CVMB Flashcards
What vaccine has highest incidence of causing anaphylaxis in vaccinated puppies?
Distemper, Parvo, Hepatitis, Lepto
Lepto
Daily water requirement for maintenance in a 20 lb dog?
600 ml (daily req is 50-75 ml/kg/day). More than 100/ml/kg is consistent with PD.
When feeding a puppy milk replacer what do you need to supplement to prevent cataracts?
arginine and methionine
You are called out to a farm for a cow in dystocia. The calf is emphysematous and has a fetid odor. It is engaged in birth canal. Best course of action is:
fetotomy
Which of the following surgical approaches is NOT correct for an LDA in the bovine?
Left paralumbar, Right paralumbar, Right paramedian, Ventral midline
Ventral midline is not appropriate. Sx corrective options include: R flank ompentopexy, R paramedian abomasopexy, and L flank abomasopexy
Calves on high grain, low fiber diet are susceptible to ____?
Vagal indigestion
Cows grazing on fields in CA are prone to Cu deficiency due to ___ ___?
high molybdenum
Surgery for cat with chronic constipation/obstipation?
Subtotal colectomy
Cattle on alfalfa hay die. Post-mortem changes show lumbar vertebrae fractures and soft ribs. What was the issue?
Decreased phosphorus
During the month of Nov, cattle are experiencing sudden onset of green diarrhea, poor condition, but have no oral ulcers. What’s the cause?
Ostertagiasis II (worse than I)
Cattle with brisket edema, bottle jaw, distended jugulara veins, and muffled heart sounds. Dx?
Traumatic reticulopericarditis (hardware disease)
Treatment for atrial fibrillation in a cow?
Oral quinidine
Treatment for refractory ascites/edema in congestive heart failure?
Lasix?
What are the two most common oral neoplasias in the mouth of the dog?
#1 Melanoma #2 Squamous Cell Carcinoma (Cats: 1 SCC, 2 Fibrosarcoma)
Cow is found dead in a field with a large spleen. What should you not do? Dx?
DONT NECROPSY. Pin prick ear for blood smear. Anthrax.
What is the most common bacteria isolated from cat bites?
Pasteurella
How do you treat KCS?
cyclosporine (can also treat with antibiotics, +/-prednisone drops)
Snakes have #? kidneys #? bladder?
2 kidneys, no urinary bladder (uric acid mixed with feces)
Lead poisoning in pscittacines causes what clinical signs?
Vomiting, diarrhea, weakness, ataxia, seizures
Dog with pulmonic stenosis. What are the EKG changes?
deep S wave, tall P waves
EKG findings for pericardial effusion?
Decreased R wave
Market weight of crossbred pigs?
200 lbs (220# at 6 months)
Steers in CA have respiratory signs, necrotic lesions in larynx, peritoneal fluid, swollen LNs and joints. Likely dx?
Malignant Catarrhal Fever (MCF)?
Is EIA a reportable disease?
Yes, yes it is.
Cattle with large airway sounds in ventral thorax but no sounds in dorsal thorax. Dx?
pneumothorax/collapsed lung
Pot belly pig with increased HR, RR & pulse. It is dyspneic and xray shows ventral pulmonary infiltrates and interstitial pattern with an enlarged heart. Dx?
Bacterial endocarditis
3 yr old horse with dysphagia, halitosis, and pain when place a bit. Dx?
? M3 issue or fx of PM1?
Signs of blue tongue virus in cattle?
Cattle are typically asymptomatic.
Modified Live Vaccines are not given to pregnant dogs and cats because ?
They can cause genetic and birth defects in the fetus
In navicular disease in horse, when is there the worst prognosis?
?
Xray is shot at 10mA, 0.2 sec, 70 kvp but it is too dark. What should you do?
10 mA, 0.1 sec, 70 kvp
Most common oropharyngeal lesions in poultry?
Candidiasis (avian pox?)
Xray of a bird. You see opacities between the femoral heads. What are they?
Grit in the ventriculus
Poultry birds with ocular lesions, corneal edema and discharge. What is it likely from?
Dust, ammonia?
Fracture anchoneal process. What is the best view with xray?
Fully flexed lateral view
How do you disinfect for parvo?
bleach (hypochlorite)
Rabies virus has never been known to be transmitted via ___?
IV?
Feline panleukopenia virus can live in organic matter for ____?
1 year
Most common cause of abortion in sheep?
Chlamydia (then Campy)
Bilateral thyroidectomy in hyperthyroid cat. What’s a severe post-op complication to look for?
Ataxia (because of sudden drop in Ca), and laryngeal paralysis
Enteroliths typically occur where in horses?
dorsal and transverse colon
How should cow teats be cleaned?
