petechiation, granulomatous hepatitis

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73
Q

You diagnose acute septicemia/bacteremia in a 2 day calf. Which antibiotic would be best to treat it with?

A

3rd generation cephalosporin (e.g. ceftiofur)

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74
Q 
Which is a non-absorbable suture?
polyglycolic acid (dexon)
polydioxione (PDS)
nylon
polyglactic acid (vicryl)
A

Nylon

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75
Q

Young, intact female cat has rapidly enlarging firm and nonpainful mammary glands. Clinically she is normal though. Cause?

A

Mammary hypertrophy complex?

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76
Q 
DCM is most common in:
male Gordon setter
male Dobie
female lab
female Great Dane
A

male Dobie (giant breeds and males are more predisposed)

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77
Q 
Digoxin is used to treat \_\_\_\_.
PVC
supraventricular tachycardia
sick sinus syndrome
2nd degree AV vlock
A

supra-ventricular tachycardia

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78
Q

During fluid therapy for shock, what is best to monitor?

systolic BP, pulse pressure, CVP, CO

A

Central venous pressure

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79
Q

Whats the most common ulcerative lesion on a dog’s nose?

A

Discoid Lupus (DLE)

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80
Q

Cat was given phosphate enema 45 min ago. Now it is seizuring. How do you treat?

A

Ca gluconate, IV

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81
Q

Spastic syndrome in bovine (AKA bar cramps, stretches, periodic spasticity) is caused by ____?

A

heritable in dairy cattle

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82
Q 
BLV carriers in a herd are best identified by \_\_\_?
AGID for antibodies
Blood smear for lymphocytes
Blood test and check lymphocyte counts
Virus isolation from lymphocytes
A

AGID for antibodies

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83
Q 
What is the most common cause of hypercalcemia in dog and cat?
Primary hyperparathyroidism
Non-parathyroid malignancy
Adrenocortical insufficiency
Vitamin D toxicity
A

Non-PTH malignancy (e.g. lymphoma, multiple myeloma, apocrine gland adenosarcoma, other)

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84
Q 
With portocaval shunt, the patient's serum will show \_\_\_\_.
Increased bilirubin
Increased albumin
Increased glucose
Decreased BUN
A

Decreased BUN

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85
Q

In cows, what metabolic abnormality is associated with acidosis?

A

Hyperkalemia

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86
Q

Cow presents with normal WBC count, 2:1 neuto:lymphote ratio, decreased PCV, increased TP, increased globulin. These hematologic parameters indicate:

A

chronic inflammation

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87
Q

A beef cattle operation is experiencing acute deaths. Necropsy=pericarditis, enlarged liver, adhesions of rumen to diaphragm. Dx?

A

Trauamatic reticulopericarditis

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88
Q

Herd of beef cows are turned out on a spring pasture. There were some acute deaths. Necropsy showed pulmonary edema and myocardial streaks of white. The most likely cause is ____.

A

Vitamin E deficiency

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89
Q

7 year old male Standard Poodle presents for lameness and epistaxis. Rads show lytic areas in humerus and femurs. TP = 12 (globulin 9.0, albumin 4.0), with 4+ proteinuria. Dx?

A

Multiple myeloma

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90
Q

What vx has highest incidence of causing anaphylaxis in puppies?

A

Lepto

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91
Q

The best post milking teat dip is ____.

A

20,000 ppm iodinated solution

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92
Q

CAE agent is ____ and causes what in goats?

A

Caprine Arthritis-Encephalitis (CAE) is caused by lentivirus. Causes leukoencephalitis in 2-6 month old kids (rear leg paresis-paralysis). More common form is >6 months old causing polysynovitis, arthritis, firm udder (“hard bag”), and occasional pneumonia.

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93
Q

Atopy is which type of immune mediated reaction?

A

Immediate hypersensitivity (type I)

Other types of immune-mediated reactions:
I - immediate/anaphylaxis
II - antibody mediated cytotoxicity 
III - immune complex disease
IV - cell mediated (delayed)
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94
Q 
Which is a potential mycotic zoonoses from a dog or cat?
Sporotrichosis
Coccidiomycosis
HIstoplasmosis
Cryptococcosis
A

Sporotrichosis

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95
Q

Several finishing pigs have diarrhea without fibrin, blood or mucus. Two pigs are afebrile. No change in appetite and no vomiting. Dx?

