CV2 Pharm Table Flashcards

1
Q

what is the Drug class of Procainamide

A

Class 1A-arrythmic Na Channel blockade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what are the indications of Procainamide

A

Life threatening ventricular arrhythmias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the MOA of Procainamide

A

Decreases myocardial excitability and conduction velocity and may depress myocardial contractility, by increasing the electrical stimulation threshold of ventricle, His-Purkinje system and through direct cardiac effects (UtD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Drug class of Lidocaine

A

Class 1B arrythmic Na Channel blockade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Indications of Lidocaine

A

Suppression of existing ventricular arrhythmias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

MOA of Lidocaine

A

blocks both the initiation and conduction of nerve impulses by decreasing the neuronal membrane’s permeability to sodium ions, suppresses automaticity of conduction tissue, by increasing electrical stimulation threshold of ventricle, His-Purkinje system, and spontaneous depolarization of the ventricles during diastole (UtD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Drug class of Flecainide

A

Class 1C Na Channel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

indications of Flecainide

A

ventricular arrhythmias (prevention); paroxsysmal SVT (prevention); paroxsysmal a fib/flutter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

MOA of Flecainide

A

slows conduction in cardiac tissue by altering transport of ions across cell membranes; causes slight prolongation of refractory periods; increases electrical stimulation threshold of ventricle, His-Purkinje system (UtD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Drug class of Propranolol

A
Class 2
Beta Blockers
Nonselective (B1; B2)
-or-
Sympatholytics: Peripheral Adrenergic ‘R’ Blockers – Beta Blocker
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Indications of Propranolol

A

Angina, HTN, tachyarrhythmias, essential tremor, migraine Px, anxiety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

MOA of Propranolol

A

Adrenergic B1 and B2 receptor inhibitor; reduction in myocardial oxygen demand, HR, cardiac contractility, BP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Drug class of Metoprolol Tartrate
[Lopressor]
Metoprolol Succinate
[Toprol XL]

A
Beta Blockers
Cardioselective (B1)
Class II
-or-
Sympatholytics: Peripheral Adrenergic ‘R’ Blockers – Beta Blockers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Indications of Metoprolol Tartrate
[Lopressor]
Metoprolol Succinate
[Toprol XL]

A

Angina, HTN, hemodynamically stable MI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

MOA of Metoprolol Tartrate
[Lopressor]
Metoprolol Succinate
[Toprol XL]

A

Selective B1 adrenergic receptor inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Drug class of Atenolol

A
Beta Blockers
Cardioselective
without ISA (B1)
Class II
-or- 
Sympatholytics: Peripheral Adrenergic ‘R’ Blockers – Beta Blockers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Atenolol indications

A
  1. Angina
  2. HTN
  3. hemodynamically stable post-MI supraventricular tachyarrhythmias (catecholamine induced, dig toxicity)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

MOA of Atenolol

A

B1 adrenergic receptor inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Drug class of Amiodarone

A

Class 3

Repolarization delay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

indications of Amiodarone (5)

A
  1. life-threatening recurrent VF
  2. unresponsive or unstable VT refractory to other anti-arrhythmics
  3. Off-label for AF
  4. PSVT
  5. adjunct to ICD to suppress ventricular tachyarrhythmias in otherwise optimally treated patients with heart failure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

MOA of Amiodarone

A

inhibits adrenergic stimulation (alpha and beta) affecting Na, K, and Ca channels; prolongs action potential and refractory period in cardiac tissues; decr AV conduction and sinus node function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Drug class of Verapamil and Diltiazem

A

Class 4
Calcium channel Blockers
Nondihydropyridine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Indications of Verapamil and Diltiazem (5)

A
Angina, 
HTN, 
PSVT, 
A fib, 
A flutter
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

MOA of Verapamil and Diltiazem

A

Dilate coronary arteries & decrease myocardial oxygen demands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Drug class of Adenosine

A

Naturally occuring nucleoside

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Indication of Adenosine

A
new arrhythmias, 
chest pain, 
headache, 
flushing, 
dyspnea, 
bronchospasm
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

MOA of Adenosine

A

In PSVT: Slows conduction time through the AV node, interrupting the re-entry pathways through the AV node, restoring normal sinus rhythm; In Stress testing: causes coronary vasodilation and increases blood flow in normal coronary arteries with little to no increase in stenotic coronary arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Drug class of Digoxin

A

Other:

Cardiac Glycoside

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

indications of Digoxin

A
  1. Mild to moderate HF;

2. A fib rate control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

MOA of Digoxin

A

Inhibits Na/K ATPase pump in myocardial cells promoting influx Ca++ leading to increased contractility; also direct suppressor of AV node which decr ventricular rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q
Drug class of Mg SO4
(IV)
A

electrolyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

indications of Drug class of Mg SO4 (IV)

A

Digitalis induced arrhythmias with low serum Mg; low Mg induced arrhythmias (VF, VT); OFF-LABEL: torsades de pointes; (Severe exacerbation asthma in children)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

MOA of Mg SO4 (IV)

A

unknown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Drug class of Prazosin

A

alpha-blockers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Indications of Prazosin

A

hypertension;

off-label for PTSD, Raynaud’s Phenomenon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

MOA of Prazosin

A

selective alpha 1 blocker which relaxes smooth muscle in arteries and veins and the prostate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Drug class of Carvedilol

A

B1, B2, A1 Blockers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

indications of Carvedilol

A

angina (off-label),
HTN,
stable HF,
stable post-MI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

MOA of Carvedilol

A

Mixed alpha, beta receptor inhibition

40
Q

drug class of Clonidine

A

Centrally Acting

A2 agonist

41
Q

Indications of Clonidine

A
  1. Hypertension (immediate release form),
  2. ADHD (extended release form); 3. Narcotic addiction;
  3. multiple off-label uses
42
Q

MOA of Clonidine

A

stimulates alpha 2 receptors in brain stem, which stimulates an inhibitory neuron resulting in reduced sympathetic outflow from CNS, which results in a reduction in TPR

43
Q

Drug class of Methyldopa

A

Centrally Acting

A2 agonist

44
Q

Indications of Methyldopa

A

HTN in PG

45
Q

MOA of Methyldopa

A

central alpha-adrenergic inhibition decr sym outflow to heart, kidneys, periph vasculature

46
Q

What are the three Renin-Angiotnesin Inhibitors:

ACE I

A

Captopril
Lisinopril
Fosinopril

47
Q

Indications of Captopril
Lisinopril
Fosinopril

A
  1. Hypertension
  2. heart failure
  3. left ventricular dysfunction after MI
  4. diabetic nephropathy
48
Q

MOA of Captopril
Lisinopril
Fosinopril

A

Competitive inhibitor of ACE preventing conversion Angiotensin I to Angiotensin II decreasing vasoconstriction by Angiotensin II & decreases aldosterone secretion

49
Q

Drug class of Losartan

A

Angiotensin Receptor Blockers:

ARBs

50
Q

Indications of Losartan

A
  1. Hypertension
  2. diabetic nephropathy in T2DM
  3. stroke risk reduction in HTN
  4. LVH
51
Q

MOA of Losartan

A

Selectively & competitively blocks AT 1 (1000x greater) & AT2 receptors

52
Q

Drug class of Aliskirin

A

Direct Renin Inhibitor

53
Q

Indications of Aliskirin

A

Hypertension

54
Q

MOA of Aliskirin

A

Direct renin inhibitor preventing conversion of angiotensinogen to angiotensin I (AT1) which reduces conversion to angiotensin II (AT2) producing arteriolar vasodilation

55
Q

which two drugs are Vasodilators:

DHP CCBs

A
  1. DHP: Amlodipine

2. DHP: Nifedipine

56
Q

Indications of
DHP: Amlodipine
-and-
DHP: Nifedipine

A
  1. Angina (chronic stable and vasospastic)

2. HTN

57
Q

MOA of
DHP: Amlodipine
-and-
DHP: Nifedipine

A

Vasodilation due to blocking calcium channels in vascular smooth muscle and myocardium

58
Q

2 drugs that are

Vasodilators: NDHP CCBs

A
  1. NDHP: Diltiazem

2. NDHP: Verapamil

59
Q

Indications of
NDHP: Diltiazem
-and-
NDHP: Verapamil

A
  1. Angina,
  2. HTN,
  3. PSVT,
  4. A fib,
  5. A flutter
60
Q

MOA of
NDHP: Diltiazem
-and-
NDHP: Verapamil

A

Dilate coronary arteries & decrease myocardial oxygen demands

61
Q

Drug class of Hydralazine

A

Vasodilators: Direct acting

62
Q

Indications of Hydralazine

A
  1. Urgent to Emergent BP reduction (no longer used for chronic therapy due to short half-life)
  2. pre-eclampsia/eclampsia
63
Q