10,000 ppm free iodine
Cows with mastitis. For what organism, can you treat with intramammary penicillin?
Strep. agalactiae
Fluctuating vacuum on a milking machine will cause ____?
mastitis
Corkscrew in cattle is hereditary? T/F
True
Shoulder OCD lesions in a dog are typical at what age?
4-8 months
Muscles controlling eye movements are innervated by ?
III, IV, VI
Which is not affected by topical anesthesia?
pupillary reflex
Most common dermatophyte found on cats?
Microsporum canis
Single drug for treatment of dog tapeworms and roundworms?
Fenbendazole, Praziquantel
Anaplasmosis in cattle. Treating with 20 mg/lb tetracycline will do what?
Treat and kill carrier state
Prostatitis in a dog. What’s the most common bacterial cause?
E. coli
Equine colicking for 8 hr. Abd tap reveals 4.5 total protein, RBC=200,000, and WBC= 15,000, serosanguineous fluid. What’s the likely cause?
Volvulus of small intestines??
Horse is lame on right foreleg. It doesn’t block out with medial and lateral abaxial blocks. Does with . Dx?
Chip fx of proximal P1?
Cat presented with multiple draining tracts. Owner reports cat bite abscess 2 months previously. Impression smears shows intracellular, acid-fast organisms. Culture and sensitivity shows bacterial growth of acid-fast organisms after 4 days. Organisms probably ___?
Mycobacterium is acid-fast
Cat presented in August, with crusting skin around collar, and above tail head. Owner reports areas to be pruritic. Probably due to ___.
flea allergy dermatitis
What shampoo should you not use in cats?
tar
Dug used to treat Cushing’s disease?
OP’DDD
5 year old male Doberman with solitary, pruritic, ulcerated lesion on craniolateral tarsus.
??Acral lick granuloma?
Dog with PCV 20% and spherocytes. Dx?
Immune mediated hemolytic anemia
A puppy is acutely dyspneic. Chest rads reveal air bronchograms with primarily caudoventral distribution. Likely?
Electrocution?
Coccidiosis in chickens is best treated with?
Amprolium
This neuropathy in poultry is associated with Vitamin E deficiency.
Enecephalomalacia (see sudden prostration, legs outstretched, toes flexed)
Loss of facial sensation indicates damage to which cranial nerve?
CN V (Facial nerve)
Clinical signs of Horner’s syndrome?
Enopthalmus, ptosis, miosis, elevation of 3rd eyelid
Which does not cause oral ulcerations in cats? FIV Feline rhinotracheitis Feline pneumonitis Feline calicivirus
Pneumonitis
What is the most common neoplasia in a cat’s mouth?
Squamous Cell Carcinoma
Where do you block for a rumenotomy?
T13-L2
What is the “holding layer” when suturing paramedian incision on a cow?
External rectus fascia (just like cat, dog)
In abdominal surgery, what is the most important closure layer to prevent dehiscence?
External rectus sheath
Most common cause of pneumothorax in dog?
Trauma
What is found on necropsy of an Epizootic Bovine Abortion fetus?
petechiation, granulomatous hepatitis
You diagnose acute septicemia/bacteremia in a 2 day calf. Which antibiotic would be best to treat it with?
3rd generation cephalosporin (e.g. ceftiofur)
Which is a non-absorbable suture? polyglycolic acid (dexon) polydioxione (PDS) nylon polyglactic acid (vicryl)
Nylon
Young, intact female cat has rapidly enlarging firm and nonpainful mammary glands. Clinically she is normal though. Cause?
Mammary hypertrophy complex?
DCM is most common in: male Gordon setter male Dobie female lab female Great Dane
male Dobie (giant breeds and males are more predisposed)
Digoxin is used to treat \_\_\_\_. PVC supraventricular tachycardia sick sinus syndrome 2nd degree AV vlock
supra-ventricular tachycardia
During fluid therapy for shock, what is best to monitor?
systolic BP, pulse pressure, CVP, CO
Central venous pressure
Whats the most common ulcerative lesion on a dog’s nose?
Discoid Lupus (DLE)
Cat was given phosphate enema 45 min ago. Now it is seizuring. How do you treat?
Ca gluconate, IV
Spastic syndrome in bovine (AKA bar cramps, stretches, periodic spasticity) is caused by ____?
heritable in dairy cattle
BLV carriers in a herd are best identified by \_\_\_? AGID for antibodies Blood smear for lymphocytes Blood test and check lymphocyte counts Virus isolation from lymphocytes
AGID for antibodies
What is the most common cause of hypercalcemia in dog and cat? Primary hyperparathyroidism Non-parathyroid malignancy Adrenocortical insufficiency Vitamin D toxicity
Non-PTH malignancy (e.g. lymphoma, multiple myeloma, apocrine gland adenosarcoma, other)
With portocaval shunt, the patient's serum will show \_\_\_\_. Increased bilirubin Increased albumin Increased glucose Decreased BUN
Decreased BUN
In cows, what metabolic abnormality is associated with acidosis?