A

TGE

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96
Q

Demodex infection with secondary pyoderma in a young dog can be treated with?

A

Amitraz, lyme-sulfur dips, cephalosporins (not prenisone!)

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97
Q

To avoid sciatic nerve damage when placing a femoral intramedullary pin, one should:

A

Place pin in normograde fashion from the trochanter (always insert from proximal end into trochanteric fossa)

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98
Q

Dermatologic manifestations of hypothyroidism in the dog include:

A

seborrhea, alopecia, not pruritus

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99
Q

Dermatologic manifestations in hyperadrenocorticismin the dog include:

A

calcinosis cutis, hyperpigmentation, alopecia, thin skin

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100
Q

Adult cows grazing lush pasture have edematous heavy lungs with no consolidation. Dx?

A

L-tryptophan (moldy sweet potato) - causes atypical non-septic, non-consolidating pneumonia called “fog fever”

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101
Q

Several steers of a large group have pulmonary interstitial pneumonia and emphysema. Dx?

A

BRSV

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102
Q

What drug should not be used in 6yr female dog with history of seizures?

A

Chlorpromazine (anti-emetic but dont use with seizures)

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103
Q

What drug can be useful in post-orthopedic procedure analgesia?

A

Butorphanol

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104
Q

The use of NO2 gas is contraindicated in which of the following procedures?

A

intestinal anastomosis, GDV

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105
Q

Infectious bronchitis in chickens is caused by ____ and causes what type of clinical signs?

A

Coronavirus
Respiratory, urogenital, and GI tract issues
Morbidity 100%, spread is rapid
Some can get interstitial nephritis (60% mortality)
Cannot differentiate from Newcastles (paramyxovirus) or infectious laryngotracheitis (herpes)

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106
Q

Most common pathogen in mouse lung?

A

Mycoplasma pulmonis (murine respiratory mycoplasmosis) - causes chattering, dyspnea, nasal discharge, sneezing, snuffling, rales, dyspnea, head tilt, circling

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107
Q

What predisposes a guinea pig to pregnancy ketosis?

A

large litter, obesity, poor nutrition

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108
Q

What can be falsely elevated when drawing blood from bird nail trim?

A

BUN (because of uric acid from fecal material)

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109
Q

What is a stress leukogram in a cow?

A

Increased neutrophils, decreased eosinophils, leukopenia

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110
Q

Chest fluid from cat with chylothorax. What do you expect on labs?

A

Elevated triglycerides, presence of chylomicrons, looks like skim milk

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111
Q

The lab changes associated with lymphangiectasia include ____.

A

decreased lymphocytes, decreased proteins, decreased cholesterol

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112
Q

The most consistent change seen in glomerulonephritis is ____.

A

proteinuria

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113
Q

The best way to treat squamous cell carcinoma in an expensive Hereford show cow is ___.

A

Surgical excision with cryotherapy?

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114
Q

An adult ewe with laminitis, lingual necrosis, and brisket edema is most likely afflicted with ____?

A

Blue Tongue Virus

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115
Q

Best way to remove a dead fetus from a cow?

A

Fetotomy

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116
Q

Where is a horse’s pelvic flexure when palpating on a rectal examination?

A

Left ventral lateral to bladder

On palpation: right ventral-sternal-left ventral-pelvic flexure-left dorsal diaphragmatic flexure-right dorsal (4,4,4,1,3,2)

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117
Q

Most common locations of enterolith formation in horses?

A

Right dorsal and transverse colon

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118
Q

Most common site of boney sequestration in the horse?

A

P3

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119
Q

Equine palmar digital (PD) nerve block desensitizes which regions?

A

the caudal heel region (e.g. navicular bone, navicular bursa, digital cushion, etc)

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120
Q

Worst prognosis for a horse with navicular disease?

A

Lytic lesions on flexor cortex of navicular bone

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121
Q

What is the most common cause of lameness in the equine foot?

A

Subsolar abscess

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122
Q 
Tritrichomonas fetus is not associated with:
Late term abortions
Post-coital pyometras
Placentitis
Male infertility
A

Late term abortions

Tritrich = high nonpregnancy rates, occasional pyometras, abortions

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123
Q

How do you dx Tritrichomonas fetus?

