CSX Study Guide Questions Flashcards

1
Q

__________________ is defined as “a model for enabling convenient, on-demand network access to a shared
pool of configurable resources (e.g., networks, servers, storage, applications and services) that can be rapidly
provisioned and released with minimal management or service provider interaction.”
A. Software as a Service (SaaS)
B. Cloud computing
C. Big data
D. Platform as a Service (PaaS)

A

B. Cloud computing

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2
Q

Select all that apply. Which of the following statements about advanced persistent threats (APTs) are true?
A. APTs typically originate from sources such as organized crime groups, activists or governments.
B. APTs use obfuscation techniques that help them remain undiscovered for months or even years.
C. APTs are often long-term, multi-phase projects with a focus on reconnaissance.
D. The APT attack cycle begins with target penetration and collection of sensitive information.
E. Although they are often associated with APTs, intelligence agencies are rarely the perpetrators of APT attacks.

A

A. APTs typically originate from sources such as organized crime groups, activists or governments.
B. APTs use obfuscation techniques that help them remain undiscovered for months or even years.
C. APTs are often long-term, multi-phase projects with a focus on reconnaissance.

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3
Q

Which of the following are benefits to BYOD?
A. Acceptable Use Policy is easier to implement.
B. Costs shift to the user.
C. Worker satisfaction increases.
D. Security risk is known to the user.

A

B. Costs shift to the user.

C. Worker satisfaction increases.

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4
Q
Choose three. Which types of risk are typically associated with mobile devices?
A. Organizational risk
B. Compliance risk
C. Technical risk
D. Physical risk
E. Transactional risk
A

A. Organizational risk
C. Technical risk
D. Physical risk

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5
Q

Which three elements of the current threat landscape have provided increased levels of access and connectivity,
and, therefore, increased opportunities for cybercrime?
A. Text messaging, Bluetooth technology and SIM cards
B. Web applications, botnets and primary malware
C. Financial gains, intellectual property and politics
D. Cloud computing, social media and mobile computing

A

Cloud computing, social media and mobile computing

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6
Q
1. Arrange the steps of the incident response process into the correct order.
A. Mitigation and recovery
B. Investigation
C. Postincident analysis
D. Preparation
E. Detection and analysis
A
D. Preparation
E. Detection and analysis
B. Investigation
A. Mitigation and recovery
C. Postincident analysis
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7
Q
Which element of an incident response plan involves obtaining and preserving evidence?
A. Preparation
B. Identification
C. Containment
D. Eradication
A

C. Containment

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8
Q

Select three. The chain of custody contains information regarding:
A. Disaster recovery objectives, resources and personnel.
B. Who had access to the evidence, in chronological order.
C. Labor, union and privacy regulations.
D. Proof that the analysis is based on copies identical to the original evidence.
E. The procedures followed in working with the evidence.

A

B. Who had access to the evidence, in chronological order.
D. Proof that the analysis is based on copies identical to the original evidence.
E. The procedures followed in working with the evidence.

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9
Q

NIST defines a(n) as a “violation or imminent threat of violation of computer security policies, acceptable use
policies, or standard security practices.”
A. Disaster
B. Event
C. Threat
D. Incident

A

D. Incident

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10
Q

Select all that apply. A business impact analysis (BIA) should identify:
A. the circumstances under which a disaster should be declared.
B. the estimated probability of the identified threats actually occurring.
C. the efficiency and effectiveness of existing risk mitigation controls.
D. a list of potential vulnerabilities, dangers and/or threats.
E. which types of data backups (full, incremental and differential) will be used.

A

C. the efficiency and effectiveness of existing risk mitigation controls.
D. a list of potential vulnerabilities, dangers and/or threats.
E. which types of data backups (full, incremental and differential) will be used.

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11
Q
1. Put the steps of the penetration testing phase into the correct order.
A. Attack
B. Discovery
C. Reporting 
D. Planning
A

D. Planning
B. Discovery
A. Attack
C. Reporting

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12
Q
  1. System hardening should implement the principle of ____________or_________ .
    A. Governance, compliance
    B. Least privilege, access control
    C. Stateful inspection, remote access
    D. Vulnerability assessment, risk mitigation
A

B. Least privilege, access control

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13
Q
Select all that apply. Which of the following are considered functional areas of network management as defined
by ISO?
A. Accounting management
B. Fault management
C. Firewall management
D. Performance management
E. Security management
A

A. Accounting management
B. Fault management

D. Performance management
E. Security management

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14
Q

Virtualization involves:
A. the creation of a layer between physical and logical access controls.
B. multiple guests coexisting on the same server in isolation of one another.
C. simultaneous use of kernel mode and user mode.
D. DNS interrogation, WHOIS queries and network sniffing.

A

B. multiple guests coexisting on the same server in isolation of one another.

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15
Q
Vulnerability management begins with an understanding of cybersecurity assets and their locations, which can be
accomplished by:
A. vulnerability scanning.
B. penetration testing.
C. maintaining an asset inventory.
D. using command line tools.
A

C. maintaining an asset inventory.

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16
Q

Select all that apply. The Internet perimeter should:
A. detect and block traffic from infected internal end points.
B. eliminate threats such as email spam, viruses and worms.
C. format, encrypt and compress data.
D. control user traffic bound toward the Internet.
E. monitor internal and external network ports for rogue activity.