Hyperkalemia
Cow presents with normal WBC count, 2:1 neuto:lymphote ratio, decreased PCV, increased TP, increased globulin. These hematologic parameters indicate:
chronic inflammation
A beef cattle operation is experiencing acute deaths. Necropsy=pericarditis, enlarged liver, adhesions of rumen to diaphragm. Dx?
Trauamatic reticulopericarditis
Herd of beef cows are turned out on a spring pasture. There were some acute deaths. Necropsy showed pulmonary edema and myocardial streaks of white. The most likely cause is ____.
Vitamin E deficiency
7 year old male Standard Poodle presents for lameness and epistaxis. Rads show lytic areas in humerus and femurs. TP = 12 (globulin 9.0, albumin 4.0), with 4+ proteinuria. Dx?
Multiple myeloma
What vx has highest incidence of causing anaphylaxis in puppies?
Lepto
The best post milking teat dip is ____.
20,000 ppm iodinated solution
CAE agent is ____ and causes what in goats?
Caprine Arthritis-Encephalitis (CAE) is caused by lentivirus. Causes leukoencephalitis in 2-6 month old kids (rear leg paresis-paralysis). More common form is >6 months old causing polysynovitis, arthritis, firm udder (“hard bag”), and occasional pneumonia.
Atopy is which type of immune mediated reaction?
Immediate hypersensitivity (type I)
Other types of immune-mediated reactions: I - immediate/anaphylaxis II - antibody mediated cytotoxicity III - immune complex disease IV - cell mediated (delayed)
Which is a potential mycotic zoonoses from a dog or cat? Sporotrichosis Coccidiomycosis HIstoplasmosis Cryptococcosis
Sporotrichosis
Several finishing pigs have diarrhea without fibrin, blood or mucus. Two pigs are afebrile. No change in appetite and no vomiting. Dx?
TGE
Demodex infection with secondary pyoderma in a young dog can be treated with?
Amitraz, lyme-sulfur dips, cephalosporins (not prenisone!)
To avoid sciatic nerve damage when placing a femoral intramedullary pin, one should:
Place pin in normograde fashion from the trochanter (always insert from proximal end into trochanteric fossa)
Dermatologic manifestations of hypothyroidism in the dog include:
seborrhea, alopecia, not pruritus
Dermatologic manifestations in hyperadrenocorticismin the dog include:
calcinosis cutis, hyperpigmentation, alopecia, thin skin
Adult cows grazing lush pasture have edematous heavy lungs with no consolidation. Dx?
L-tryptophan (moldy sweet potato) - causes atypical non-septic, non-consolidating pneumonia called “fog fever”
Several steers of a large group have pulmonary interstitial pneumonia and emphysema. Dx?
BRSV
What drug should not be used in 6yr female dog with history of seizures?
Chlorpromazine (anti-emetic but dont use with seizures)
What drug can be useful in post-orthopedic procedure analgesia?
Butorphanol
The use of NO2 gas is contraindicated in which of the following procedures?
intestinal anastomosis, GDV
Infectious bronchitis in chickens is caused by ____ and causes what type of clinical signs?
Coronavirus
Respiratory, urogenital, and GI tract issues
Morbidity 100%, spread is rapid
Some can get interstitial nephritis (60% mortality)
Cannot differentiate from Newcastles (paramyxovirus) or infectious laryngotracheitis (herpes)
Most common pathogen in mouse lung?
Mycoplasma pulmonis (murine respiratory mycoplasmosis) - causes chattering, dyspnea, nasal discharge, sneezing, snuffling, rales, dyspnea, head tilt, circling
What predisposes a guinea pig to pregnancy ketosis?
large litter, obesity, poor nutrition
What can be falsely elevated when drawing blood from bird nail trim?
BUN (because of uric acid from fecal material)
What is a stress leukogram in a cow?
Increased neutrophils, decreased eosinophils, leukopenia
Chest fluid from cat with chylothorax. What do you expect on labs?
Elevated triglycerides, presence of chylomicrons, looks like skim milk
The lab changes associated with lymphangiectasia include ____.
decreased lymphocytes, decreased proteins, decreased cholesterol
The most consistent change seen in glomerulonephritis is ____.
proteinuria
The best way to treat squamous cell carcinoma in an expensive Hereford show cow is ___.
