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Computed Tomography > CT Boards > Flashcards

CT Boards Flashcards

1
Q

Informed consent is not required for any invasive procedure.

A

False

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2
Q

Normal body temperature is…

A

97.7 to 99.5 degrees F (36.5 to 37.5 degrees C)

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3
Q

Normal pulse rate for adults is…

A

60 to 100 beats per minute

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4
Q

Normal pulse rate for children is…

A

70 to 120 beats per minute

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5
Q

What is systolic blood pressure?

A

Pressure within arteries during cardiac contraction - - should be less than 120 mmHg

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6
Q

What is diastolic blood pressure?

A

Pressure within arteries during relaxation of the heart - - should be less than 80 mmHg

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7
Q

Normal blood oxygen levels are…

A

95% to 100%

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8
Q

What does the cardiac cycle refer to?

A

The series of blood flow related events that occur from the beginning of one heart beat to that of the next

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9
Q

What are the 3 distinct stages of the cardiac cycle?

A
  1. Atrial systole
  2. Ventricular systole
  3. Complete cardiac diastole
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10
Q

What is Atrial Systole?

A

Contraction of left & right atria - - corresponds to the onset of the P wave of an ECG

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11
Q

What is Ventricular Systole?

A

Contraction of left & right ventricles - - corresponds to the beginning of the QRS complex of an ECG

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12
Q

What is Complete Cardiac Diastole?

A

Period of relaxation after heart contraction - - consists of ventricular & atrial diastole - - corresponds to the T wave of an ECG

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13
Q

When are Cardiac CT images typically acquireed and reconstructed?

A

During the diastolic phase

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14
Q

Why do slower heart rates yield higher quality cardiac CT images?

A

Slower heart rates exhibit longer diastolic phases

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15
Q

Normal BUN value ranges in adults is…

A

7 to 25 mg/dL

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16
Q

Normal Creatinine levels in adults is…

A

0.5 to 1.5 mg/dL

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17
Q

What is the most accurate measure of renal function?

A

Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR)

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18
Q

How is GFR calculated?

A

Taking the patient’s measured serum creatinine level and factoring in the patient’s age, sex, & race.

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19
Q

Normal range of GFR for men is…

A

70 +/- 14 mL/min/m2

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20
Q

Normal range of GFR for women is…

A

60 +/- 10 mL/min/m2

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21
Q

What is Prothrombin TIme (PT)?

A

A measure of blood coagulation

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22
Q

Normal range of Prothrombin Time (PT) is…

A

12 to 15 sec

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23
Q

Normal range of Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT) is…

A

25 to 35 sec

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24
Q

What is D-dimer testing used to diagnose?

A

A deep vein thrombosis (DVT) & Pulmonary Embolism

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25
Q

What size IV catheter should be used for flow rates exceeding 3 mL/sec?

A

20 gauge or larger

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26
Q

How do you care for an extravasation?

A

Remove the needle/catheter & apply pressure with a warm, moist compress

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27
Q

Name examples of ionic contrast media…

A
  • Iothalamate meglumine (Conray)

- Diatrizoate sodium (Hypaque)

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28
Q

Name examples of non-ionic contrast media…

A
  • Iohexol (Omnipaque)
  • Iopamidol (Isovue)
  • Ioversol (Optiray)
  • Iodixanol (Visipaque)
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29
Q

What is the routine transit time for barium sulfate through the GI tract?

A

30 to 90 min

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30
Q

What is the routine transit time for water-soluble iodinated contract agents through the GI tract?

A

30 to 90 min

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31
Q

What type of contrast media is used for enterography & why?

A

Neutral oral contrast media distends the GI tract while still allowing for clear visualization of the bowel wall

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32
Q

List the mild reactions to iodinated contrast media…

A
  • Nausea/Vomiting
  • Mild urticaria (hives)
  • Pronounced sensation of warmth and/or flushing
  • Altered taste
  • Sweats/chills
  • Nasal stuffiness/sneezing
  • Anxiety
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33
Q

List the moderate reactions to iodinated contrast media…

A
  • Mild bronchospasm
  • Moderate to severe urticaria
  • Vasovagal response
  • Tachycardia from hypotension
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34
Q

List the severe reactions to iodinated contrast media…

A
  • Profound hypotension
  • Laryngeal edema
  • Severe bronchospasm
  • Pulmonary edema
  • Cardiac arrythmia
  • Seizures
  • Cardiopulmonary arrest
  • Death
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35
Q

What is inherent absorption efficiency?