A

ID or culture organism from cervicovaginal mucus, uterine exudate, placental fluids, fetal abomasal contents, preputial smegma

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124
Q

Equine rhinopneumonitis abortion is characterized by what findings? What is it caused by?

A

Late term abortion (9-10 mo) with normal fetus and normal placenta

Caused by EHV-1. Should vaccinate mare at 5, 7, 9 months.

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125
Q

You suspect Equine Viral Arteritis. What do you do?

A

Contact proper state authorities b/c it is reportable

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126
Q

What is EVA caused by and what are the clinical signs? Who are the carriers?

A

EVA is nonarthropod-borne togavirus.
Causes fever, anorexia, serous ocular and nasal discharge, and edema of limbs/ventral abdomen/conjunctiva.
Stallions are carriers.

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127
Q

Ehrlichiosis is caused by ___. Causes acute-chronic disease. Common lab change is ____. And the most commonly affected cells are ____. What is the vector? How do you treat?

A

Thrombocytopenia, monocytes, Rhipiceohalus sanguineus (tick), tetracycline to treat

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128
Q

RMSF is caused by ____ ___. The disease is acute in onset, causes _____. It is spread by ____. How do you treat?

A

Thrombocytopenia, Dermacentor variablis/andersoni, tetracycline to treat

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129
Q 
Which do you not see with anterior uveitis?
Mydriasis
Blepharospasm
Aqueous Flare
Bulblar conjunctival vascular injection
A

You do not see mydriasis with AU (instead miosis).

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130
Q

How long do you have to wait after performing an intraarticular lidocaine block for results to be negative?

A

20-30 minutes

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131
Q

How many teeth do adult cats have?

A

30

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132
Q

What statement is correct about chronic stomatitis/gingivitis in cats?

A

??

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133
Q

Veterinarians need to turn in a triplicate form to DEA for schedule ___ drugs.

A

II (most opioids, etc)

134
Q

In order to have non-vets using radiographic equipment, what must a vet provide?

A

training/safety course for all employees

135
Q

A mare is in seasonal anestrous. To stimulate follicle growth, what can you give?

A

GnRH

136
Q

Where is the proper needle placement for administering epidural anesthesia to a horse?

A

Cy1-3 (or sacrocaudal)
Cows: sacrocaudal/1st intercaudal
Sheep & goats: sacrocaudal/1st intercaudal
Pigs: lumbosacral

137
Q

Enophthalmous, ptosis, miosis and prolapse third eyelid indicates ____.

A

Horner’s syndrome

138
Q

What is the function of an ACE inhibitor?

A

treat heart failure (preventions Angiotensin I to Angiotensin II so prevent vasoconstriction and decreased retention of sodium and water)

139
Q

Which anesthetic affects GI motility in dogs?

Acepromazine, Suritol, Thiopental, Xylazine

A

Xylazine (emetic), Thiopental (decreased GI motility)

140
Q

What is the premedication of choice in a 14 yr exitable poodle?

A

Diazepam

141
Q

In which procedures is NO2 contraindicated?

A

intestinal anastamosis, GDV surgery

142
Q

How do you best diagnose acute organophosphate toxicity in a cow?

A

Check level of OP in rumen?

143
Q

What are signs of salt poisoning in pigs?

A

Siezures, ataxia, death, head pressing, coma, blindness, obtundation

144
Q

What is the best way to treat anticoagulant rodenticide toxicity in a severely affected animal?

A

K1 SQ

145
Q

Most poultry vaccines can be given via aerosol or in water. Which vaccine must be given individually?

A

Marek’s

146
Q

How soon after farrowing do sow return to estrus?

A

28 days

Nurse fo 21 days, sow comes into estrus 3-5 days after weaning

147
Q

What muscle would you not use for IM injections in a rattite (ostrich like bird)?

A

Biceps muscles

148
Q

Puppy with diarrhea. He passes tapeworms and roundworms. What antibiotic regimen should you treat him with?

A

Fenbendazole + Praziquantel

149
Q

Oral dental films provide fine structural detail. This is possible because they:

A

??

150
Q

What is the best screening test for Von Willebrand’s?

A

mucosal bleeding time

151
Q

When closing an abdominal surgery on a cat, which layer is most important and strongest for appositional closure to prevent dehiscence?

A

External rectus sheath

152
Q

When conducting a perineal urethrostomy on a cat, what level do you incise the urethra?