Surgical excision with cryotherapy?
An adult ewe with laminitis, lingual necrosis, and brisket edema is most likely afflicted with ____?
Blue Tongue Virus
Best way to remove a dead fetus from a cow?
Fetotomy
Where is a horse’s pelvic flexure when palpating on a rectal examination?
Left ventral lateral to bladder
On palpation: right ventral-sternal-left ventral-pelvic flexure-left dorsal diaphragmatic flexure-right dorsal (4,4,4,1,3,2)
Most common locations of enterolith formation in horses?
Right dorsal and transverse colon
Most common site of boney sequestration in the horse?
P3
Equine palmar digital (PD) nerve block desensitizes which regions?
the caudal heel region (e.g. navicular bone, navicular bursa, digital cushion, etc)
Worst prognosis for a horse with navicular disease?
Lytic lesions on flexor cortex of navicular bone
What is the most common cause of lameness in the equine foot?
Subsolar abscess
Tritrichomonas fetus is not associated with: Late term abortions Post-coital pyometras Placentitis Male infertility
Late term abortions
Tritrich = high nonpregnancy rates, occasional pyometras, abortions
How do you dx Tritrichomonas fetus?
ID or culture organism from cervicovaginal mucus, uterine exudate, placental fluids, fetal abomasal contents, preputial smegma
Equine rhinopneumonitis abortion is characterized by what findings? What is it caused by?
Late term abortion (9-10 mo) with normal fetus and normal placenta
Caused by EHV-1. Should vaccinate mare at 5, 7, 9 months.
You suspect Equine Viral Arteritis. What do you do?
Contact proper state authorities b/c it is reportable
What is EVA caused by and what are the clinical signs? Who are the carriers?
EVA is nonarthropod-borne togavirus.
Causes fever, anorexia, serous ocular and nasal discharge, and edema of limbs/ventral abdomen/conjunctiva.
Stallions are carriers.
Ehrlichiosis is caused by ___. Causes acute-chronic disease. Common lab change is ____. And the most commonly affected cells are ____. What is the vector? How do you treat?
Thrombocytopenia, monocytes, Rhipiceohalus sanguineus (tick), tetracycline to treat
RMSF is caused by ____ ___. The disease is acute in onset, causes _____. It is spread by ____. How do you treat?
Thrombocytopenia, Dermacentor variablis/andersoni, tetracycline to treat
Which do you not see with anterior uveitis? Mydriasis Blepharospasm Aqueous Flare Bulblar conjunctival vascular injection
You do not see mydriasis with AU (instead miosis).
How long do you have to wait after performing an intraarticular lidocaine block for results to be negative?
20-30 minutes
How many teeth do adult cats have?
30
What statement is correct about chronic stomatitis/gingivitis in cats?
??
Veterinarians need to turn in a triplicate form to DEA for schedule ___ drugs.
II (most opioids, etc)
In order to have non-vets using radiographic equipment, what must a vet provide?
training/safety course for all employees
A mare is in seasonal anestrous. To stimulate follicle growth, what can you give?
GnRH
Where is the proper needle placement for administering epidural anesthesia to a horse?
Cy1-3 (or sacrocaudal)
Cows: sacrocaudal/1st intercaudal
Sheep & goats: sacrocaudal/1st intercaudal
Pigs: lumbosacral
Enophthalmous, ptosis, miosis and prolapse third eyelid indicates ____.
Horner’s syndrome
What is the function of an ACE inhibitor?
treat heart failure (preventions Angiotensin I to Angiotensin II so prevent vasoconstriction and decreased retention of sodium and water)
Which anesthetic affects GI motility in dogs?
Acepromazine, Suritol, Thiopental, Xylazine
Xylazine (emetic), Thiopental (decreased GI motility)
What is the premedication of choice in a 14 yr exitable poodle?
Diazepam
In which procedures is NO2 contraindicated?
intestinal anastamosis, GDV surgery
How do you best diagnose acute organophosphate toxicity in a cow?
Check level of OP in rumen?
What are signs of salt poisoning in pigs?
Siezures, ataxia, death, head pressing, coma, blindness, obtundation
What is the best way to treat anticoagulant rodenticide toxicity in a severely affected animal?
K1 SQ
Most poultry vaccines can be given via aerosol or in water. Which vaccine must be given individually?
Marek’s
How soon after farrowing do sow return to estrus?
28 days
Nurse fo 21 days, sow comes into estrus 3-5 days after weaning
What muscle would you not use for IM injections in a rattite (ostrich like bird)?
Biceps muscles
Puppy with diarrhea. He passes tapeworms and roundworms. What antibiotic regimen should you treat him with?
Fenbendazole + Praziquantel
Oral dental films provide fine structural detail. This is possible because they:
??