A

The ability of the detector to capture transmitted x-ray quanta & produce the appropriate response

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36
Q

What is geometric efficiency of a detector array?

A

The spatial arrangement of detector elements, including the amount of interspace material required between adjacent elements

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37
Q

What is protocol optimization?

A

The process of adjusting parameters such as mA/kVp, slice thickness, & pitch for the purpose of reducing patient radiation dose while maintaining adequate image quality

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38
Q

There is a (directly/indirectly) proportional relationship between the mA setting, scan time, & patient radiation dose.

A

Directly

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39
Q

What is dose profile?

A

The section of the patient that is exposed to radiation during CT data acquisition.

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40
Q

When collimation is increased (ex: thinner slices), what happens to image noise?

A

More noise is yielded.

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41
Q

When dose is decreased what happens to image noise?

A

More noise is yielded.

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42
Q

Image noise is (directly/indirectly) related to patient size…

A

Directly

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43
Q

What happens to radiation dose saving as the heart rate increases?

A

It decrease - - dose increases

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44
Q

What is CT dose index (CTDI)?

A

An appropriate measure of the dose received in a single CT section or slice.

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45
Q

What is Multiple scan average dose (MSAD)?

A

A calculation of the average cumulative dose to each slice within the center of the a scan consisting of multiple slices.

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46
Q

What is pitch?

A

The amount of table travel per tube rotation divided by the collimation.

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47
Q

Window Level value of Gray/White Matter

A

35

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48
Q

Window Width value of Gray/White Matter

A

100

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49
Q

Window Level value of Bone (Head Work)

A

400

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50
Q

Window Width value of Bone (Head Work)

A

3000

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51
Q

Window Level value of a hemorrhage/hematoma

A

75

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52
Q

Window Width value of a hemorrhage/hematoma

53
Q

Window Level value of an acute ischemia

54
Q

Window Width value of an acute ischemia

55
Q

Slice thickness of axial images for CT Head

A

2-5 mm from base of skull through the posterior fossa

5-10 mm from posterior fossa through the vertex

56
Q

Window Level value of soft tissue (Head Work)

57
Q

Window Width value of soft tissue (Head Work)

58
Q

Window Level value of Soft Tissue (Neck to Chest)

59
Q

Window Width value of Soft Tissue (Neck to Chest)

60
Q

Window Level value of bone (Neck to Chest)

61
Q

Window Width value of bone (Neck to Chest)

62
Q

Window Level value of Lung Parenchyma

63
Q

Window Width value of Lung Parenchyma

64
Q

Window Level value of Mediastinum

65
Q

Window Width value of Mediastinum

66
Q

Window Level value of soft tissue (abdomen)

67
Q

Window Width value of soft tissue (abdomen)

68
Q

Window Level value of soft tissue (spine)

69
Q

Window Width value of soft tissue (spine)

70
Q

Window Level value of bone (spine)

71
Q

Window Width value of bone (spine)

72
Q

Slice thickness of axial images for CT Temporal Bones & IACs

73
Q

Slice thickness of coronal images for CT Temporal Bones & IACs

74
Q

Slice thickness of axial images for CT Orbits

A

1-3 mm acquired parallel to the IOML

75
Q

Slice thickness of coronal images for CT Orbits

A

1-3 mm acquired perpendicular to the axial plane

76
Q

Slice thickness of axial images for CT Facial Bones/Sinuses

77
Q

Slice thickness of coronal images for CT Facial Bones/Sinuses

78
Q

List the Components of the Circle of Willis

A
  • Right & Left Anterior Cerebral Arteries
  • Anterior Communicating Artery
  • Right & Left Internal Carotid Arteries
  • Right & Left Posterior Cerebral Arteries
  • Right & Left Posterior Communication Arteries
79
Q

Slice thickness of axial images for CTA Brain

A

0.5-1.5 mm

80
Q

What is the delay for a CTA Brain?

81
Q

What is the delay for a CT Head/Facial Bones/Orbits/Sinuses?

82
Q

Slice thickness of axial images for CT Soft Tissue Neck

83
Q

Slice thickness of axial images of CT Larynx

84
Q

What is the delay for a CT Soft Tissue Neck?