A

bulbourethral gland

153
Q

At what age do you castrate a horse?

A

Any age, but foals - prior to weaning is best

154
Q

What is true about treatment for contracted deep digital flexor tendon on horse?

A

Severe cases do not respond well to interior check ligament tenectomy

155
Q

In a mare with a granulosa thecal cell tumor, after the ovary is removed she will cycle when?

A

within a few months , depending on winter anestrus

156
Q 
A mare should be inseminated with:
10-50 x10^6 motile progressive sperm
1-5 x 10^9 "
100-500 10^6 "
5-10 x 10^9 "
A

100-500 x10^6

157
Q

How do you diagnose a horse with navicular syndrome?

A

history, clinical signs, posterior digital nerve block, radiographs

158
Q

A maiden mare has no clinical signs and has normal uterine cytology and has slow growth of Strep. zooepidemicus on uterine culture. What treatment regimen do you undertake?

A

Administer parental antibiotics?? (can cause bacterial antibiotics)

159
Q

You decrease the KvP by 10%. To achieve the same degree of blackness on the film, you would need to do what to the mAS?

A

increase the mAS by 2x

160
Q

What echo findings are most consistent with systemic hypertension?

A

left ventricular hypertrophy?

161
Q

When taking skin biopsies from dogs, it is most important to do what?

A

not surgically prep the area to be biopsied

162
Q

What is the best way to ID Heinz bodies?

A

make a blood smear with New Methylene Blue

163
Q

What is the agent of cat scratch fever?

A

Hemobartonella (gram negative bacillus)

164
Q

What is the radiographic appearance of a heart with systemic hypertension?

A

left ventricular hypertrophy

165
Q

Uterine torsion in a mare occurs most commonly during what time period?

A

between 7-11 months of gestation

166
Q

What is the best method of preventing a dog from chewing out sutures from abdominal surgery?

A

Placing an E collar on the dog

167
Q

What organism is responsible for visceral larval migrans?

A

Toxocara canis (roundworms); cutaneous larval migrans (hookworms)

168
Q

Which of the following plants are not toxic to cats?

Pine needles, poison ivy, poinsetta, dumb cane

A

poison ivy (just contact allergy)?

169
Q

A goat has been in estrus for 12 hours. On a speculum examination you notice a small amount of mucoid fluid in the anterior vagina. You interpret the fluid as:

A

normal

170
Q

What drug induces seizures when epinephrine has been given?

A

xylazine

171
Q

With a 25 day pregnancy in a mare, what can you palpate rectally?

A

Vesicle at 25-40 days; can see on ultrasound at day 14/day25 can see embryo with heartbeat

172
Q

You do a vaginal sepculum on a diestrus mare and you see what type of cervix?

A

Pale, dry, tight cervix
Estrus - pink, moist
Anestrus - white, grey

173
Q

You have performed a standing castration on a 5 year stallion. 45 minutes after the procedure, you notice that the horse is dripping what you think is an excessive amount of blood. What do you do?

A

1st try to Identify bleeder and clamp while horse is standing

174
Q

A 4 year old terrier has recurrent struvite stones. The best management to prevent further stones includes ____.

A

treat UTI (urease causing bacteria helps forms stones)

175
Q

How long will it take a healthy tympanic membrane that was punctured to heal?

A

1-3 weeks

176
Q

To treat a Sarcoptes scabei infection, in which breed would you not use ivermectin?

A

Collie

177
Q

A Dachshund has vessiculo-bullous lesions at the muccutaneous junctions, on the face, on the ears, and also has submandibular lymphadenopathy. What would you treat with/

A

Corticosteroids, antibiotics, vitamin E

178
Q

You are transfusing a patient with severe thrombocytopenia. How long would you expect clotting factors to last?

A

< 7 days

179
Q

A horse is chewing at an incision on its thorax. What is the best method to prevent this?

A

??Cribbing strap on horse?

180
Q

What is the most common cause of hyphema in cat?

A

trauma

181
Q

How do you treat a cat that has received an organophosphate enema and is now convulsing?

A

Calcium gluconate

182
Q

A puppy chewed an electrical cord. What’s the primary clinical sign that you will see?

A

Pulmonary edema

183
Q

When comparing glycopyrrolate to atropine use in the cat, what statement is true?

A

Glyco lasts longer

184
Q

What is an undesirable effect of xylazine when used in a dog?