What is the best screening test for Von Willebrand’s?
mucosal bleeding time
When closing an abdominal surgery on a cat, which layer is most important and strongest for appositional closure to prevent dehiscence?
External rectus sheath
When conducting a perineal urethrostomy on a cat, what level do you incise the urethra?
bulbourethral gland
At what age do you castrate a horse?
Any age, but foals - prior to weaning is best
What is true about treatment for contracted deep digital flexor tendon on horse?
Severe cases do not respond well to interior check ligament tenectomy
In a mare with a granulosa thecal cell tumor, after the ovary is removed she will cycle when?
within a few months , depending on winter anestrus
A mare should be inseminated with: 10-50 x10^6 motile progressive sperm 1-5 x 10^9 " 100-500 10^6 " 5-10 x 10^9 "
100-500 x10^6
How do you diagnose a horse with navicular syndrome?
history, clinical signs, posterior digital nerve block, radiographs
A maiden mare has no clinical signs and has normal uterine cytology and has slow growth of Strep. zooepidemicus on uterine culture. What treatment regimen do you undertake?
Administer parental antibiotics?? (can cause bacterial antibiotics)
You decrease the KvP by 10%. To achieve the same degree of blackness on the film, you would need to do what to the mAS?
increase the mAS by 2x
What echo findings are most consistent with systemic hypertension?
left ventricular hypertrophy?
When taking skin biopsies from dogs, it is most important to do what?
not surgically prep the area to be biopsied
What is the best way to ID Heinz bodies?
make a blood smear with New Methylene Blue
What is the agent of cat scratch fever?
Hemobartonella (gram negative bacillus)
What is the radiographic appearance of a heart with systemic hypertension?
left ventricular hypertrophy
Uterine torsion in a mare occurs most commonly during what time period?
between 7-11 months of gestation
What is the best method of preventing a dog from chewing out sutures from abdominal surgery?
Placing an E collar on the dog
What organism is responsible for visceral larval migrans?
Toxocara canis (roundworms); cutaneous larval migrans (hookworms)
Which of the following plants are not toxic to cats?
Pine needles, poison ivy, poinsetta, dumb cane
poison ivy (just contact allergy)?
A goat has been in estrus for 12 hours. On a speculum examination you notice a small amount of mucoid fluid in the anterior vagina. You interpret the fluid as:
normal
What drug induces seizures when epinephrine has been given?
xylazine
With a 25 day pregnancy in a mare, what can you palpate rectally?
Vesicle at 25-40 days; can see on ultrasound at day 14/day25 can see embryo with heartbeat
You do a vaginal sepculum on a diestrus mare and you see what type of cervix?
Pale, dry, tight cervix
Estrus - pink, moist
Anestrus - white, grey
You have performed a standing castration on a 5 year stallion. 45 minutes after the procedure, you notice that the horse is dripping what you think is an excessive amount of blood. What do you do?
1st try to Identify bleeder and clamp while horse is standing
A 4 year old terrier has recurrent struvite stones. The best management to prevent further stones includes ____.
treat UTI (urease causing bacteria helps forms stones)
How long will it take a healthy tympanic membrane that was punctured to heal?
1-3 weeks
To treat a Sarcoptes scabei infection, in which breed would you not use ivermectin?
Collie
A Dachshund has vessiculo-bullous lesions at the muccutaneous junctions, on the face, on the ears, and also has submandibular lymphadenopathy. What would you treat with/
Corticosteroids, antibiotics, vitamin E
You are transfusing a patient with severe thrombocytopenia. How long would you expect clotting factors to last?
< 7 days
A horse is chewing at an incision on its thorax. What is the best method to prevent this?
??Cribbing strap on horse?
What is the most common cause of hyphema in cat?
trauma
How do you treat a cat that has received an organophosphate enema and is now convulsing?
Calcium gluconate
A puppy chewed an electrical cord. What’s the primary clinical sign that you will see?
Pulmonary edema
When comparing glycopyrrolate to atropine use in the cat, what statement is true?
Glyco lasts longer
What is an undesirable effect of xylazine when used in a dog?
hypotension
Which lipid soluble drug is given to treat canine prostatitis?
Baytril, TMS or Chloramphenicol
What is the most common side effect of Methimazole therapy?
GI, liver, bone marrow suppression
What is a unique yet adverse drug effect of cyclophopshamide? Why is typically used in animals?
sterile hemorrhagic cystitis; typically used to treat neoplasias or immnune diseases
What is the best approach to use in a recumbent cow for a C section?
L flank
What surgical approach should not be used to repair an LDA in a cow?