MOA of Hydralazine

A

Direct acting arteriolar vasodilator

64
Q
Drug class of Hydrochlorothiazide
HCTZ
A

Diuretics: Thiazides

65
Q

Indications of Hydrochlorothiazide

HCTZ

A
  1. HTN
  2. edema in nephrotic syndrome
  3. Off-label: Lithium induced diabetes insipidus
66
Q

MOA of Hydrochlorothiazide

HCTZ

A

Na-Cl symporter inhibition in the DCT increasing Na and Cl excretion max 5% of filtered NaCl

67
Q

what is the drug class of Chlorthalidone

A

Diuretic “Thiazide-Like”

68
Q

what are the indications of Chlorthalidone

A
  1. HTN
  2. edema in nephrotic syndrome
  3. off-label: Lithium induced diabetes insipidus
69
Q

what is the MOA of Chlorthalidone

A

Na-Cl symporter inhibition in the DCT increasing Na and Cl excretion max 5% of filtered NaCl

70
Q

what is the drug class of Triamterene

A

Diuretic Adjunct: K+ Sparing

71
Q

what are the indications of Triamterene

A

Hypokalemia

72
Q

what is the MOA of Triamterene

A

Direct inhibitor of Na+ influx in DCT & CCT

73
Q

What is the drug class of Furosemide

A

Loop Diuretic

74
Q

what are the indications of Furosemide

A
  1. Edema sec to CHF
  2. Renal Failure
  3. Liver Failure
75
Q

what is the MOA of Furosemide

A

Na+-K+-2Cl- symporter in TAL of Loop & distal tubule

76
Q

What are the 6 drugs under the drug class HMG-CoA Reductase Inhibitors

A
  1. Atorvastatin
  2. Lovastatin
  3. Pravastatin
  4. Rosuvastatin
  5. Simvastatin
  6. Fluvastatin
77
Q

What are the indications of the HMG-CoA Reductase Inhibitors

A

Hyperlipidemia

78
Q

what is the MOA of HMG-CoA Reductase Inhibitors

A

Inhibits cholesterol synthesis

79
Q

What are the drug under the class Bile-acid sequestrants

A
  1. Cholestyramine

2. Colesevelam

80
Q

what is the MOA of

  1. Cholestyramine
  2. Colesevelam
A

Binds bile acids inhibiting enterohepatic circulation of cholesterol

81
Q

what are the indictions of Cholestyramine

A

Hypercholesterolemia

82
Q

what are the indications of Colesevelam

A
  1. LDL reduction
  2. DM2
  3. usually adjunct
83
Q

What are the 2 drugs under the Fibric Acids

A
  1. Gemfibrazil

2. Fenofibrate

84
Q

What are the indications of Gemfibrazil and Fenofibrate

A
  1. Hypertriglyceridemia

2. low HDL

85
Q

what is the MOA of Gemfibrazil and Fenofibrate

A

Not known; theories on changes in various enzymes involved in VLDL and IDL metabolism

86
Q

What is the drug class of Niacin

A

Nicotinic Acid Vitamin B3

87
Q

What are the indications of Niacin

A
  1. Hypertriglyceridemia
  2. low HDL
  3. high LDL
88
Q

What is the MOA of Niacin

A

Inhibits fatty acid release from adipose tissue and hepatic trig production

89
Q

What is the drug class of Exetimibe

A

Cholesterol Absorption Inhibitor

90
Q

What are the indications of Exetimibe

A

Hypercholesterolemia

91
Q

What is the MOA of Exetimibe

A

Decreases absorption of cholesterol from GI tract

92
Q

What is the drug class of Omega 3 Fatty Acids

A

other

93
Q

What are the indications of Omega 3 Fatty Acids

A
  1. high Trig despite diet
  2. alcohol restriction
  3. fibrates
94
Q

What is the MOA of Omega 3 Fatty Acids

A

unknown

95
Q

what is the drug class of Evolocumab

A

PCSK9 Inhibitor

96
Q

what are the indications of Evolocumab

A
  1. drug resistant hyperlidemia

2. especially homozygous familial hypercholesterolemia

97
Q

what is the MOA of Evolocumab

A

human monoclonal antibody that binds to proprotein convertase subtilisin kexin type 9 (PCSK9) inhibiting the degradation of LDLR; this increases the number of LDLRs available to clear LDL from the blood, thereby lowering LDL-C levels.