A

hypotension

185
Q

Which lipid soluble drug is given to treat canine prostatitis?

A

Baytril, TMS or Chloramphenicol

186
Q

What is the most common side effect of Methimazole therapy?

A

GI, liver, bone marrow suppression

187
Q

What is a unique yet adverse drug effect of cyclophopshamide? Why is typically used in animals?

A

sterile hemorrhagic cystitis; typically used to treat neoplasias or immnune diseases

188
Q

What is the best approach to use in a recumbent cow for a C section?

A

L flank

189
Q

What surgical approach should not be used to repair an LDA in a cow?
L paramedian, L paralumbar, R paralumbar

A

L paramedian should not be done

190
Q

What is the best anesthesia to remove a digit in a cow?

A

Regional local anesthesia (baer block)

191
Q

What is the most common cause of pneumothorax in a dog?

A

Trauma

192
Q

When is a horse too deep under anesthesia?

A

When a corneal reflex is absent

193
Q

A 400 kg horse looses 4L of blood during surgery. What is the best method of replacing the loss?

A

Administer 12 L NaCl

194
Q

When do you refer a colicking horse to a surgical facility?

A

after no response to analgesia

195
Q

What is the next choice of drug to use when a dog with ascites is refractory to treatment?

A

Furosemide 1st then Enalapril 2nd

196
Q

What anesthetic agent increases the arrhythmogenic effects of catecholamines?

A

??

197
Q

What drug is given to help diagnose heaves in a horse?

A

atropine?

198
Q

Which canine urinary stones are radiolucent?

A

Urate

199
Q

What are signs of oak bud toxicity in a cow?

A

renal disease, PU/PD

200
Q

When do you use baermann test ofr cat feces?

A

When trying to find aleurostrongylus abstrusus

201
Q

A foal has a ruptured common digital extensor tendon. What is the best method of treatment?

A

Splint on dorsal surface and stall rest

202
Q

What is the best way to ID reticulocytes on a blood smear?

A

New Methylene Blue

203
Q

A cow can simultaneously flex its hock and extend its stifle. What has happened?

A

Ruptured peroneus tarsus

204
Q

What is the holding layer in an intestinal surgery?

A

submucosa on intestines; external rectus sheath on body wall

205
Q

What is the difference between a connell and cushing suture pattern?

A

??

206
Q

What do you need to do to have the best chance of identifying Demodex from a skin scraping?

A

Squeeze the skin first

207
Q

What is the best radiographic positioning to use to evaluate the osseous bullae?

A

dorsoventral on table?

208
Q

What are the two best ways to spay a heifer?

A

L flank (left paralumbar fossa) or vaginal approach

209
Q

A client has a cat that just recovered from feline panleukopenia. What advice do you give her about bringing a new kitten into the home?

A

Virus is shed by a cat for 6 weeks in all body secretions; can survive in environment for up to 1 year; parvovirus

210
Q

What is true about scrapie?

A

it affects sheep and goats

211
Q

What is true about Coxiella burnetti abortion in sheep?

A

It is a rickettsial organism and zoonotic. (Q fever)

212
Q

A cow living in the foothills of the Sierra has just aborted. What is the condition of the fetus?

A

Fetus is fresh, is not autolyzed. High in liver, LNs, and low in thymus.

213
Q

You are doing a necropsy on a chicken and find blood in the trachea, what does this help to diagnose?

A

TLT - herpes

214
Q

Where is the FeLV virus shed?

A

typically shed in saliva (lesser amount in tears, urine, feces)

215
Q

What is tartar composed of?

A

CaPO4 plus plaque and food

216
Q

How is the bisecting angle determined when taking oral radiographs?

A

beam is directed perpendicular to the line that bissects the angle formed by film & tootth (done intraorally)

217
Q

How do you differentiate a pituitary tumor from an adrenal tumor?

A

High dose dexmethasone suppression test

Or plasma ACTH (pit has normal or increased ACTH while adrenal has decreased ACTH)

218
Q

What changes occur in blood of a cat that has been receiving longterm glucocorticoid therapy?

A

Low lymphocytes, High Neutrophils, Low Eosinophils, High Monocytes

219
Q

Spherocytes are seen on a blood smear. What does this diagnose?

A

Immune mediated hemolytic anemia

220
Q

A rabbit has pastuerella. What are the clinical signs?