L paramedian, L paralumbar, R paralumbar
L paramedian should not be done
What is the best anesthesia to remove a digit in a cow?
Regional local anesthesia (baer block)
What is the most common cause of pneumothorax in a dog?
Trauma
When is a horse too deep under anesthesia?
When a corneal reflex is absent
A 400 kg horse looses 4L of blood during surgery. What is the best method of replacing the loss?
Administer 12 L NaCl
When do you refer a colicking horse to a surgical facility?
after no response to analgesia
What is the next choice of drug to use when a dog with ascites is refractory to treatment?
Furosemide 1st then Enalapril 2nd
What anesthetic agent increases the arrhythmogenic effects of catecholamines?
??
What drug is given to help diagnose heaves in a horse?
atropine?
Which canine urinary stones are radiolucent?
Urate
What are signs of oak bud toxicity in a cow?
renal disease, PU/PD
When do you use baermann test ofr cat feces?
When trying to find aleurostrongylus abstrusus
A foal has a ruptured common digital extensor tendon. What is the best method of treatment?
Splint on dorsal surface and stall rest
What is the best way to ID reticulocytes on a blood smear?
New Methylene Blue
A cow can simultaneously flex its hock and extend its stifle. What has happened?
Ruptured peroneus tarsus
What is the holding layer in an intestinal surgery?
submucosa on intestines; external rectus sheath on body wall
What is the difference between a connell and cushing suture pattern?
??
What do you need to do to have the best chance of identifying Demodex from a skin scraping?
Squeeze the skin first
What is the best radiographic positioning to use to evaluate the osseous bullae?
dorsoventral on table?
What are the two best ways to spay a heifer?
L flank (left paralumbar fossa) or vaginal approach
A client has a cat that just recovered from feline panleukopenia. What advice do you give her about bringing a new kitten into the home?
Virus is shed by a cat for 6 weeks in all body secretions; can survive in environment for up to 1 year; parvovirus
What is true about scrapie?
it affects sheep and goats
What is true about Coxiella burnetti abortion in sheep?
It is a rickettsial organism and zoonotic. (Q fever)
A cow living in the foothills of the Sierra has just aborted. What is the condition of the fetus?
Fetus is fresh, is not autolyzed. High in liver, LNs, and low in thymus.
You are doing a necropsy on a chicken and find blood in the trachea, what does this help to diagnose?
TLT - herpes
Where is the FeLV virus shed?
typically shed in saliva (lesser amount in tears, urine, feces)
What is tartar composed of?
CaPO4 plus plaque and food
How is the bisecting angle determined when taking oral radiographs?
beam is directed perpendicular to the line that bissects the angle formed by film & tootth (done intraorally)
How do you differentiate a pituitary tumor from an adrenal tumor?
High dose dexmethasone suppression test
Or plasma ACTH (pit has normal or increased ACTH while adrenal has decreased ACTH)
What changes occur in blood of a cat that has been receiving longterm glucocorticoid therapy?
Low lymphocytes, High Neutrophils, Low Eosinophils, High Monocytes
Spherocytes are seen on a blood smear. What does this diagnose?
Immune mediated hemolytic anemia
A rabbit has pastuerella. What are the clinical signs?
snuffles, pneumonia, abscesses
Why is a double flap oral nasal repair procedure performed?
because the hole is too large (this procedure provides wound closure on both sides for chronic fistulas)
You are presented with a pig that is hypovolemic, and has diarrhea. What is the safest anesthetic to use? Mask down with iso Acepromazine Telazol Ketamine
??
When is yohimbine used in a dog?
To reverse xylazine
What is the dental formula in the adult dog?
42 permanent teeth (I3/3, C1/1, P4/4,M2/3)
What is the drug used to treat Cushings? And how does it work?
Mitotane (lysodren) - destroys zona fasiculata and reticularis and destroys adrenocortical tissues
What’s the best view for anconeal process of elbow?
Flexed lateral
When is the earliest you can vaccinate for rabies?
4 months
What are two most common cause of periocardial effusion?
Hemangiosarcoma, Heart base Tumors
What do you hear with pericardia effusion? What do you see on EKG?
You hear muffled heart sounds; you see electrical alternans (alternating height of R waves)
When is it ideal to perform a triple pelvic osteotomy and why would it be performed?
5-11 month old puppy for hip dysplasia
What is the dental formula for an adult cat?
30 teeth
I 3/3, C1/1, P 3/2, M 1/1
What virus causes chronic stomatitis/gingivitis?
calicivirus
What virus causes Marek’s in chickens? What are the typical signs?