A

A. detect and block traffic from infected internal end points.
B. eliminate threats such as email spam, viruses and worms.

D. control user traffic bound toward the Internet.
E. monitor internal and external network ports for rogue activity.

17
Q

The __________layer of the OSI model ensures that data are transferred reliably in the correct sequence, and the
_________layer coordinates and manages user connections.
A. Presentation, data link
B. Transport, session
C. Physical, application
D. Data link, network

A

Transport, session

18
Q

Choose three. There key benefits of the DMZ system are:
A. DMZs are based on logical rather than physical connections.
B. an intruder must penetrate three separate devices.
C. private network addresses are not disclosed to the Internet.
D. excellent performance and scalability as Internet usage grows.
E. internal systems do not have direct access to the Internet.

A

B. an intruder must penetrate three separate devices.
C. private network addresses are not disclosed to the Internet.

E. internal systems do not have direct access to the Internet.

19
Q
  1. Which of the following best states the role of encryption within an overall cybersecurity program?
    A. Encryption is the primary means of securing digital assets.
    B. Encryption depends upon shared secrets and is therefore an unreliable means of control.
    C. A program’s encryption elements should be handled by a third-party cryptologist.
    D. Encryption is an essential but incomplete form of access control.
A

D. Encryption is an essential but incomplete form of access control.

20
Q

The number and types of layers needed for defense in depth are a function of:
A. asset value, criticality, reliability of each control and degree of exposure.
B. threat agents, governance, compliance and mobile device policy.
C. network configuration, navigation controls, user interface and VPN traffic.
D. isolation, segmentation, internal controls and external controls.

A

A. asset value, criticality, reliability of each control and degree of exposure.

21
Q

___________________ includes many components such as directory services, authentication and authorization services, and user management capabilities such as provisioning and deprovisioning.

A

identity management

22
Q

_________________ are solutions to software programming and coding errors.

A

patches

23
Q

_____________ are used to interpret policies in specific situations.

A

standards

24
Q

___________________, also called malicious code, is software designed to gain access to targeted computer
systems, steal information or disrupt computer operations.

A

malware

25
Q

___________________ provide general guidance and recommendations on what to do in particular circumstances.

A

guidelines

26
Q

__________________ provide details on how to comply with policies and standards.

A

procedures

27
Q
. \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is a class of malware that hides the existence of other malware by modifying the
underlying operating system
A

rootkit

28
Q

___________________ communicate required and prohibited activities and behaviors.

A

policies

29
Q

In an attack, the container that delivers the exploit to the target is called a(n) ___________________ .

A

payload

30
Q

The path or route used to gain access to the target asset is known as a(n) ___________________ .

A

attack vector

31
Q

A(n) ___________________ is a weakness in the design, implementation, operation or internal controls in a process that could be exploited to violate the system security.

A

vulnerability

32
Q

A(n) ___________________ is something of value worth protecting.

A

asset

33
Q

A(n) ___________________ is anything capable of acting against an asset in a manner that can cause harm

A

threat

34
Q

The core duty of cybersecurity is to identify, mitigate and manage __________________ to an organization’s digital assets.

A

cyberrisk

35
Q
5. Which of the following cybersecurity roles is charged with the duty of managing incidents and remediation?
A. Board of directors
B. Executive committee
C. security management
D. Cybersecurity practitioners
A

C. security management

36
Q
  1. Which of the following is the best definition for cybersecurity?
    A. The process by which an organization manages cybersecurity risk to an acceptable level
    B. The protection of information from unauthorized access or disclosure
    C. The protection of paper documents, digital and intellectual property, and verbal or visual communications
    D. Protecting information assets by addressing threats to information that is processed, stored or transported by internetworked information systems
A

Protecting information assets by addressing threats to information that is processed, stored or transported
by internetworked information systems

37
Q
  1. Choose three. According to the NIST cybersecurity framework, which of the following are considered key
    functions necessary for the protection of digital assets?
    A. Encrypt
    B. Protect
    C. Investigate
    D. Recover
    E. Identify
A

B. Protect
D. Recover
E. Identify

38
Q
  1. Select all that apply. Governance has several goals, including:
    A. providing strategic direction.
    B. ensuring that objectives are achieved.
    C. verifying that organizational resources are being used appropriately.
    D. directing and monitoring security activities.
    E. ascertaining whether risk is being managed properly.
A

A. providing strategic direction.
B. ensuring that objectives are achieved.
C. verifying that organizational resources are being used appropriately.
E. ascertaining whether risk is being managed properly.

39
Q
  1. Three common controls used to protect the availability of information are:
    A. redundancy, backups and access controls.
    B. encryption, file permissions and access controls.
    C. access controls, logging and digital signatures.
    D. hashes, logging and backups.
A

A. redundancy, backups and access controls.