A

snuffles, pneumonia, abscesses

221
Q

Why is a double flap oral nasal repair procedure performed?

A

because the hole is too large (this procedure provides wound closure on both sides for chronic fistulas)

222
Q 
You are presented with a pig that is hypovolemic, and has diarrhea. What is the safest anesthetic to use?
Mask down with iso
Acepromazine
Telazol
Ketamine
A

??

223
Q

When is yohimbine used in a dog?

A

To reverse xylazine

224
Q

What is the dental formula in the adult dog?

A

42 permanent teeth (I3/3, C1/1, P4/4,M2/3)

225
Q

What is the drug used to treat Cushings? And how does it work?

A

Mitotane (lysodren) - destroys zona fasiculata and reticularis and destroys adrenocortical tissues

226
Q

What’s the best view for anconeal process of elbow?

A

Flexed lateral

227
Q

When is the earliest you can vaccinate for rabies?

A

4 months

228
Q

What are two most common cause of periocardial effusion?

A

Hemangiosarcoma, Heart base Tumors

229
Q

What do you hear with pericardia effusion? What do you see on EKG?

A

You hear muffled heart sounds; you see electrical alternans (alternating height of R waves)

230
Q

When is it ideal to perform a triple pelvic osteotomy and why would it be performed?

A

5-11 month old puppy for hip dysplasia

231
Q

What is the dental formula for an adult cat?

A

30 teeth

I 3/3, C1/1, P 3/2, M 1/1

232
Q

What virus causes chronic stomatitis/gingivitis?

A

calicivirus

233
Q

What virus causes Marek’s in chickens? What are the typical signs?

A

Herpesvirus

depression then death; on necropsy - enlarged nerves, visceral lymphoid tumors

234
Q

What are the clinical signs of infectious tracheobronchitis in chickens/pheasants? How do you diagnose?

A

acutely dyspnea, rales, coughing
Dx: viral isolation of herpesvirus
Vaccinate in the water

235
Q

Clinical signs of influenza in birds?

A

Respiratory distress, green diarrhea, cyanotic head, wattle, comb

236
Q

Chlamydiosis/Psittacosis is zoonotic and reportable. T/F

A

Both zoonotic and reportable

237
Q

How do you rehydrate a dehydrated bird?

A

intra-osseous fluids via distal ulna with 18-22 g 1.5-2.5” needle

238
Q

What would cause raised white lesions in young birds?

A

Candidiasis (C. albicans)

Treat with nystatin

239
Q

What clinical sign indicates ivermectin toxicity in turtles?

A

Paresis

240
Q

What does anterior synechiae mean?

A

Adhesion of anterior iris to posterior cornea

241
Q

How do you anesthetize a cow to put it all the way out?

A

Xylazine and ketamine

242
Q

What drug do you use to put a cow in lateral recumbency?

A

Xylazine

243
Q

How to remove a bovine digit?

A

Tourniquet with 2% lidocaine ring block

244
Q

The best anesthesia for teat surgery is:

A

ring block at base, infuse teat with lidocaine

245
Q

Where to block spinal nerves for rumenotomy sx?

A

T13-L2

246
Q

What are the contraindications to xylazine in a cow?

A

pregnant cow - can cause premature separation of placentomes

247
Q

Safest most humane way to debud goat kids?

A

Physical restraint, 10mg/kg of 2% liodcaine

248
Q

What is the biggest problem with anesthesia of cattle related to endotracheal intubation?

A

aspiration of rumen contents

249
Q

Where is the proper placement of the needle to anesthetize the cornea of a cow?

A

block the lacrimal nerve via zygomatic temporal nerve

250
Q

What else would be appropriate to give with lidocaine in a goat undergoing C-section?

A

Diazepam

251
Q

What are signs of colic in cattle?

A

Grinding teeth (bruxism), grunting/groaning, shifting hind feed, kicking abdomen, restlessness, repeatedly lying down/getting up, anorexia, depression

252
Q

How do you treat neonatal bacteremia (caused by salmonellosis)?

A

Ceftiofur

253
Q

What typically causes frothy bloat?

A 
Lush pastures (high protein) or high grain intake;
tx with stomach tube, antifoaming agent (DSS or veg oil) then rumenotomy
254
Q

How do you surgically treat an LDA?