Herpesvirus
depression then death; on necropsy - enlarged nerves, visceral lymphoid tumors
What are the clinical signs of infectious tracheobronchitis in chickens/pheasants? How do you diagnose?
acutely dyspnea, rales, coughing
Dx: viral isolation of herpesvirus
Vaccinate in the water
Clinical signs of influenza in birds?
Respiratory distress, green diarrhea, cyanotic head, wattle, comb
Chlamydiosis/Psittacosis is zoonotic and reportable. T/F
Both zoonotic and reportable
How do you rehydrate a dehydrated bird?
intra-osseous fluids via distal ulna with 18-22 g 1.5-2.5” needle
What would cause raised white lesions in young birds?
Candidiasis (C. albicans)
Treat with nystatin
What clinical sign indicates ivermectin toxicity in turtles?
Paresis
What does anterior synechiae mean?
Adhesion of anterior iris to posterior cornea
How do you anesthetize a cow to put it all the way out?
Xylazine and ketamine
What drug do you use to put a cow in lateral recumbency?
Xylazine
How to remove a bovine digit?
Tourniquet with 2% lidocaine ring block
The best anesthesia for teat surgery is:
ring block at base, infuse teat with lidocaine
Where to block spinal nerves for rumenotomy sx?
T13-L2
What are the contraindications to xylazine in a cow?
pregnant cow - can cause premature separation of placentomes
Safest most humane way to debud goat kids?
Physical restraint, 10mg/kg of 2% liodcaine
What is the biggest problem with anesthesia of cattle related to endotracheal intubation?
aspiration of rumen contents
Where is the proper placement of the needle to anesthetize the cornea of a cow?
block the lacrimal nerve via zygomatic temporal nerve
What else would be appropriate to give with lidocaine in a goat undergoing C-section?
Diazepam
What are signs of colic in cattle?
Grinding teeth (bruxism), grunting/groaning, shifting hind feed, kicking abdomen, restlessness, repeatedly lying down/getting up, anorexia, depression
How do you treat neonatal bacteremia (caused by salmonellosis)?
Ceftiofur
What typically causes frothy bloat?
Lush pastures (high protein) or high grain intake; tx with stomach tube, antifoaming agent (DSS or veg oil) then rumenotomy
How do you surgically treat an LDA?
left sided abomasopexy or right-sided omentopexy
Most likely cause of diarrhea in a 1-2 wk old calf?
Rotavirus
Where is the “ping” best auscultated on cow with an LDA?
Draw a line from left elbow to tuber coxa b/w 9th and 13th ribs
What can infect cows after liver biopsy?
C. novyi
Large holstein dairy herd with 10 day old calves with diarrhea. 100% morbidity, 0% mortality. Adequate passive transfer has been demonstrated. Next dx step?
ELISA for crypto
How do you determine if a gastric tube has been properly placed in a cow?
blow into the tube and auscultate the rumen
Postpartum cow of one day that is recumbent and has decreased rumen contractions. What is likely cause?
Ketosis
How to dx LDA?
auscultate ping
What is considered an emergency in cattle?
abomasal volvulus
When is a cow more prone to developing an LDA?
3-6 wks postpartum
Cattle herd is having an outbreak of diarrhea, some have scruffy hair coats with alopecia. What is the likely cause?
Johne’s disease
Where is the holding layer when suturing a paramedian incision in a cow?
external rectus fascia
Which of the following surgical approaches is not correct for a cow?
ventral midline
A cow with rumen pH of 5 most likely has?
grain overload
A cow that is 5 mo into lactation develops diarrhea with melena:
abomasal ulcers
Cow off feed with left-sided ping?
LDA
Cow with linear lesions in the esophagus (hemorrhage in Peyer’s patches). What’s the cause?
BVD
Several cows in a herd have died. On post-mortem you find rumenal sloughing and rumen fluid pH of 5 and focal liver lesions:
lactic acidosis
8% of herd of cattle have diarrhea. Which is the most likely cause?
Johne’s
A cow has pieces of rumen floating in her rumen. Likely cause?
Lactic acidosis
What is appropriate tx for frothy bloat?
DSS
When is an appropriate time to tx perineal lacteration in a cow? immediately w/in 10 days 15-30 d post calving 60 d post calving
?? within 10 days?
At what minimum of SCC should you start routine milk culturing of bulk tank?
when SCC > 250,000
You have an 800,000 cell count in cattle bulk tank; what do you do?
culture on bulk tank milk
You would not want to use a live vaccine for which agent?
leptospirosis
How does milk get contaminated with Salmonella dublin?
From carrier cows
Herd of sheep are sent to slaughter and you learn they had fence line contact with a scrapies-infected sheep. What do you do?
Contact the authorities
Which cattle disease is not reportable to the state within 24 hours?
Anaplasmosis
What does a 24 mo old beef bull need to be tested for before coming toCA?