85
Q

Slice thickness of axial images for CTA Carotid

A

0.5-1.5 mm

86
Q

What is the delay for a CTA Carotid?

87
Q

Slice thickness of axial images for a HRCT of chest

88
Q

What is Cerebral Perfusion?

A

The level of blood flow throughout brain tissue

89
Q

Slice thinkness of axial images for a CTA Chest…

A

0.5 - 1.25 mm

90
Q

How does a saline flush in CTA work improve image quality?

A

It reduces artifact from dense contrast agent in the SVC

91
Q

What is the delay for a CTA Chest?

92
Q

A CAC Score of 1-10 indicates what level?

93
Q

A CAC Score of 11-100 indicates what level?

94
Q

A CAC Score of 101-400 indicates what level?

95
Q

A CAC Score of > 400 indicates what level?

96
Q

What is scanned for a CTA Coronary?

A

Aortic Arch through Cardiac Base

97
Q

What mediation dilates the blood vessels for a CTA Coronary?

A

Nitroglycerin

98
Q

What medication controls the heart rate for a CTA Coronary?

A

B-Blockers

99
Q

Name the two coronary arteries.

A

Right Coronary Artery (RCA) & Left Coronary Artery (LCA)

100
Q

Where do the coronary arteries arise from?

101
Q

Name the branches of the RCA in proximal to distal order.

A
  • Conus Artery
  • Sinus Nose Artery
  • Right Atrial Branches
  • Right Ventricular Branches
  • Posterior Descending Artery (PDA)
  • Posterior Left Ventricular Branches (PLBs)
102
Q

Name the branches of the LCA.

A
  • Left Anterior Descending Artery (LAD)

- Left Circumflex Artery (LCX)

103
Q

What does the LAD branch into?

A
  • Left Ventricular
  • Right Ventricular
  • Interventricular Diagonal Branches
104
Q

What does the LCX branch into?

A

Obtuse Marginal Arteries to the Left Ventrical & Left Posterolateral Branches

105
Q

85% of the population is (Right/Left) Dominant.

106
Q

Where does the PDA branch from on a Right Dominant Heart?

107
Q

8% of the population is (Right/Left) Dominant.

108
Q

Where does the PDA branch from on a Left Dominant Heart?

109
Q

What is temporal resolution?

A

The ability of a MDCT system to freese the motion of the heart as well as the atrial motion velocity within the coronary vasculature.

110
Q

Where is a Stanford type A dissection?

A

Ascending Aorta

111
Q

Where is a Stanford type B dissection?

A

Descending Aorta

112
Q

Why is non-contrast images of the liver ordered?

A
  • Hepatic Calcifications
  • Fatty infiltration
  • Hemorrhage
113
Q

What is the HU range for normal, unenhanced hepatic parenchyma?

114
Q

Hepatic neoplasm metastases usually appear (hyper/hypo)-dense.

115
Q

What are examples of hypervascular tumors?

A
  • Hemangiomas
  • Hepatocellular Carcinomas (HCC)
  • Focal Nodular Hyperplasia (FNH)
  • Hepatic Cysts
116
Q

Name some malignant neoplasms of the liver.

A
  • Hepatocellular Carcinoma

- Metastases

117
Q

Name the two vessels that supply the liver.

A

Portal vein & Hepatic Artery

118
Q

Name the three phases of hepatic contrast enhancement.

A
  • Arterial Phase
  • Portal/hepatic venous phase
  • Equilibrium Phase
119
Q

What is peak enhancement of contrast media during an Arterial Phase?

A

25-35 sec after initiation of contrast media

120
Q

When is peak enhancement of contrast media during a Venous Phase?

A

60-70 sec after initiation of contrast media

121
Q

When is the equilibrium phase of a liver?

A

2-3 min after initiation of contrast media

122
Q

What is the HU range for normal unenhanced spleen?

123
Q

What is a Whipple Procedure?

A

A resection of the pancreas & duodenum

124
Q

What is the HU range for the adrenal glands?

125
Q

What is the HU range for muscle?

126
Q

What is the HU range of a simple cyst on a kidney?

127
Q

What is the HU range of a hyperdense cyst on a kidney?

A

25-90 HU on an unenhanced scan

128
Q

What is the HU range of an angiomyolipoma?

129
Q

What is the HU range of Renal Cell Carcinoma (RCC)?

A

> 20-25 HU with contrast enhancement

Computed Tomography (1 decks)

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