A

left sided abomasopexy or right-sided omentopexy

255
Q

Most likely cause of diarrhea in a 1-2 wk old calf?

A

Rotavirus

256
Q

Where is the “ping” best auscultated on cow with an LDA?

A

Draw a line from left elbow to tuber coxa b/w 9th and 13th ribs

257
Q

What can infect cows after liver biopsy?

A

C. novyi

258
Q

Large holstein dairy herd with 10 day old calves with diarrhea. 100% morbidity, 0% mortality. Adequate passive transfer has been demonstrated. Next dx step?

A

ELISA for crypto

259
Q

How do you determine if a gastric tube has been properly placed in a cow?

A

blow into the tube and auscultate the rumen

260
Q

Postpartum cow of one day that is recumbent and has decreased rumen contractions. What is likely cause?

A

Ketosis

261
Q

How to dx LDA?

A

auscultate ping

262
Q

What is considered an emergency in cattle?

A

abomasal volvulus

263
Q

When is a cow more prone to developing an LDA?

A

3-6 wks postpartum

264
Q

Cattle herd is having an outbreak of diarrhea, some have scruffy hair coats with alopecia. What is the likely cause?

A

Johne’s disease

265
Q

Where is the holding layer when suturing a paramedian incision in a cow?

A

external rectus fascia

266
Q

Which of the following surgical approaches is not correct for a cow?

A

ventral midline

267
Q

A cow with rumen pH of 5 most likely has?

A

grain overload

268
Q

A cow that is 5 mo into lactation develops diarrhea with melena:

A

abomasal ulcers

269
Q

Cow off feed with left-sided ping?

A

LDA

270
Q

Cow with linear lesions in the esophagus (hemorrhage in Peyer’s patches). What’s the cause?

A

BVD

271
Q

Several cows in a herd have died. On post-mortem you find rumenal sloughing and rumen fluid pH of 5 and focal liver lesions:

A

lactic acidosis

272
Q

8% of herd of cattle have diarrhea. Which is the most likely cause?

A

Johne’s

273
Q

A cow has pieces of rumen floating in her rumen. Likely cause?

A

Lactic acidosis

274
Q

What is appropriate tx for frothy bloat?

A

DSS

275
Q 
When is an appropriate time to tx perineal lacteration in a cow?
immediately
w/in 10 days
15-30 d post calving
60 d post calving
A

?? within 10 days?

276
Q

At what minimum of SCC should you start routine milk culturing of bulk tank?

A

when SCC > 250,000

277
Q

You have an 800,000 cell count in cattle bulk tank; what do you do?

A

culture on bulk tank milk

278
Q

You would not want to use a live vaccine for which agent?

A

leptospirosis

279
Q

How does milk get contaminated with Salmonella dublin?

A

From carrier cows

280
Q

Herd of sheep are sent to slaughter and you learn they had fence line contact with a scrapies-infected sheep. What do you do?

A

Contact the authorities

281
Q

Which cattle disease is not reportable to the state within 24 hours?

A

Anaplasmosis

282
Q

What does a 24 mo old beef bull need to be tested for before coming toCA?

A

Trichomonas

283
Q

What drug can you give to dairy cattle?

A

Ceftiofur

284
Q

What cattle disease is reportable within 24 hours?

A

Foot and Mouth!!!

285
Q

A 10 month old bull is tested for Trichomonas. Microscopically within the sample flagellated protozoa are seen. What next?

A

Cull

286
Q

How long are health certificates valid for for bovine herd?

A

30 days from physical exam

287
Q

Best post-milking teat dip is what?

A

20,000 ppm iodinated solution

288
Q

CMT is an indirect measure of?

A

milk leukocytes (white blood cells)

289
Q

Cell count of less than 100,000 indicates?
overall low strep
overall low staph
increased chance of E coli growth

A

increased change of E. coli growth

290
Q

The lepto vaccine in cattle is good for how long?

A

1 yr of protection

291
Q

If fresh cow’s milk looks like red tomato soup:

A

dont do anything?

292
Q 
Which disease does not have a vaccine:
EBA
IBR
BVD 
MCF
A

A

293
Q

What is the tx of choice for cow with parakeratosis?

A

zinc oxide

294
Q

How do you treat foot rot in a cow?

A

systemic antibiotics

295
Q

Most important tx for interdigital phlegmon?