Trichomonas
What drug can you give to dairy cattle?
Ceftiofur
What cattle disease is reportable within 24 hours?
Foot and Mouth!!!
A 10 month old bull is tested for Trichomonas. Microscopically within the sample flagellated protozoa are seen. What next?
Cull
How long are health certificates valid for for bovine herd?
30 days from physical exam
Best post-milking teat dip is what?
20,000 ppm iodinated solution
CMT is an indirect measure of?
milk leukocytes (white blood cells)
Cell count of less than 100,000 indicates?
overall low strep
overall low staph
increased chance of E coli growth
increased change of E. coli growth
The lepto vaccine in cattle is good for how long?
1 yr of protection
If fresh cow’s milk looks like red tomato soup:
dont do anything?
Which disease does not have a vaccine: EBA IBR BVD MCF
A
What is the tx of choice for cow with parakeratosis?
zinc oxide
How do you treat foot rot in a cow?
systemic antibiotics
Most important tx for interdigital phlegmon?
Systemic antibiotics
5 y cow with 1 cm mass near limbus of eye. What is the best treatment?
scalpel incision then repeated cryotherapy
February, most heifers have matted hair on back with small crusty bumps under the crusts. Likely cause?
dermatophilus
Which mineral deficiency would cause paresis in lambs?
Copper
A herd of cattle being fed alfalfa hay is currently experiencing a large # of fractures. What mineral imbalance is most likely?
Cu deficiency/Molybdenum toxicity
Cows that are fed a diet of only oat hay and barley are most likely deficient in ?
Ca++
A farmer is experiencing a decrease in fat % in his milk. Whats the most likely cause?
Decreased fiber in the diet
Cattle on alfalfa hay. Deaths occur. Post mortem review shows cattle are suffering from lumbar vertebrae fractures and soft ribs.
Decreased P
In cows what metabolic abnormality is associated with acidosis:
hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis ?? hyperkalemia??
Calves on a high grain, low fiber diet at susceptible to:
vagal indigestion
Cows grazed on fields of Ca are prone to Cu deficiency due to:
High Mo
Which enzyme is elevated in Selenium/Vitamin E deficiency?
CPK
What has happened when you see a cow with a simultaneously flexed hock and extended stifle?
Peroneus tertius muscle rupture (tx stall confinement)
A cow has laminitis. It is usually a sequelae to what disease?
rumenal acidosis
What do you treat cattle flukes with?
Albendazole
A cow has hypoderma bovis. What is the economic impact?
Hide loss
You suspect a calf has crypto. How do you differentiate from other coccidian?
Extracellular location?
Cattle in November have green diarrhea, poor condition, no oral ulcers, with sudden onset. What is it?
Ostertagiasis I
What GI parasite feeds on blood in ruminants?
Haemonchus
What is the most dangerous human Brucella pathogen? And cows?
Brucella melitensis in humans - causes undulating fevers
(in cows, it is B. abortus - abortions, retained placenta, orchitis
test with Brucella Milk Ring Test every 3-4 months, cull positives, vaccinate!!
At day 60, what is the best way to detect pregnancy?
Membrane slip
EBA leads to what in the fetus?
Hepatomegaly with granulamotous nodular areas and lymphomegaly
What are the clinical lesions in cows for Blue Tongue Virus?
Inapparent infections in cows
How to prevent EBA from happening?
expose heifers to endemic areas prior to breeding age to prevent abortions
Most common agent in cattle endometritis?
C. pyogenes
Cow in 3rd week of lactation has stinky breath most likely from what?
negative energy balance (ketosis)
How do you prevent contagious mastitis?
Dip the teat post-milking
What is the best restraint for pregnancy check on 100 nervous Brahma range cattle?
Squeeze chutes
In an unvaccinated herd, 70% of heifers have aborted in 3rd trimester with placentitis. What is the most likely agent?
IBR
What would you be able to palpated on a 55-day pregnant cow?
Membrane slip
Which treatment would be contraindicated in a cow with a retained placenta?
Manual removal
Which of the following drugs is prohibited in lactating dairy cows?
Suladiazine
Which mastitis pathogens can be eradicated?
?
How do you treat a BAR cow in parturition dx with emphysematous shistosmos reflexus?
fetotomy
Which drug has no meat/milk withdrawal time?
IM ceftiofur
What do you not use to treat acute environmental mastitis?
intramammary antibiotics
Which of the following can be well-treated with intramammary antibiotics?
E coli, Seccia, S agalactiae, Mycoplasma californicum
S. agalactiae
Tritrichomonas fetus is not associated with: placentitis late term abortions post-coital pyometra male infertility
late term abortions