A

Systemic antibiotics

296
Q

5 y cow with 1 cm mass near limbus of eye. What is the best treatment?

A

scalpel incision then repeated cryotherapy

297
Q

February, most heifers have matted hair on back with small crusty bumps under the crusts. Likely cause?

A

dermatophilus

298
Q

Which mineral deficiency would cause paresis in lambs?

A

Copper

299
Q

A herd of cattle being fed alfalfa hay is currently experiencing a large # of fractures. What mineral imbalance is most likely?

A

Cu deficiency/Molybdenum toxicity

300
Q

Cows that are fed a diet of only oat hay and barley are most likely deficient in ?

A

Ca++

301
Q

A farmer is experiencing a decrease in fat % in his milk. Whats the most likely cause?

A

Decreased fiber in the diet

302
Q

Cattle on alfalfa hay. Deaths occur. Post mortem review shows cattle are suffering from lumbar vertebrae fractures and soft ribs.

A

Decreased P

303
Q

In cows what metabolic abnormality is associated with acidosis:

A

hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis ?? hyperkalemia??

304
Q

Calves on a high grain, low fiber diet at susceptible to:

A

vagal indigestion

305
Q

Cows grazed on fields of Ca are prone to Cu deficiency due to:

A

High Mo

306
Q

Which enzyme is elevated in Selenium/Vitamin E deficiency?

A

CPK

307
Q

What has happened when you see a cow with a simultaneously flexed hock and extended stifle?

A

Peroneus tertius muscle rupture (tx stall confinement)

308
Q

A cow has laminitis. It is usually a sequelae to what disease?

A

rumenal acidosis

309
Q

What do you treat cattle flukes with?

A

Albendazole

310
Q

A cow has hypoderma bovis. What is the economic impact?

A

Hide loss

311
Q

You suspect a calf has crypto. How do you differentiate from other coccidian?

A

Extracellular location?

312
Q

Cattle in November have green diarrhea, poor condition, no oral ulcers, with sudden onset. What is it?

A

Ostertagiasis I

313
Q

What GI parasite feeds on blood in ruminants?

A

Haemonchus

314
Q

What is the most dangerous human Brucella pathogen? And cows?

A

Brucella melitensis in humans - causes undulating fevers
(in cows, it is B. abortus - abortions, retained placenta, orchitis
test with Brucella Milk Ring Test every 3-4 months, cull positives, vaccinate!!

315
Q

At day 60, what is the best way to detect pregnancy?

A

Membrane slip

316
Q

EBA leads to what in the fetus?

A

Hepatomegaly with granulamotous nodular areas and lymphomegaly

317
Q

What are the clinical lesions in cows for Blue Tongue Virus?

A

Inapparent infections in cows

318
Q

How to prevent EBA from happening?

A

expose heifers to endemic areas prior to breeding age to prevent abortions

319
Q

Most common agent in cattle endometritis?

A

C. pyogenes

320
Q

Cow in 3rd week of lactation has stinky breath most likely from what?

A

negative energy balance (ketosis)

321
Q

How do you prevent contagious mastitis?

A

Dip the teat post-milking

322
Q

What is the best restraint for pregnancy check on 100 nervous Brahma range cattle?

A

Squeeze chutes

323
Q

In an unvaccinated herd, 70% of heifers have aborted in 3rd trimester with placentitis. What is the most likely agent?

A

IBR

324
Q

What would you be able to palpated on a 55-day pregnant cow?

A

Membrane slip

325
Q

Which treatment would be contraindicated in a cow with a retained placenta?

A

Manual removal

326
Q

Which of the following drugs is prohibited in lactating dairy cows?

A

Suladiazine

327
Q

Which mastitis pathogens can be eradicated?

A

?

328
Q

How do you treat a BAR cow in parturition dx with emphysematous shistosmos reflexus?

A

fetotomy

329
Q

Which drug has no meat/milk withdrawal time?

A

IM ceftiofur

330
Q

What do you not use to treat acute environmental mastitis?

A

intramammary antibiotics

331
Q

Which of the following can be well-treated with intramammary antibiotics?
E coli, Seccia, S agalactiae, Mycoplasma californicum

A

S. agalactiae

332
Q 
Tritrichomonas fetus is not associated with:
placentitis
late term abortions
post-coital pyometra
male infertility
A

late term abortions

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